tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-51270033995945586622024-03-19T14:33:34.735+05:45 Dentosphere : World of DentistryRaman Dhungelhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/02665112922221205920noreply@blogger.comBlogger2096125tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5127003399594558662.post-46358745037099013192024-03-16T18:18:00.006+05:452024-03-16T18:18:51.168+05:45World Oral Health Day March 20, Best Smile Contest<p> <a class="x1i10hfl xjbqb8w x1ejq31n xd10rxx x1sy0etr x17r0tee x972fbf xcfux6l x1qhh985 xm0m39n x9f619 x1ypdohk xt0psk2 xe8uvvx xdj266r x11i5rnm xat24cr x1mh8g0r xexx8yu x4uap5 x18d9i69 xkhd6sd x16tdsg8 x1hl2dhg xggy1nq x1a2a7pz xt0b8zv xzsf02u x1s688f" href="https://www.facebook.com/hashtag/worldoralhealthday?__eep__=6&__tn__=*NK*F" role="link" style="-webkit-tap-highlight-color: transparent; border-style: none; border-width: 0px; box-sizing: border-box; cursor: pointer; display: inline; font-family: inherit; font-size: 15px; font-weight: 600; list-style: none; margin: 0px; outline: none; padding: 0px; text-align: inherit; text-decoration-line: none; touch-action: manipulation;" tabindex="0">#WorldOralHealthDay</a> <a class="x1i10hfl xjbqb8w x1ejq31n xd10rxx x1sy0etr x17r0tee x972fbf xcfux6l x1qhh985 xm0m39n x9f619 x1ypdohk xt0psk2 xe8uvvx xdj266r x11i5rnm xat24cr x1mh8g0r xexx8yu x4uap5 x18d9i69 xkhd6sd x16tdsg8 x1hl2dhg xggy1nq x1a2a7pz xt0b8zv xzsf02u x1s688f" href="https://www.facebook.com/hashtag/bestsmilecontest?__eep__=6&__tn__=*NK*F" role="link" style="-webkit-tap-highlight-color: transparent; border-style: none; border-width: 0px; box-sizing: border-box; cursor: pointer; display: inline; font-family: inherit; font-size: 15px; font-weight: 600; list-style: none; margin: 0px; outline: none; padding: 0px; text-align: inherit; text-decoration-line: none; touch-action: manipulation;" tabindex="0">#BestSmileContest</a></p><span style="background-color: white; color: #050505; font-family: "Segoe UI Historic", "Segoe UI", Helvetica, Arial, sans-serif; font-size: 15px;">Riddhi Dhungel Age: 30 months Submission by: Dr. Raman Dhungel, MDS Resident Orthodontics and Dentofacial Orthopedics, BPKIHS</span><div><span style="color: #050505; font-family: Segoe UI Historic, Segoe UI, Helvetica, Arial, sans-serif;"><span style="font-size: 15px;"><br /></span></span></div><div><span style="color: #050505; font-family: Segoe UI Historic, Segoe UI, Helvetica, Arial, sans-serif;"><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEhHA5iZY3slFN3R4-fjMuKgmdnrHtA44ahqGNDWX5j4Sh4TcL-sgJjH8QGdCwRh7X182r6akXnNdztgZwTKub4vxlQhDQhuVeVs5WjeKchXpoquXFpTcrS7L9v0D1OP7iFScHxxzOfNPj3mdw020EcVsm5Zly7uJhUx2Rf6tOEPUOZCW4ImbMd1fqPrbv8/s6000/DSC_0122.JPG" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="6000" data-original-width="4000" height="523" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEhHA5iZY3slFN3R4-fjMuKgmdnrHtA44ahqGNDWX5j4Sh4TcL-sgJjH8QGdCwRh7X182r6akXnNdztgZwTKub4vxlQhDQhuVeVs5WjeKchXpoquXFpTcrS7L9v0D1OP7iFScHxxzOfNPj3mdw020EcVsm5Zly7uJhUx2Rf6tOEPUOZCW4ImbMd1fqPrbv8/w348-h523/DSC_0122.JPG" width="348" /></a></div></span><div><span style="background-color: white; color: #050505; font-family: "Segoe UI Historic", "Segoe UI", Helvetica, Arial, sans-serif; font-size: 15px;"><br /></span></div><h2 style="text-align: left;"><span style="font-family: Segoe UI Historic, Segoe UI, Helvetica, Arial, sans-serif;"><span style="background-color: white; font-size: 15px;"><a href="https://www.facebook.com/photo/?fbid=449905104272334&set=a.194331186496395">CLICK HERE TO LIKE HER PHOTO FOR THE CONTEST</a></span></span></h2></div>Raman Dhungelhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/02665112922221205920noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5127003399594558662.post-47748035294760535212024-03-15T08:19:00.002+05:452024-03-15T08:24:27.744+05:45MCQs on Pharmacology - Drugs acting on Autonomic Nervous System<div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on">
<div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;">
<br /></div>
<b> # The highest seat of regulating autonomic functions is located in: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Hypothalamus <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Medulla <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Spinal cord <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Midbrain<div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEi8RabuIXJtWLIx4P4UnK88bmj2L-dPjXYiEkhRNYA9cYcSle57NC_2qhPwvxgLEQd4yWnQjSW3bfwrnliBnTzXi6xqzcLeGriGjcD4uo8RO-Umd_Auofvb8Vj6sDlMzHkMUkFU-8XOLRqA1TJAdo5deollocD-wjd0xpr7nYu3xMgIckEr0AnHxxRH9_8/s1152/Screenshot%202024-03-15%20082020.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="646" data-original-width="1152" height="179" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEi8RabuIXJtWLIx4P4UnK88bmj2L-dPjXYiEkhRNYA9cYcSle57NC_2qhPwvxgLEQd4yWnQjSW3bfwrnliBnTzXi6xqzcLeGriGjcD4uo8RO-Umd_Auofvb8Vj6sDlMzHkMUkFU-8XOLRqA1TJAdo5deollocD-wjd0xpr7nYu3xMgIckEr0AnHxxRH9_8/s320/Screenshot%202024-03-15%20082020.png" width="320" /></a></div><br /> <br />
<br />
<b> # Catecholamines are synthesized from which amino acid? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Histamine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Phenylalanine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Tryptophan <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Glycine<span><a name='more'></a></span> <br />
<br />
<b> # The alpha receptors function is mediated mainly by: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. ATP <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. NADH <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. IP3/DAG <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. cAMP <br />
<br />
<b> # The B actions are mediated by which of the following? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Cyclic AMP and adenyl cyclase <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Monoamino-oxidase <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Adenosine triphosphatase and NADH <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. None of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is not a catecholamine? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Adrenaline <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Noradrenaline <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Isoproterenol <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. Phenylephrine <br />
<br />
<b> # In which of the following categories are ephedrine, tyramine and amphetamine classified? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Anticholinesterases <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Alpha-adrenergic blocking agents <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Indirect acting sympathomimetics <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Direct acting sympathomimetics <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following regarding the adrenergic actions mediated by receptors is not true? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Stimulation of alpha receptors causes vasoconstriction and increase in BP <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Mydriasis effect is mediated by beta receptors <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Cardiac stimulation is mediated by B1 receptors <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Bronchodilation is mediated by B2 receptors <br />
<br />
<b> # The alpha and beta receptors have opposite action on the following tissues/organs EXCEPT: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Contraction of arterioles and veins <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Contraction of uterus <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Contraction of intestinal muscles <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Insulin secretion <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following are therapeutic uses of adrenergic drugs? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Hypotensive states as seen in shock <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Control of local bleeding and to prolong duration of action of anesthetics <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Nasal decongestants and in relaxation of bronchial muscles <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # All of the following are the actions of adrenaline EXCEPT: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Increase in heart rate and blood pressure <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Increase in gastric motility and increased contraction of muscles of GIT <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Dilation of bronchial muscles <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Increased contraction of uterus <br />
<br />
<b> # Epinephrine is formed from norepinephrine by: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Acetylation <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Methylation <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Decarboxylation <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Deamination <br />
<br />
<b> # An excess of which of the following hormones may be associated with increased sensitivity to epinephrine? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Testosterone <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Parathyroid <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Insulin <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. Thyroid <br />
<br />
<b> # In which of the following conditions is complete contraindications to vasoconstrictors (adrenergic drugs)? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Thyrotoxicosis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Hypertension <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Myocardial infarction <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is not an action of epinephrine when administered intravenously in a high dose? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Increases liver glycogenolysis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Causes bronchiolar constriction <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Evokes extrasystoles in the heart <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Produces restlessness and anxiety <br />
<br />
<b> # Vasopressor action of adrenaline is mediated by: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Alpha receptors <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Beta receptors <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Both alpha and beta receptors <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. None of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # When noradrenaline is given, it ultimately results in: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Increased heart rate and decreased blood pressure due to stimulation of B receptors only <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Increased heart rate and increased blood pressure due to stimulation of alpha receptors only <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Increase in blood pressure and reflex bradycardia due to vasovagal stimulation <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. None of the above <br />
<br />
<script async="" src="//pagead2.googlesyndication.com/pagead/js/adsbygoogle.js"></script>
<script>
(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({
google_ad_client: "ca-pub-8419641143363974",
enable_page_level_ads: true
});
</script>
<b> # The cardiac stimulatory actions of catecholamines are mainly mediated by: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. B1 receptors <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. B2 receptors <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Alpha 1 receptors <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Alpha 2 receptors <br />
<br />
<b> # The drug of choice in shock is: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Acetylcholine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Atropine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Adrenaline <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Isoproterenol <br />
<br />
<b> # In allergic patients, epinephrine reverses the action of histamine by bronchodilation and increasing blood pressure. This kind of interaction between epinephrine and histamine is called: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Physiological antagonism <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Competitive antagonism <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Physiological agonist activity <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Partial agonist activity <br />
<br />
<b> # When an alpha blocking agent is given with the following drugs a 'vasomotor reversal of Dale' or fall in BP is noticed. The drug is: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Adrenaline <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Acetylcholine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Noradrenaline <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # The vasopressor action of adrenaline is reversed by (OR) Dale's vasomotor reversal is exhibited by adrenaline if following drug is given before it: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Adrenergic drugs like amphetamine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Alpha blockers like phenoxybenzamine and phentolamine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Beta blocker like propranolol <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Beta agonists like salbutamol <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following drugs improves renal blood flow and BP in patients of shock and severe CHF (cardiogenic shock)? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Dopamine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Amphetamine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Ephedrine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Phenylephrine <br />
<br />
<b> # Felypressin is a : </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Vasodilator <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Vasoconstrictor <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Neuroleptic drug <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Anticoagulant <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following drugs acts by releasing noradrenaline from the nerve terminals in CNS: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Dopamine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Amphetamine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Ephedrine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Phenylephrine <br />
<br />
<b> # All of the following result from stimulation of beta receptors EXCEPT: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Bronchodilation and intestinal relaxation <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Tachycardia and vasodilation <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Vasoconstriction and pupillary dilation <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Hyperglycemia <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is not a result of B-adrenergic stimulation? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Contraction of radial muscle of iris and mydriasis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Cardiac stimulation increases rate, force and conduction velocity <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Bronchodilation and decreased tone of intestinal musculature <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Liver glycogenolysis leading to hyperglycemia <br />
<br />
<b> # All of the following are the results of B2 adrenergic stimulation EXCEPT one which results mainly by B1 adrenergic stimulation. The EXCEPTION is: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Increase in cardiac activity <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Bronchial relaxation <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Liver glycogenolysis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Dilation of arteries and fall in BP <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following drugs is a predominantly Beta 2 agonist? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Dobutamine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Procaterol <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. BRL37344 <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Isoproterenol <br />
<br />
<b> # Beta -2 agonist causes: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Mydriasis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Contraction of urinary sphincters <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Vasoconstriction <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. Bronchial muscle relaxation <br />
<br />
<b> # Beta-2 adrenergic receptor stimulating drugs are used in: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Bronchial asthma <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Cardiac asthma <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Hypertension <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Angina pectoris <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following catecholamines have potent bronchodilation property? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Noradrenaline and adrenaline <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Noradrenaline and isoprenaline <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Isoprenaline and dopamnine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. Adrenaline and isoproterenol <br />
<br />
<b> # Long acting beta-2 agonist? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Albuterol <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Salmeterol <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Pirlbuterol <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Orciprenaline <br />
<br />
<b> # WHich of the following adrenergic drugs has a selective B agonist property and is a potent bronchodilator? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Salbutamol and orciprenaline <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Ephedrine and phenylephrine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Isoprenaline and pronalterol <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Amphetamine and ephedrine <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is not a selective B2 agonist? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Salbutamol <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Terbutaline <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Orciprenaline <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. Methoxamine <br />
<br />
<b> # The drug which is typically known for tachyphylaxis is: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Amphetamine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Isoproterenol <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Ephedrine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Phenylephrine <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is an endogenous catecholamine? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Noradrenaline <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Ephedrine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Amphetamine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Isoproterenol <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is not a direct acting sympathomimetic drug? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Norepinephrine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Phenylephrine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Salbutamol <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. Tyramine <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following selectively blocks alpha 1 receptors? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Prazosin <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Metoprolol <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Salbutamol <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Amphetamine <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following statements about tyramine is false? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. It is direct acting amine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Cheese is the richest source <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Can precipitate hypertensive crisis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. None of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following causes rise in systolic as well as diastolic blood pressure for prolonged period? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Epinephrine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Ephedrine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Norepinephrine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Dopamine <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following group of drugs are used in the treatment of glaucoma? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Beta blockers such as timolol and betaxolol and alpha agonists like phenylephrine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Cholinergic agonists like carbachol, pilocarpine, and anticholinesterases like physostigmine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Diuretics like acetazolamide <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # In which of the following patients beta blockers are contraindicated? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Asthmatic patients <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Hyperthyroid patients <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Hypertensive patients <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Migraine patients <br />
<br />
<b> # In which of the following patients beta blockers are given for therapeutic effects? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Treatment of hypertension and hyperthyroidism <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Myocardial infarction and angina pectoris <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Migraine and glaucoma <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # The antihypertensive effect of beta-blockers is due to: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Decrease in cardiac output <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Decreased angiotensin II <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Antitension effect <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Beta blocker with additional alpha-blocking property is: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Propranolol <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Timolol <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Metoprolol <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. Labetalol <br />
<br />
<b> # Beta blocker without local anesthetic action is: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Metoprolol <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Pindolol <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Atenolol <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. Timolol <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is a contraindication to adrenaline? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Halothane <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. B blockers <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Both of the above <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. None of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following beta blockers has selective beta 1 blocking effect (or) the beta blocker which is cardioselective is: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Metoprolol and atenolol <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Propranolol and timolol <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Pindolol and acebutol <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following beta blockers are said to have intrinsic sympathomimetic activity? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Metoprolol and atenolol <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Propranolol and timolol <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Pindolol and acebutol <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Labetalol and timolol <br />
<br />
<b> # Propranolol is contraindicated in: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. CHF, heart blocks, and vascular diseases <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Bradycardia, chronic obstructive lung diseases <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Hypoglycemia due to insulin therapy <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Beta blockers are used in all EXCEPT: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Pheochromocytoma <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Migraine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Thyrotoxicosis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Secondary shock <br />
<br />
<b> # Beta blockers are not indicated in: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Mild hypertension, pheochromocytoma and hypertension <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Tachycardia and arrhythmias <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Angina pectoris and myocardial infarction <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. Bronchial asthma <br />
<br />
<b> # WHich of the following sites acetylcholine exhibits its action through muscarinic receptors? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. All parasympathetic and sympathetic ganglia <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Adrenal medulla <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. All postganglionic or neuroeffector junction of parasympathetic nervous system <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Neuromuscular junction of skeletal muscle <br />
<br />
<b> # The direct cholinergic agonists or cholinomimetic drugs exhibit their action by: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Mimic the effects of acetylcholine by directly bonding to choline receptors <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Binding to acetylcholinesterase and thereby reversibly inhibiting the hydrolysis of acetylcholine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. By stimulating the release of acetylcholine from nerve endings <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. None of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is not a direct acting cholinergic drug? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Pilocarpine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Edrophonium <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Methanechol <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Bethanechol <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is an irreversible anticholinesterase? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Pralidoxime <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Neostigmine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Edrophonium <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. Organophosphates like parathion and malathion <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following anticholinesterases has more prominent effect on motor endplate of skeletal muscle? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Neostigmine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Physostigmine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Pyridostigmine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Edrophonium <br />
<br />
<b> # The muscarinic receptors can be selectively blocked by: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Atropine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Scopolamine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Curare <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Hexamethonium <br />
<br />
<b> # Mechanism of action of ipratropium bromide: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Dilating peripheral bronchioles <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Beta 2 agonist <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Muscarinic antagonist <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following statements is true? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Cholinergic receptors are closely related in structure to acetylcholinesterase <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Acetylcholine is a major neurohormonal transmitter at autonomic as well as somatic sites <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Acetylation of choline is facilitated by the enzyme choline acetylase <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following actions of acetylcholine is mediated largely by nicotinic receptors? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Bradycardia <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Smooth muscle contraction <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Increased secretions <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. Twitching and fasciculations <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is not a function of acetylcholine given in therapeutic doses? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Increased secretions like increased sweating, salivation, lacrimation and increased gastric secretions <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Constriction of smooth muscles and precipitation of asthma due to bronchoconstriction <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Peripheral vasoconstriction and increase in blood pressure <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Decreased heart rate and decreased force of contraction <br />
<br />
<b> # Organophosphate blocks the action of which of the following enzymes? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Acetylcholinesterase <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Mono amino-oxidase <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Adenyl cyclase <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following reactivates cholinesterase? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Pralidoxime <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Neostigmine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Physostigmine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Isoflurophate <br />
<br />
<b> # All of the following result in cholinergic crises EXCEPT (OR) Which of the following do not potentiate the action of acetylcholine: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Physostigmine and neostigmine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Carbachol and bethanechol <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Scopolamine and pralidoxime <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Pilocarpine and edrophonium <br />
<br />
<b> # Scopolamine helps in: (TWO ANSWERS CORRECT) </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Motion sickness <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Hypertension <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Decreasing secretions <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Myasthenia gravis <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following are specific antidotes for anticholinesterase poisoning? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Atropine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Pralidoxime <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Both of the above <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. None of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # WHich of the following anticholinesterases is mainly used in the treatment of Myasthenia gravis? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Physostigmine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Neostigmine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Pyridostigmine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Edrophonium <br />
<br />
<b> # The beneficial effect of drug neostigmine in the treatment of myasthenia gravis is due to the action: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. It produces more acetylcholine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. It inhibits the action of cholinesterase <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. It produces more acetylcholine receptors <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. It increases the action of cholinesterase <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following causes miosis of the eye? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Morphine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Pilocarpine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Prazosin <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<script async="" src="//pagead2.googlesyndication.com/pagead/js/adsbygoogle.js"></script>
<script>
(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({
google_ad_client: "ca-pub-8419641143363974",
enable_page_level_ads: true
});
</script>
<b> # All of the following may result in mydriasis EXCEPT: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Atropine and Scopolamine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Ephedrine and phenylephrine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Phenoxybenzamine and dibenamine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Ephedrine and amphetamine <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following produces mydriasis without cycloplegia? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Ephedrine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Atropine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Pilocarpine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Isoproterenol <br />
<br />
<b> # Given below is a pair of drugs which have opposite action on smooth muscles of GIT but EXCEPT one pair which has similar actions. Exception is: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Atropine and Carbachol <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Epinephrine and Morphine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Amphetamine and Ephedrine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Amphetamine and Papaverine <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following increases muscle tone and contractibility of the muscles of GIT? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Carbachol <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Atropine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Scopolamine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Papaverine <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following cholinergic agonists are correctly matched with its pharmacological actions? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Bethanechol used to stimulate atonic bladder particularly in postpartum urinary retention <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Carbachol releases epinephrine from the adrenal medulla by its nicotinic action <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Pilocarpine useful in lowering of intraocular pressure in narrow angle and wide angle glaucoma <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Atropine, the prototype of anticholinergic, exhibits its action by: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Competitive antagonism with acetylcholine for receptor sites, in particular with muscarinic receptors <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Inhibiting the release of cholinesterase and preventing the degradation og acetylcholine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. By interfering with the uptake of choline by axonal membrane during synthesis of acetylcholine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. None of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Atropine results in tachycardia due to: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Vagolytic activity <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Stimulation of B receptors <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Stimulation of alpha receptors <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Stimulation of cholinergic receptors <br />
<br />
<b> # Bradycardia is most commonly treated with which of the following drugs? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Epinephrine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Atropine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. A diuretic <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. A potent vasodilator <br />
<br />
<b> # The intramuscular administration of 0.6 mg of atropine sulpahte to a 50 kg adult may produce all of the following effects EXCEPT: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Bradycardia <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Decreased salivation <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Decreased sweating <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Mydriasis <br />
<br />
<b> # The side effects resulting from scopolamine overdosage such as confusion, hallucinations and other CNS actions are best treated by: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Physostigmine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Neostigmine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Levodopa <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Methacholine <br />
<br />
<b> # In which of the following patients atropine is strongly contraindicated? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Acute narrow angle glaucoma <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Peptic ulcers <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Bronchial asthma <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Drug induced diarrhoea <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following drugs is preferred in motion sickness? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Hyoscine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Atropine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Propantheline <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Pirenzepine <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is not a side effect of ganglion blocking drugs? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Braadycardia and hypotension <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Mydriasis, cycloplegia (blurring of vision) <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Increased salivation, sweating and urination <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Constipation and impotency <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following are ganglion blocking agents in therapeutic doses? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Hexamethonium and mecamylamine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Atropine and scopolamine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Carbachol and methanechol <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Neostigmine and physostigmine <br />
<br />
<b> # The most common side effect of ganglionic blocking drugs are: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Orthostatic hypotension <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Precipitation of peptic ulcer <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Bradycardia <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Increased salivation <br />
<br />
<b> # The drugs which have potent anti-secretory action and given to dry secretions of mouth are: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Pilocarpine and muscarine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Propantheline and methentheline <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Phenylephrine and ephedrine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Carbachol and bethanechol <br />
<br />
<b> # All of the following drugs result in bronchodilation EXCEPT: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Anticholinergics <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Beta 2 sympathomimetics <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Anticholinesterases <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. None of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # The anticholinergic drug most commonly used in the treatment of motion sickness is: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Atropine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Scopolamine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Pirenzepine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Propantheline <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following drugs are contraindicated in patients with glaucoma: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Anticholinergic <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Adrenergic <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Cholinergic <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Opiates <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following are given in the treatment of glaucoma? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Anticholinesterases <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Cholinomimetics <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Beta adrenergic blockers and alpha adrenergic agonists <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # All of the following result in dry mouth EXCEPT: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Anticholinergics <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Ganglion blocking agents <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Adrenergic agonists <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Antihistamines <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following effectively induces salivation and may be used for treatment of Xerostomia: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Adrenergic agonists like ephedrine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Cholinergic drugs like pilocarpine and neostigmine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Ganglion blocking drugs like hexamethonium <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Adrenergic blocking drugs like prazosin and mecamylamine <br />
<br />
<b> # Pilocarpine: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Lowers the intraocular pressure in glaucoma <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Cleaved by acetylcholinesterase <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Inhibits sweat and lacrimation <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Causes tachycardia <br />
<br />
<b> # All of the following have CNS stimulation EXCEPT one. The exception is: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Atropine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Scopolamine or hyoscine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Ephedrine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Amphetamine <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following effectively reduces gastric acid secretion? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. H1 histamine receptor antagonists <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. H2 histamine receptor antagonists <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Anticholinergics <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. NSAIDs drugs <br />
<br />
</div>
<div>
<script type="text/javascript">
function getAnswer(input) {
if (input == "ans") {alert ("CORRECT ANSWER")}
else {alert ("INCORRECT ANSWER TRY AGAIN")}
}
</script>
</div>
<div class="fb-like" data-action="like" data-href="URL" data-layout="standard" data-share="true" data-show-faces="true" data-size="small"></div>Raman Dhungelhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/02665112922221205920noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5127003399594558662.post-21796802724359947672024-03-15T08:17:00.002+05:452024-03-15T08:23:51.622+05:45MCQs in Pharmacology - Drugs acting on Central Nervous System<div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on">
<div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;">
<br /></div>
<b> # CNS depressant drug which reduces excitement without much effect on sleep is (also called anti anxiety drug): </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Anticholinergic <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Antipsychotic <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Sedative <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Hypnotic<div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEhy45tSbMPOgOmUVzV5if_-izy73BbGQdANJRHzM1dIxDTmFva-FRuiaWhv60PBxz_iDHG19-IHYtybaRUzULvutHO7tLC6XnJRkmerIQ88GOvl8SDHP2YqePgSkkOoRj3VuyeWrowKNrRnbHhuVTkJjFWv6exvCLDLK4JQTzJjxUKLRnkJW64iJ3TMxRQ/s1131/Screenshot%202024-03-15%20082005.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="618" data-original-width="1131" height="175" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEhy45tSbMPOgOmUVzV5if_-izy73BbGQdANJRHzM1dIxDTmFva-FRuiaWhv60PBxz_iDHG19-IHYtybaRUzULvutHO7tLC6XnJRkmerIQ88GOvl8SDHP2YqePgSkkOoRj3VuyeWrowKNrRnbHhuVTkJjFWv6exvCLDLK4JQTzJjxUKLRnkJW64iJ3TMxRQ/s320/Screenshot%202024-03-15%20082005.png" width="320" /></a></div><br /> <br />
<br />
<b> # CNS depressant drug which produces sleep but patient may be awakened by inducing pain. This type of drug is called: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Antileptic <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Antisympathetic <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Sedative <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. Hypnotic<span><a name='more'></a></span> <br />
<br />
<b> # All of the following are true regarding sedative hypnotics EXCEPT: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. They are mainly used in treatment of insomnia <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Their action on CNS is dose dependent <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. They produce analgesia <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. They produce drug dependance <br />
<br />
<b> # Drugs which induce natural sleep when administered in therapeutic doses are called as: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Hypnotic <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Sedative <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Soporifics <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Analgesics <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is an effective anti anxiety drug? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Dantrolene <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Chlordiazepoxide <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Baclofen <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Promazine <br />
<br />
<b> # Benzodiazepines exert their anti-anxiety effect by modifying which of the following neurohormones? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. GABA <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Serotonin <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Dopamine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Glyceryl acetic acid <br />
<br />
<b> # The action of benzodiazepines at neurons of GABA sites can be described as: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. GABA mimetic as well as GABA facilitatory <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. GABA facilitatory only, no GABA mimetic action <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. GABA mimetic only, no GABA facilitatory action <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. No action at GABA sites <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following describes the action of benzodiazepines? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Sedative and anxiolytic <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Anticonvulsant and centrally acting muscle relaxant <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Preanesthetic medication <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Benzodiazepines are used for all of the following EXCEPT: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Sedative and tranquillizers <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Muscle relaxants and anaesthetics <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Antiepileptics <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. Antihistamines and antipsychotics <br />
<br />
<b> # Benzodiazepams are preferred to barbiturates as anti-anxiety drugs because: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Benzodiazepams has less CNS depressant action <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. It has less addiction potential <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. It has rapid onset of action <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. None of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following benzodiazepines do not produce any active metabolite in the body? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Diazepam and chordiazepoxide <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Flurazepam and alprazolam <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Oxazepam and Lorazepam <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following benzodiazepines have marked antiepileptic activity? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Diazepam and Flurazepam <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Flurazepam and Oxazepam <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Diazepam and Clonazepam <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Oxazepam and Clonazepam <br />
<br />
<b> # All are true of diazepines EXCEPT: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Benzodiazepam is used in treatment of status epilepticus <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Benzodiazepam is used in the long term treatment of psychic disorders <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Clonazepam is used in the treatment of petit mal epilepsy <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. None of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following relaxes skeletal muscle by acting on CNS? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Diazepam <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Meprobromate <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Chlordiazepoxide <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is least likely to produce respiratory depression when given IV? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Diazepam <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Fentanyl <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Phenobarbitone <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Morphine <br />
<br />
<b> # One of the benzodiazepines comparatively safe in pregnancy is (Category B): </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Alprazolam <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Zolpidem <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Lorazepam <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. None of the above <br />
<br />
<script async="" src="//pagead2.googlesyndication.com/pagead/js/adsbygoogle.js"></script>
<script>
(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({
google_ad_client: "ca-pub-8419641143363974",
enable_page_level_ads: true
});
</script>
<b> # Verril's sign is seen in: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Diazepam administration <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Digitalis toxicity <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Paget's disease <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Unconscious states <br />
<br />
<b> # Diazepams are preferred to barbiturates for emergency treatment of CNS stimulation because: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Diazepam has rapid onset of action <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Barbiturates do not have anticonvulsant effect <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Diazepam has less profound CNS depression <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Which among the following may be used as a sedative-hypnotic? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Zolmitriptan <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Zileuton <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Zolpidem <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Zalcitabine <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is specific antagonist to benzodiazepine? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Amphetamine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Flumazenil <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Meprobamate <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. MAO inhibitors <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following has additive action on CNS depression when given together? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Narcotics and antipsychotics <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Alcohol and anti anxiety drugs <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Antianxiety and barbiturate <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following drugs are not antidepressants? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Diazepam and meprobamate <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. MAO inhibitors <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Amphetamines <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Tricyclic compounds like phenothiazines <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is true regarding barbiturates? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. They depress all areas of CNS and the effect is dose dependant <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Sleep is mainly maintained by depressing reticular activating system <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. They mainly potentiate GABA facilitatory action as well as GABA-mimetic action <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is not TRUE of barbiturates? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Respiratory depression is the main cause of death in barbiturate poisoning <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Hypnotic doses of barbiturates produce myocardial depression and cardiac arrest <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Barbiturates reduces urinary flow and increase ADH release <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Barbiturates effect on CNS ranges from sedation, hypnosis and anesthesia and to coma depending on dose <br />
<br />
<b> # IV ultrashort acting barbiturate: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Meprobamate <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Pentobarbitone <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Thiopentone <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Phenobarbitone <br />
<br />
<b> # The action of highly lipid soluble thiopental and other ultrashort acting barbiturates us terminated mainly by: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Redistribution <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Dealkylation in the liver <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Renal excretion <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. COnjugation in the liver <br />
<br />
<b> # Regarding thiopentone sodium following statement is false: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. It is a potent anaesthetic <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Poor analgesic <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Induces laryngospasm <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. Produces potent muscle relaxation <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is true of thiobarbiturates? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. A rapid redistribution from brain to body <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Fast onset and short duration of action tissues due to high lipid solubility <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. They are used in induction of anesthesia <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Acute barbiturate poisoning results in: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Renal failure <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Liver failure <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Respiratory failure <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Convulsions <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is least appropriate for the treatment of acute overdose of pentobarbital? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Injection of analeptics like metrazol, bemegride to stimulate CNS <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Forced alkaline diuresis with mannitol and sodium bicarbonate <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Gastric lavage and haemoperfusion <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Use of vasopressor such as dopamine for renal vasodilation <br />
<br />
<b> # In acute barbiturate poisoning first and foremost thing advised is: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. To inject analeptics <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. To maintain adequate respiration <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Alkalinization of urine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Gastric lavage <br />
<br />
<b> # Barbiturates in paediatrics is: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Contraindicated <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Low safety <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Can be used safely <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Of much use <br />
<br />
<b> # Barbiturates may potentiate the side effect of orthostatic hypotensionto a significant effect with all of the following EXCEPT: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Tricyclic compounds <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. MAO inhibitors <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Reserpine and Gunathedine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. Chlorthiazide <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is not TRUE of barbiturates: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. They have significant analgesic property and elevate pain threshold <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. They have anticonvulsant action <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. They do not have selective anti-anxiety action and impair short term memory and learning <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. They are mainly metabolized in liver <br />
<br />
<b> # Chlorpromazine is a: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Barbiturate <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Tricyclic antidepressant <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. MAO inhibitor <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. Phenothiazine <br />
<br />
<b> # The antipsychotic (major tranquillizers) belonging to phenothiazine group has all of the following actions EXCEPT: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Anti anxiety and anticonvulsant effect <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Anti emetic and local anesthetic effect <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Anti histaminic and anticholinergic effect <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Alpha adrenergic and dopaminergic blocking action <br />
<br />
<b> # Atypical antipsychotics are all EXCEPT: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Olanzapine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Clozapine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Risperidone <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. Thioridazone <br />
<br />
<b> # The antipsychotic drug producing the greatest sedative effect is: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Haloperidol <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Chlorpromazine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Trifluoperazine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Diazepam <br />
<br />
<b> # Dryness of mouth is commonly associated with the following drugs: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Antibiotics <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Antidiuretics <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Tranquillizers <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. NSAIDs <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following drugs causes extrapyramidal symptoms? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Antibiotics <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Salicylates <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Barbiturates <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. Phenothiazines <br />
<br />
<b> # Phenothiazines like chlorpromazine exhibit their antipsychotic action mainly by blocking the following receptors in CNS: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Dopaminergic <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Histamine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Serotonin <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Adrenergic <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is an irreversible side effect resulting from long term administration of phenothiazine antipsychotics? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Infertility <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Parkinsonism <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Xerostomia <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. Tardive dyskinesia <br />
<br />
<b> # Phenothiazines are used to: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Produce muscle relaxation <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Alter psychotic behaviour <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Suppress coughing <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Produce analgesia <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following are side effects of chlorpromazine? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Adrenergic and cholinergic blockade results in xerostomia and dry mouth <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Alpha-adrenergic blockade results in postural hypotension <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Cholestatic jaundice and photosensitivity which are not dose dependant <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Besides antipsychotic action, phenothiazines are potent: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Analgesics <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Antiemetics <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Antihypertensives <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Anticonvulsants <br />
<br />
<b> # The drugs used in the treatment of mental depression are: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Phenothiazines and benzodiazepines <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Tricyclic compounds and MAO inhibitors <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Benzodiazepines and barbiturates <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Phenothiazines and barbiturates <br />
<br />
<b> # Amitryptaline is a: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Antibiotic <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Sedative <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Tricyclic antidepressant <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Diuretic <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following drugs are currently the mainstay of treatment of depressive psychosis? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Second generation tricyclic antidepressants <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. MAO inhibitors <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Barbiturates <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Phenothiazines <br />
<br />
<b> # The effect of tricyclic compounds on ANS is mainly: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Anticholinergic (muscarinic blockade) like atropine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. B adrenergic blocking like propranolol <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Anticholinergic (nicotinic blockade) <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. None of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # The depressive action of tricyclic compounds is related to which of the following? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Inhibition of the uptake of biogenic amines like noradrenaline, 5HT and dopamine into their respective neurons <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Inhibition of the synthesis of neuronal transmitters like GABA and dopamine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Blockade of dopaminergic nerve endings <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Facilitatory action on GABA transmission <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following are the common side effects of tricyclic antidepressants? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Xerostomia and constipation <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Postural hypotension <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Sedation and mental confusion <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is true of MAO inhibitors? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. They inhibit MAO in irreversible reaction <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Ingestion of tyramine-rich food like cheese may lead to hypertensive crisis when taking MAO inhibitors <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Their side effects are similar to tricyclic compounds <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is a serious complication of CNS depressants that leads to death? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Cardiovascular collapse <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Respiratory depression <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Blockade of autonomic ganglion <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Cardiac depression <br />
<br />
<b> # The drug of choice in acute maniac-depressive psychosis is: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Lithium carbonate <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Phenothiazines <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Tricyclic antidepressants <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Benzodiazepines <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is true of amphetamine? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. It is a centrally acting sympathomimetic drug <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Its central actions are largely mediated by release of mediators like noradrenaline and dopamine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. It is the drug of abuse capable of producing physical as well as psychological dependance <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following actions is true of amphetamine? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. It is certainly acting sympathomimetic drug <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Its central actions are largely mediated by release of mediators like noradrenaline and dopamine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. It is the drug of abuse capable of producing physical as well as psychological dependance <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following actions is true of amphetamine? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Increased fatigue <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Reduced appetite <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Reduced pain threshold <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. None of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # In which of the following disorders amphetamine is not used? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Narcolepsy <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Obesity <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Mild depression <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. Anorexia nervosa <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following psychostimulants is preferred to amphetamine in treatment of hyperkinetic children? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Methylphenidate <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Nikethemide <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Ethyl butamide <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Doxapram <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following methylxanthines is used in CNS stimulation? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Caffeine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Theophylline <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Theobromine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # The higher centre most commonly affected by caffeine is: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Medulla <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Cortex <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Hypothalamus <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. It does not affect higher centres <br />
<br />
<b> # All of the following drugs are used in the treatment of Parkinsonism EXCEPT: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Levodopa <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Bromocriptine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Amantadine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. Haloperidol <br />
<br />
<b> # Which is the single most effective drug in parkinsonism treatment which converts rapidly into active dopamine? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Bromocriptine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Levodopa <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Carbidopa <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Amantadine <br />
<br />
<b> # All of the following penetrate the CSF EXCEPT: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Dextrose <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Dilantin <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Diazepam <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. Dopamine <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is administered along with levodopa for a beneficial effect in the treatment of parkinsonism? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Bromocriptine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Carbidopa <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Promethazine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Amantadine <br />
<br />
<b> # All of the following are side effects of Levodopa EXCEPT: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Nausea and vomitting <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Postural hypotension and arrhythmia <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Sedation <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Fluctuation in motor performance <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is an absolute contraindication of hypnotic drugs? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Porphyrism <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Angina pectoris <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Liver diseases <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Renal impairment <br />
<br />
<b> # Damage to certain areas of brain are associated with certain disorders. Which of the following are correctly matched? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Sleep arousal - Reticular activating system <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Increased pain perception - Thalamus <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Parkinsonism - Basal ganglion <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Carbamazepine is a type of: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Antidepressant <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Anti-inflammatory <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Antibiotic <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Antiemetic <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is true of carbamazepine? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. It is a general-purpose analgesic <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. It is effective during the attack of trigeminal neuralgia <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. It is used in temporal lobe epilepsy and in grand mal epilepsy, similar to phenytoin <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Used in the treatment of post-herpetic neuralgia <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is true of carbamazapine? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. It is the drug of choice in trigeminal neuralgia <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Carbamazepine is an inhibitor of GABA <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Can cause megaloblastic anemia and gingival hyperplasia <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Most common side effect of carbamazepine is: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Ataxia <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Pancytopenia <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Gingival hyperplasia <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Vomitting <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following has neurone membrane stability effect? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Phenytoin <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Morphine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Barbiturate <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Benzodiazepine <br />
<br />
<b> # Pseudolymphoma and gingival enlargements are the side effects of: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Phenytoin or diphenylhydantoin <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Barbiturates <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Carbamazepine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Sodium valproate <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following are side effects of phenytoin? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Megaloblastic anemia <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Osteomalacia <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Hyperglycemia <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Folic acid deficiency is associated with administration of: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Phenytoin <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Chloramphenicol <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Isoniazide <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Streptomycin <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following are long acting barbiturates? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Phenobarbitone and mephobarbitone <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Secobarbitone and pentobarbitone <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Thiopentone and hexobarbitone <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Pentobarbitone and thiopentone <br />
<br />
<b> # The drug of choice in terminating tonic-clonic seizures is: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Diazepam <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Phenobarbitone <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Diphenylhydantoin <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Sodium valproate <br />
<br />
<b> # The barbiturate which is used in treatment of grand mal epilepsy is: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Secobarbital <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Pentobarbital <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Thiopental sodium <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. Phenobarbital <br />
<br />
<b> # Which among the following would be most effective in absence seizures? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Phenytoin <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Carbamazepine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Valproic acid <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Phenobarbitone <br />
<br />
<b> # The drug of choice in grand mal epilepsy: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Phenobarbitone <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Ethosuximide <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Phenytoin <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Diazepam <br />
<br />
<b> # Drug of choice in grand mal epilepsy: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Phenobarbitone <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Ethosuximide <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Phenytoin <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Diazepam <br />
<br />
<b> # Drug of choice in trigeminal neuralgia is: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Phenobarbitone <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Phenytoin <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Carbamazepine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Diazepam <br />
<br />
<b> # The reason why phenytoin is preferred in the treatment of grand mal epilepsy over phenobarbitone in that phenytoin: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Does not cause depression <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Is not drug of addiction <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Is effective in all age groups <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. Produces less sedation for a given degree of cortical depression <br />
<br />
<b> # If a grand mal develops in a petit mal patient, you would like to prefer: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Sodium valproate <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Phenytoin <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Diazepam <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Phenobarbitone <br />
<br />
<b> # Drug of choice in petit mal epilepsy: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Phenytoin <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Diazepam <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Phenobarbitone <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. Sodium valproate and ethosuximide <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is the current drug of choice for status epilepticus? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Phenytoin <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Diazepam <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Carbamazepine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Chlorpromazine <br />
<br />
<b> # Best and most effective drug to control convulsions in toxicity cases is: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Phenobarbitone <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Phenytoin <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Diazepam <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Carbamazepine <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following antiepileptic agents causes the reversible side-effect of gingival hyperplasia? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Ethosuximide <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Phenobarbitone <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Sodium valproate <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. None of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # The sudden withdrawl of which of the following anti-epileptics results in precipitation of status epilepticus? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Phenytoin <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Valproate <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Phenobarbitone <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Diazepam <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following drugs is least efficacious in the treatment of temporal lobe epilepsy? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Phenobarbitone <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Phenytoin sodium <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Primidone <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Carbamazepine <br />
<br />
<b> # An attack of migraine can be easily terminated by: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Acetylchoine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Ergotamine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Morphine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Ibuprofen <br />
<br />
<b> # Phenytoin is associated with: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Folic acid deficiency <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Alzheimer's disease <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Cushing's syndrome <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Vitamin C deficiency <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following drugs causes extrapyramidal symptoms? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Diphenylhydantoin <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Primidone <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Phenobarbitone <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Sodium valproate <br />
<br />
<b> # Ethanol is a: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Mild rubefacient and counter irritant <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Astringent <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Antiseptic <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following are pharmacological or toxic effects of ethyl alcohol? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Alcohol euphoria is a result of removal of inhibitory effect of the cortex <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. It inhibits ADH secretion and increases diuresis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. In moderate doses it increases BP while in large doses it decreases BP as well as vasomotor depression <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # All of the following are true of pharmacokinetics of alcohol EXCEPT: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. It is mainly absorbed from stomach and is very fast <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. It crosses the blood-brain barrier and placenta freely <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. It follows zero-order kinetics i.e. constant amount (10-15ml/hr) is degraded in unit time irrespective of blood concentration <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. 90% of it is metabolized by liver and is excreted through kidney and lungs <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is not a factor in determining the blood levels of alcohol? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Gastric emptying time <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Rate of metabolism and body weight <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Rate of intake and alcohol content of beverage <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. Rate of urinary excretion and state of mind <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following drugs are not synergistic with alcohol in depressing the CNS? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Amphetamine, caffeine and methyl phenidate <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Barbiturates and diazepams <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Meperidine and morphine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Use of ethyl alcohol is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. It increases gastric secretion and results in chronic gastritis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. It produces cutaneous and gastric vasoconstriction following ingestion <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. It mobilizes peripheral fat and increases fatty synthesis in liver <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. It results in Wernicke's encephalopathy and Korsakoff's psychosis <br />
<br />
<b> # One of the obvious consequences of alcohol (ethanol) ingestion in many individuals is facial flushing and increased heart rate triggered off by alcohol getting metabolized to: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Formaldehyde <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Acetaldehyde <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Propanaldehyde <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Butanaldehyde <br />
<br />
<b> # Korsakoff's syndrome is associated with the long term use of: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Alcohol <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Amphetamines <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Barbiturates <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Diazepam <br />
<br />
<b> # The ethyl alcohol (ethanol) is more effective as disinfectant when mixed with water and used as: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. 10 to 20 percent <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. 20 to 30 percent <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. 40 to 50 percent <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. 60 to 70 percent <br />
<br />
<b> # Which is mainstay of the alcohol antabuse treatment? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Disulfiram <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Morphine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Phenothiazine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Chloropropamine <br />
<br />
</div>
<div>
<script type="text/javascript">
function getAnswer(input) {
if (input == "ans") {alert ("CORRECT ANSWER")}
else {alert ("INCORRECT ANSWER TRY AGAIN")}
}
</script>
</div>
<div class="fb-like" data-action="like" data-href="URL" data-layout="standard" data-share="true" data-show-faces="true" data-size="small"></div>Raman Dhungelhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/02665112922221205920noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5127003399594558662.post-71770292065975155702024-03-14T07:18:00.008+05:452024-03-15T08:23:21.370+05:45MCQs in General Pathology - Cardiovascular Pathology<div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on">
<div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;">
<br /></div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgGau_n9SIVL41lU1cJHeZunvZwV4P-aGnoUT7nDyT0FJbffuUixsEIeQRwpGsQJsIzF-WWvnIXMMurymXkXXtJ_ASuMJJf9gY28yMv16jEGPNxCVEg2y5G9LnUb50flqutc9-1k3xBBYSeeOMhEc0hyVCGp018Hl23E8veJGJnSA1D9gdZ54Zf9WxcAoA/s1149/Screenshot%202024-03-15%20082121.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="647" data-original-width="1149" height="180" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgGau_n9SIVL41lU1cJHeZunvZwV4P-aGnoUT7nDyT0FJbffuUixsEIeQRwpGsQJsIzF-WWvnIXMMurymXkXXtJ_ASuMJJf9gY28yMv16jEGPNxCVEg2y5G9LnUb50flqutc9-1k3xBBYSeeOMhEc0hyVCGp018Hl23E8veJGJnSA1D9gdZ54Zf9WxcAoA/s320/Screenshot%202024-03-15%20082121.png" width="320" /></a></div><br />
<b> # All of the following are examples in which active hyperemia is seen EXCEPT: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Inflammation and high grade fever <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Blushing of face following emotion <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Muscular exercise <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. Cardiac congestive failure <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is true of heart failure cells? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Hemosiderin pigment laden alveolar macrophages present in venous congestion of lungs <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Also called as Aschoff nodules present in endocardium seen in rheumatic fever <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Also called as Mallory bodies seen in alcoholic cirrhosis of liver <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Cells responsible for cardiac failure in congestive cardiac failure<span><a name='more'></a></span> <br />
<br />
<b> # Cor pulmonale most commonly results from: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Pulmonary hypertension <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Systemic hypertension <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Myocardial infarction <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Aortic stenosis <br />
<br />
<b> # Left side heart failure results in: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Oedema of lungs <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Oedema of spleen <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Oedema of legs <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Oedema of liver <br />
<br />
<b> # Nutmeg liver is seen in: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Chronic venous congestion due to right side heart failure <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Infective hepatitis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Alcoholic cirrhosis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Left sided heart failure commonly results from: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Mechanical overload as seen in aortic stenosis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Weakness of left ventricular wall as in myocardial infarction <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Both of the above <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. None of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Chronic venous congestion of lungs. TRUE is: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Develops in left side heart failure and is mainly due to atherosclerotic heart diseases <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Brown induration of lungs occurs in left side heart failure <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Heart failure cells are present in alveolar lumina <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Gamma Gandy bodies are seen in: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Liver <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Spleen <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Kidney <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Lung <br />
<br />
<b> # Heart failure cells are: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Fibrocytes in myocardium <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Aschoff's giant cells <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Hemosiderin laden macrophages in alveoli <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Hypertrophic myocardial fibres <br />
<br />
<b> # The earliest symptom of patients with congestive cardiac failure is: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Dyspnoea <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Angina pectoris <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Oedema of ankles <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Confusion <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is not associated with congestive cardiac failure? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Oedema of ankles <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Confusion and dullness <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Congestion of liver and cyanosis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. Anasarca or generalised oedema of body <br />
<br />
<b> # The most common conspicuous clinical sign of right sided heart failure is: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Systemic venous congestion <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Systemic hypertension <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Chronic congestion of lung <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Mitral stenosis <br />
<br />
<b> # The most reliable post mortem feature of left sided cardiac failure is: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Systemic venous congestion <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Oedematous ankles <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Chronic venous congestion of lungs <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Enlargement of spleen and liver <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is not a direct cause of left sided heart failure? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Aortic stenosis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Systemic hypertension <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Myocardial infarction <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. Emphysema <br />
<br />
<b> # Pulmonary hypertension causes hypertrophy of: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Right ventricle <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Right atrium <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Left ventricle <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Left atrium <br />
<br />
<b> # Myocardial infarction is common in patients with hyperlipidemia, hypertension and diabetes. These are associated in common with: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Atherosclerosis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Thrombosis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Congenital diseases <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Pulmonary embolism <br />
<br />
<b> # The common cause of sudden death in myocardial infarction is: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Pulmonary embolism <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Arrhythmia <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Congestive heart failure <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. None of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # The common cause of cardiac death in developed countries is: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Coronary heart diseases <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Mitral stenosis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Congestive cardiac disease <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Endocarditis <br />
<br />
<b> # Each of the following is a risk factor for atherosclerosis EXCEPT: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Heredity <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Alcoholism <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Hypertension <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Diabetes mellitus <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('e')" type="radio" /> E. Hyperlipoproteinemia <br />
<br />
<b> # Earliest lesion in atherosclerosis is: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Atheroma <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Fatty flake <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Fibrous flake <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. None of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Cerebral embolism occurring as a complication of myocardial infarction is most indicative of: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Mural thrombosis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Phlebothrombosis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. None of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Vascular changes in pulmonary hypertension are similar to: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Essential hypertension <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Pulmonary embolism <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Pulmonary infarct <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. None of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Hypertensive heart disease is most commonly associated with: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Left ventricular hypertrophy <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Right ventricular hypertrophy <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Tricuspid stenosis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Pulmonary stenosis <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is most likely to cause sudden cardiac arrest? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Constrictive pericarditis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Tricuspid stenosis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Cardiac tamponade <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Pulmonary hypertension <br />
<br />
<b> # After myocardial infarction, all of the following enzyme levels are high EXCEPT: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT) <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Creatinine phosphokinase (CPK) <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. Serum ornithine carbamyl transferase (SOCT) <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following isoenzymes of CPK is characteristically increased in immediate myocardial infarction: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. CPK1 or BB <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. CPK2 or MB <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. CPK3 or MM <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. None of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Three days after the onset of myocardial infarction which enzyme level has the best predictive value? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Serum CPK <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Serum LDH <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Serum SGOT <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Serum SGPT <br />
<br />
<b> # Vegetation in acute bacterial endocarditis consists of: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Fibrin fused platelets with masses of bacteria and neutrophil infiltration <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Fibrin fused platelets with granulation tissue formation and fibroelastic proliferation <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Areas characterized by healing and scar formation <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following are characteristically present in rheumatic fever? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Aschoff bodies in cardiac muscle <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Dane particles in liver <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Russel bodies in plasma cells <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Monekenberg's sclerosis of the aorta <br />
<br />
<b> # Valvular damage in heart as seen in rheumatic fever results from: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Hypersensitivity to group A streptococci <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Hypersensitivity to group B streptococci <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Primary infection of Streptococcus albus <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Primary infection of beta-hemolytic streptococci <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is a minor clinical sign of rheumatic fever? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Migratory polyarthritis and carditis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Sydenham's chorea <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Fever and increased ESR <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Erythema marginatum and subcutaneous nodules <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is not a minor sign of rheumatic fever? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Increased ASO titres <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Fever and increased ESR values <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Leukocytosis and ECG changes <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. Rheumatic arthritis and chorea <br />
<br />
<b> # The major cause of death in rheumatic fever is: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Cardiac failure <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Bacterial endocarditis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Embolism <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following valves is most commonly affected in rheumatic fever and in subacute bacterial endocarditis? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Mitral valve <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Tricuspid valve <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Aortic valve <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Pulmonary valve <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is difference between acute and subacute bacterial endocarditis? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis occurs on previously damaged valves whereas acute bacterial endocarditis occurs on normal valves <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. The vegetations of acute type are more bulky and globular than subacute type <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Vegetations of acute form are characterized by neutrophil infiltration whereas in subacute form it is characterized by mononuclear infiltration and formation of granulation tissue <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Rose-Wallar Test is positive in: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Rheumatoid arthritis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Osteoarthritis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Gout <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Psoriatic arthritis <br />
<br />
<b> # Clubbing of fingers and cyanosis of nail beds is seen in all of the following conditions EXCEPT: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Congenital heart diseases and CCF <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Congenital pulmonary disease <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Polycythemia <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. Syphilis <br />
<br />
</div>
<div>
<script type="text/javascript">
function getAnswer(input) {
if (input == "ans") {alert ("CORRECT ANSWER")}
else {alert ("INCORRECT ANSWER TRY AGAIN")}
}
</script>
</div>
<div class="fb-like" data-action="like" data-href="https://www.dentaldevotee.com/2024/03/mcqs-in-general-pathology.html" data-layout="standard" data-share="true" data-show-faces="true" data-size="small"></div>Raman Dhungelhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/02665112922221205920noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5127003399594558662.post-44606061001940432732024-03-13T23:28:00.003+05:452024-03-15T08:22:50.088+05:45MCQs in General Pathology - Acute and Chronic Infections<div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on">
<div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;">
<br /></div>
<b> # Adenopathy is clinically manifested by: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Hyposalivation <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Swelling <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. High grade fever <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Lepra cells are seen in abundance in: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Tuberculoid leprosy <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Lepromatous leprosy <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Histoid leprosy <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Intermediate leprosy<span><a name='more'></a></span> <br />
<br />
<b> # Leonine face is seen in which type of leprosy? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Tuberculoid <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Lepromatous <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Borderline <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Intermediate <br />
<br />
<b> # Early positive reaction in lepromin test is: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Fernandez reaction <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Mitsuda reaction <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Wasserman reaction <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Non of the above<div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEioALc48fZuP_9NmgaDLIl5Nio8CuJIsA49jRPqohbHzd5LxIpyWQizdBkC0zJdnAYN3HeL3Gm3bmmD_PXni1Rp5gtoNbMGFL5lcn0LgT_QtLNwqMDGWuF10GDJ6nUi8pivfjH3QMGFXIbcsjtyta_4K8B7NL4Z-B9uo608mcZdYmuNaiTDiIrtxDT5KDs/s1145/Screenshot%202024-03-15%20082101.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="653" data-original-width="1145" height="182" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEioALc48fZuP_9NmgaDLIl5Nio8CuJIsA49jRPqohbHzd5LxIpyWQizdBkC0zJdnAYN3HeL3Gm3bmmD_PXni1Rp5gtoNbMGFL5lcn0LgT_QtLNwqMDGWuF10GDJ6nUi8pivfjH3QMGFXIbcsjtyta_4K8B7NL4Z-B9uo608mcZdYmuNaiTDiIrtxDT5KDs/s320/Screenshot%202024-03-15%20082101.png" width="320" /></a></div><br /> <br />
<br />
<b> # In which of the following systems ascending infections are common? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Cardiac system <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Urinary tract <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Respiratory tract <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Gastrointestinal tract <br />
<br />
<b> # Bacteremia is common following: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Root canal treatment <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Pulpectomy <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Scaling <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. Multiple extractions <br />
<br />
<b> # A bacterial disease with oropharyngeal manifestations: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Herpetic stomatitis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Diphtheria <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Mumps <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Measles <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following viruses is not dermotrophic? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Herpes <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Polio <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Rubeola <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Rubella <br />
<br />
<b> # Serious complications of an infant delivered by a mother with gonorrhoea is: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Opthalmia neonatorum <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Toxaemia <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Congenital gonorrhoea <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # The enzymes liberated by streptococci which results in spread of infection is: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Polypeptides <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Proteolytic enzymes <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Fibrinolysin and hyaluronidase <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. None of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Perivascular accumulation of monocytes (cell immunity) is not seen in: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Scarlet fever <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Syphilis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Rabies <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Herpes <br />
<br />
<b> # Anterior horns of spinal cord are damaged by: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Rabies <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Poliomyelitis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Bacterial meningitis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Histologically, Koplik spots contain: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Intracytoplasmic inclusions <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Intercytoplasmic inclusions <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Both of the above <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Inclusion bodies <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following are correctly matched? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Primary syphilis - 3-4 days after incubation <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Secondary syphilis - 2-3 months after infection <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Tertiary syphilis - Only after a latent period <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # The most infective lesion in which anerobic motile spirochetes can be demonstrated is: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Gumma <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Mucous patch <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Chancre <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is true of leutic aneurysm (syphilitic aneurysm)? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Common in aorta <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. There is classic tissue destruction <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Weakening of tunica media results <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # The tertiary lesions of syphilis: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Form ulceration <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Form granulation tissue <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Form cold abscesses <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. Undergo healing with scar formation <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following post-streptococcal diseases are autoimmune? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Impetigo and erysipelas <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Glomerulonephritis and rheumatic fever <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Pharyngitis and puerperal fever <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Scarlet fever and erysipelas <br />
<br />
<b> # Interstitial pneumonia is caused by: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Virus and Rickettsia <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Fungus and bacteria <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Rickettsia and bacteria <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Virus and bacteria <br />
<br />
<b> # All of the following are features of infectious mononucleosis EXCEPT: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Bence jones proteins in urine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Increased number of abnormal lymphocytes which agglutinate with sheep RBC <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Elevated heterophile titre <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly <br />
<br />
<b> # Frontal bossing, olympian brow, opera glass nose and moon's mulberry molars is seen in: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Tuberculosis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Congenital gonorrhoea <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Congenital syphilis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Ricketts <br />
<br />
<b> # Frontal bossing, saddle nose and Hutchinson's triad is seen in: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Tuberculosis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Congenital gonorrhoea <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Congenital syphilis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Leprosy <br />
<br />
<b> # Most common mode of transmission of tuberculosis is: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Inhalation <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Ingestion <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Inoculation <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Skin <br />
<br />
<b> # Most common route of spread of tuberculosis is: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Local spread <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Lymphatics <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Hematogenous <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Natural passages <br />
<br />
<b> # Miliary tuberculosis is characterized by: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Hematogenous spread <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Disseminated form involving many organs <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Characterized by small caseating tubercle nodules <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # A massive large dose of tubercle bacilli compared to small dose produces: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. No lesion <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Non progressive lesion <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Slowly progressing lesion <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Latent period <br />
<br />
<b> # The pathological changes seen in tuberculosis are a result of: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Koch's phenomenon <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Hypersensitivity and immunity <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Acute inflammatory changes <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Toxins liberated by bacteria <br />
<br />
<b> # A positive tuberculin test indicates: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Previous infection with tuberculous bacilli <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Patient is susceptible to infection <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Both of the above <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. None of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following cells are seen in miliary tubercles? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Epitheloid cells in periphery of minute areas of caseation necrosis of granuloma <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Eosinophils surrounding granuloma <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Mast cells in centre of granuloma <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Plasma cells in periphery of granuloma <br />
<br />
<b> # Cold abscess is a characteristic feature of: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Tuberculosis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Syphilis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Acute infective suppuration <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following statements is correct? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Tuberculosis in man is caused by M. hominis and M. bovine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Bovine tuberculosis is least fatal compared to hominis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. In AIDS common form of tuberculosis is M. avium intracellulare <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Which of the following is least involved in secondary tuberculosis? </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Lung <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Intestine <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Skin <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> D. Skeletal muscle <br />
<br />
<b> # Primary tuberculosis in children who has not been previously infected or immune is called as: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Ghon's complex <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Pulmonary tuberculosis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Miliary tuberculosis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. None of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Ghon complex of the lung usually: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Undergoes cavitation <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Undergoes calcification <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Progresses to tuberculous pneumonia <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Progresses to miliary tuberculosis <br />
<br />
<b> # The last stage of progressive tuberculosis lesion is: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Granuloma formation <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Caseous necrosis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Cavitation <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Calcification <br />
<br />
<b> # The hematogenous spread of tuberculosis infection from primary complex to the apex of lung as seen in secondary tuberculosis is called as: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Ghon's focus <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Simon's focus <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Miliary tuberculosis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. None of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Fibrocaseous tubercles are: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Hard tubercles <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Soft tubercles <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Calcified tubercles <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Centrally liquefied tubercles <br />
<br />
<b> # Pulmonary tuberculosis is associated with all of the following EXCEPT: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Ghon's focus, at the junction of upper and lower lobes of lung <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Lymph node components especially hilar lymph nodes with tuberculous granulation and fibroma <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. Pulmonary apical lesion <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Ghon's tubercle or primary tubercle at the point of their entry into body <br />
<br />
<b> # Calcification of primary tubercles indicate: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Favorable healing response <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Dissemination of caseous material <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Reactivation of tuberculous bacillus <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # Granuloma with central caseation necrosis with cherry appearances (soft tubercle) is a feature of: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> A. Tuberculosis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. Sarcoidosis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Leprosy <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. All of the above <br />
<br />
<b> # The common causative organism in tuberculosis in AIDS patients is: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Mycobacterium hominis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('b')" type="radio" /> B. M. bovis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> C. M. avium intracellulare <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. M. murine <br />
<br />
<b> # Occupational disease of lung caused by inhalation of sugarcane dust is called as: </b><br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('a')" type="radio" /> A. Byssinosis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('ans')" type="radio" /> B. Bagassosis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('c')" type="radio" /> C. Anthracosis <br />
<input name="rad1" onclick="getAnswer('d')" type="radio" /> D. Silicosis <br />
<br />
</div>
<div>
<script type="text/javascript">
function getAnswer(input) {
if (input == "ans") {alert ("CORRECT ANSWER")}
else {alert ("INCORRECT ANSWER TRY AGAIN")}
}
</script>
</div>
<div class="fb-like" data-action="like" data-href="https://www.dentaldevotee.com/2024/03/mcqs-in-general-pathology-acute-and.html" data-layout="standard" data-share="true" data-show-faces="true" data-size="small"></div>Raman Dhungelhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/02665112922221205920noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5127003399594558662.post-65571737439449006822024-03-13T23:14:00.001+05:452024-03-13T23:14:38.547+05:45 Psammoma bodies are associated with:<div style="text-align: left;"> # Psammoma bodies are associated with:</div><div> A. Metastatic calcification</div><div>B. Dystrophic calcification</div><div>C. Apoptosis</div><div>D. Necrosis</div><div><br /></div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEiHVoNF7HmE1m_sjGnTzCAZbk9exER7RepCtpf3KgV3jWA7TeQPURlJgfq-9fnU4ADt9devS1WX7hxvRIrw0SZRii0HD2pohauviLEZAMMUB5txpxWtJDRBvX5WBoIOjzSnVdYbFVNWjSx0mhT1rwkOID-WGODr9Lqoepb72e7HivYc0nh3u9wg-xwBQeQ/s1844/Screenshot%202024-03-13%20231236.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="1055" data-original-width="1844" height="284" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEiHVoNF7HmE1m_sjGnTzCAZbk9exER7RepCtpf3KgV3jWA7TeQPURlJgfq-9fnU4ADt9devS1WX7hxvRIrw0SZRii0HD2pohauviLEZAMMUB5txpxWtJDRBvX5WBoIOjzSnVdYbFVNWjSx0mhT1rwkOID-WGODr9Lqoepb72e7HivYc0nh3u9wg-xwBQeQ/w497-h284/Screenshot%202024-03-13%20231236.png" width="497" /></a></div><br /><div>The correct answer is B. Dystrophic calcification.</div><div><br /></div><div><div>Psammoma bodies are round microscopic calcific collections. It is a form of dystrophic calcification. They are the characteristic feature of papillary carcinomas. </div><div><br /></div></div>Raman Dhungelhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/02665112922221205920noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5127003399594558662.post-87547172183231514882024-03-13T23:10:00.007+05:452024-03-13T23:10:51.159+05:45A young adult shows non fluctuant, tender and red swelling in the marginal gingival lesion. This is most likely to be a:<div style="text-align: left;"> # A young adult shows non fluctuant, tender and red swelling in the marginal gingival lesion. This is most likely to be a:</div><div> A. Periodontal abscess</div><div>B. Periapical abscess</div><div>C. Gingival abscess</div><div>D. Periapical sinus</div><div><br /></div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEiMjl3UtuvlN7S7_3_oyK3SonZk33EuYJRZEvSzU5BcCZ-r0XLO291guVss_66bmbKf3Ltn5YAQTAmOB1LWS0r15_IA08EcX9lx2R-NhcQfGbRbtQU6a1ThZLIXzYkhRV5nReTVtTGfNFq4YrR-cKd85a2_iRQ40th1h-ASk-I__FDUcvYj-T-DdqsocWQ/s1875/Screenshot%202024-03-13%20230824.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="1061" data-original-width="1875" height="287" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEiMjl3UtuvlN7S7_3_oyK3SonZk33EuYJRZEvSzU5BcCZ-r0XLO291guVss_66bmbKf3Ltn5YAQTAmOB1LWS0r15_IA08EcX9lx2R-NhcQfGbRbtQU6a1ThZLIXzYkhRV5nReTVtTGfNFq4YrR-cKd85a2_iRQ40th1h-ASk-I__FDUcvYj-T-DdqsocWQ/w507-h287/Screenshot%202024-03-13%20230824.png" width="507" /></a></div><div><br /></div>The correct answer is C. Gingival abscess.<div><br /></div><div><b>Gingival abscess</b></div><div><div>■Localized, painful rapidly expanding lesion of sudden onset. </div><div>■It is limited to marginal gingival or interdental papilla. </div><div>■It is due to foreign substances carried deep into the tissues such as a toothbrush bristle, a piece of apple core, or a lobster shell. </div><div>■Gingival abscess involves marginal and interdental gingiva, whereas periodontal abscess involves attached gingiva. </div><div><br /></div><div><br /></div></div>Raman Dhungelhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/02665112922221205920noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5127003399594558662.post-52207741711252199102024-03-08T23:03:00.001+05:452024-03-08T23:03:08.983+05:45Palmar and plantar hyperkeratosis is a feature of:<div style="text-align: left;"> # Palmar and plantar hyperkeratosis is a feature of:</div><div> A. Down syndrome</div><div>B. Papillon Lefevre Syndrome</div><div>C. Chediak-Higashi Syndrome</div><div>D. Klinefelter syndrome</div><div><br /></div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgDvaihXkG93x7UGpZL8NVFqAMp3rRfRaSy1Hd3u762T1FZy0dn7kGmxAoOaHfJV1Qlic7mNdAIUIY7MEUvfZ8Zw5Xjxfp1F-B_m95AfTFxDPwCc0ZhfP1G0bsYYMWlhgVNymIBZEcGtz2q6ts_sFN4hmDFZKigkpQWm1M4JVfu107zaHiOU9xnq7xeWmo/s1879/Screenshot%202024-03-08%20225952.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="1067" data-original-width="1879" height="338" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgDvaihXkG93x7UGpZL8NVFqAMp3rRfRaSy1Hd3u762T1FZy0dn7kGmxAoOaHfJV1Qlic7mNdAIUIY7MEUvfZ8Zw5Xjxfp1F-B_m95AfTFxDPwCc0ZhfP1G0bsYYMWlhgVNymIBZEcGtz2q6ts_sFN4hmDFZKigkpQWm1M4JVfu107zaHiOU9xnq7xeWmo/w595-h338/Screenshot%202024-03-08%20225952.png" width="595" /></a></div><br /><div>The correct answer is B. Papillon Lefevre Syndrome.</div><div><br /></div><div><div><b>Papillon-Lefevre Syndrome </b></div><div>1. This is characterized by hyperkeratotic skin lesions and severe destruction of the periodontium. </div><div>2. These changes may appear before the age of 4 years. </div><div>3. Skin lesions are—hyperkeratosis of localized areas on palms, soles, knees, and elbows. </div><div>4. Periodontal involvement is early inflammatory changes that lead to bone loss and exfoliation of teeth. Primary teeth are lost by 5 or 6 years of age. The permanent dentition erupts normally but the permanent teeth are lost within a few years. </div><div><br /></div></div>Raman Dhungelhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/02665112922221205920noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5127003399594558662.post-78947627485525832912024-03-08T22:56:00.001+05:452024-03-08T22:56:07.603+05:45Ions participating in clotting mechanism are:<div style="text-align: left;"> # Ions participating in clotting mechanism are:</div><div> A. Iron</div><div>B. Copper</div><div>C. Calcium</div><div>D. Aluminium</div><div><br /></div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgntR-7Soxa-B_sCu4HKAzbMjqrMMNitR-cLvVf0wXGqzTCBY5TpW1Rv3IO42J85OEUS4-q19H467Ekw51kjQbKs-hzcUI7IFc86CA95fFofZO1e0QxTdVjwZfOIy-gS5_HBV2LAALo-B0X-lyv97RhFrVStAwe45GeFUz1NnDTjerbkplRPw_0LxzNFKg/s1872/Screenshot%202024-03-08%20225440.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="1056" data-original-width="1872" height="361" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgntR-7Soxa-B_sCu4HKAzbMjqrMMNitR-cLvVf0wXGqzTCBY5TpW1Rv3IO42J85OEUS4-q19H467Ekw51kjQbKs-hzcUI7IFc86CA95fFofZO1e0QxTdVjwZfOIy-gS5_HBV2LAALo-B0X-lyv97RhFrVStAwe45GeFUz1NnDTjerbkplRPw_0LxzNFKg/w639-h361/Screenshot%202024-03-08%20225440.png" width="639" /></a></div><br /><div>The correct answer is C. Calcium.</div><div><br /></div><div>In the presence of calcium ions and other clotting factors, factor X activates an enzyme called prothrombin activator. This enzyme then converts the plasma protein prothrombin into thrombin. Thrombin is an enzyme that, in turn, converts fibrinogen to fibrin which causes the blood to clot.</div>Raman Dhungelhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/02665112922221205920noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5127003399594558662.post-3501721860468238322024-03-08T22:51:00.002+05:452024-03-08T22:51:13.837+05:45Side effects of Phenytoin do not include:<div style="text-align: left;"> # Side effects of Phenytoin do not include:</div><div> A. Osteomalacia</div><div>B. Gum hypertrophy</div><div>C. Folate deficiency</div><div>D. Blindness</div><div><br /></div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgYfC6DiTfo-VQFqWBih5Z18EhzBjCcJeq4FXLjpimiXKuD4QFKrWC7EKehWYdx_i13gndlckk1bnDEAtxlt0bnhpvYmc1ws2JAZskQfjMbDV6OS4MXnQjCobwNS-RoMgd50dKLLo4hDt02i_IOQ7_oQuJxNrzgPKBGRIVyEwjZGZ-moquhS3ZHkM-sxEE/s1879/Screenshot%202024-03-08%20224653.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="1061" data-original-width="1879" height="297" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgYfC6DiTfo-VQFqWBih5Z18EhzBjCcJeq4FXLjpimiXKuD4QFKrWC7EKehWYdx_i13gndlckk1bnDEAtxlt0bnhpvYmc1ws2JAZskQfjMbDV6OS4MXnQjCobwNS-RoMgd50dKLLo4hDt02i_IOQ7_oQuJxNrzgPKBGRIVyEwjZGZ-moquhS3ZHkM-sxEE/w524-h297/Screenshot%202024-03-08%20224653.png" width="524" /></a></div><br /><div><br /></div><div>The correct answer is D. Blindness. </div><div><br /></div><div><div><b>Adverse effects: </b> After prolonged use numerous side effects are produced at therapeutic plasma concentration; others occur as a manifestation of toxicity due to overdose.</div><div><br /></div><div><b>At therapeutic levels</b></div><div>• Gum hypertrophy is common (20% incidence), especially in younger patients. It is due to the overgrowth of gingival collagen fibers. This can be minimized by maintaining oral hygiene.</div><div>• Hirsutism, coarsening of facial features (troublesome in young girls), acne.</div><div>• Hypersensitivity reactions are—rashes, DLE, and lymphadenopathy; neutropenia is rare but requires discontinuation of therapy.</div><div>• Megaloblastic anemia: Phenytoin decreases folate absorption and increases its excretion.</div><div>• Osteomalacia: Phenytoin interferes with metabolic activation of vit D and with calcium</div><div>absorption/metabolism.</div><div>• It can inhibit insulin release and cause hyperglycemia.</div><div>• Used during pregnancy, phenytoin can produce ‘fetal hydantoin syndrome’ (hypoplastic phalanges, cleft palate, hare lip, microcephaly), which is probably caused by its areneoxide metabolite.</div></div><div><br /></div><div>Reference: Essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi.</div>Raman Dhungelhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/02665112922221205920noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5127003399594558662.post-52612760786705553312024-03-05T09:53:00.008+05:452024-03-05T09:55:36.396+05:45 At what temperature is blood stored in blood banks?<div style="text-align: left;"> # At what temperature is blood stored?</div><div> A. -4 degrees</div><div>B. 4 degrees</div><div>C. 6 degrees</div><div>D. 8 degrees</div><div><br /></div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgNQ9dG7DpQb8d-tA5i1-BXmZPhPSLlGcAdt7uJRK-7VunUNw9WD8Nf1hUF3d-3Her5nEt7l1BYZ7Dhvl57UOi70iZREC3aTsEgVJTfQccLomkT2cI9GspeEMymgXZDj-M9nqTBxF_ofuoyThq0WLR9F0b1gi4HApNKggW5X_X92UTBwzsILEiFzIgHb-k/s1862/Screenshot%202024-03-04%20235401.png" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="1062" data-original-width="1862" height="322" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgNQ9dG7DpQb8d-tA5i1-BXmZPhPSLlGcAdt7uJRK-7VunUNw9WD8Nf1hUF3d-3Her5nEt7l1BYZ7Dhvl57UOi70iZREC3aTsEgVJTfQccLomkT2cI9GspeEMymgXZDj-M9nqTBxF_ofuoyThq0WLR9F0b1gi4HApNKggW5X_X92UTBwzsILEiFzIgHb-k/w564-h322/Screenshot%202024-03-04%20235401.png" width="564" /></a></div><br /><div>The correct answer is B. 4 degrees celsius.</div><div><br /></div><div><div>With the modern surgical and medical procedures, the demand for blood has greatly increased. It is for this reason that blood banks were started where blood from voluntary donors could be stored, so that it was always available on demand. Most blood banks have lists of would-be donors so that they may be contacted when required.</div><div><br /></div><div><b>Storage of blood: </b>After a donor has been screened for donation, one unit of blood (450 ml) is collected, under aseptic conditions, from the antecubital vein directly into a special plastic bag containing 63 ml of CPD-A (citrate-phosphate-dextrose-adenine) mixture.<b> The blood bag is suitably sealed, labeled, and stored at 4 degree C, where it can be kept for about 20 days.</b> (Faulty storage, i.e. overheating or freezing can lead to gross infection and hemolysis). The citrate prevents clotting of blood, sodium diphosphate acts as a buffer to control decrease in pH, dextrose supports ATP generation via glycolytic pathway and also provides energy for Na+- K+ pump that maintains the size and shape of red cells and increases their survival time, and adenine provides substrate for the synthesis of ATP, thus improving post-donation viability of red cells.</div></div><div><br /></div><div><div>Blood is stored at low temperatures for 2 reasons: one, it decreases bacterial growth, and two, it decreases the rate of glycolysis and thus prevents a quick fall in pH.</div></div><div><br /></div><div>Reference: A TEXTBOOK OF PRACTICAL PHYSIOLOGY Eighth Edition CL Ghai</div><div><br /></div><div><br /></div>Raman Dhungelhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/02665112922221205920noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5127003399594558662.post-54509738870250079832024-03-02T07:51:00.005+05:452024-03-05T01:28:27.230+05:45Which mandibular plane is considered while calculating FMA (Frankfort mandibular plane angle) in cephalometry?<div>The mandibular plane used for FMA measurement is : A plane tangent to the lower border of mandible which connects with the menton anteriorly and posteriorly it bisects the distance between the right and left lower borders of the mandible in the region of the gonial angle. See Figure. <div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEg0L2g-M-2LEO_P1aY_t8-HJy6TS8jyHbu6KfHlW013iwlBRyTgP6k42qnoq75uRJ5CZnmbFyDRh9QhYtOaps_dSVQKx9IdVp4viMUYkHFVMHcRFh1V3TwpOQG_yv56YDuZzxXqlVO1vQ-pVlVmVtcDyr0KgDxWYsSLLaiPKWVSSnD7u3Fo34j0-WesCFU/s887/Screenshot%202024-03-05%20012721.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="796" data-original-width="887" height="367" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEg0L2g-M-2LEO_P1aY_t8-HJy6TS8jyHbu6KfHlW013iwlBRyTgP6k42qnoq75uRJ5CZnmbFyDRh9QhYtOaps_dSVQKx9IdVp4viMUYkHFVMHcRFh1V3TwpOQG_yv56YDuZzxXqlVO1vQ-pVlVmVtcDyr0KgDxWYsSLLaiPKWVSSnD7u3Fo34j0-WesCFU/w409-h367/Screenshot%202024-03-05%20012721.png" width="409" /></a></div><br /></div><div><br /></div><div>The FMA angle is defined as the angle formed by the following two reference planes:</div><div>i. FH plane (Frankfort horizontal plane—A line between the most superior point of the external auditory meatus and inferior border of the orbit).</div><div style="text-align: left;">ii. Mandibular plane (A plane tangent to the lower border of mandible which connects with the menton anteriorly and posteriorly it bisects the distance between the right and left lower borders of the mandible in the region of the gonial angle). </div><div style="text-align: left;"><br /></div><div style="text-align: left;">In most cephalometric analyses, the occlusal and mandibular planes are measured relative to the sella-nasion (SN) line, the basion-nasion (BaN) line, or the Frankfort horizontal plane. Ideally, according to Tweed, the incisor mandibular plane angle (IMPA) should be 90 degrees, the Frankfort mandibular angle (FMA) 25 degrees, and thus the Frankfort mandibular incisor angle (FMIA) 65 degrees. (The sum of three angles of a triangle equals 180 degrees.) Moreover, the IMPA angle also relates to creating additional space in the mandibular arch in that for each 3 degrees advancement of the lower incisor, 2.5 mm of space is gained in the mandibular dental arch. Conversely, reduction of the IMPA from 90 degrees, for example, to 87 degrees would decrease the available space for tooth alignment in the mandibular dental arch by 2.5 mm. </div><div style="text-align: left;"><br /></div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgOYhKFfx2pjcqLgpmYmLYM_PkQrSt7stuGUtKWkNxna912wT3Ys0O2ePi60NDpZyqwGT8_TbL-qMXCsUWJY41sofFXrOmE1GCn3kxnru8-nMprNhh61Um4ZVpJyKLJ55zfAojBg6PEoL5jkrFmOcj1kvKlK9Wq35qw0scBBBj5pt_R9jTpUnDses-sUfQ/s805/Screenshot%202024-03-02%20074243.png" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="747" data-original-width="805" height="558" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgOYhKFfx2pjcqLgpmYmLYM_PkQrSt7stuGUtKWkNxna912wT3Ys0O2ePi60NDpZyqwGT8_TbL-qMXCsUWJY41sofFXrOmE1GCn3kxnru8-nMprNhh61Um4ZVpJyKLJ55zfAojBg6PEoL5jkrFmOcj1kvKlK9Wq35qw0scBBBj5pt_R9jTpUnDses-sUfQ/w601-h558/Screenshot%202024-03-02%20074243.png" width="601" /></a></div><br /><div style="text-align: left;"><br /></div>Raman Dhungelhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/02665112922221205920noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5127003399594558662.post-37580670076748593662024-02-28T20:36:00.001+05:452024-02-28T20:36:19.188+05:45Gangrene due to known infectious agent is:<div style="text-align: left;"> # Gangrene due to known infectious agent is:</div><div> A. Wet gangrene</div><div>B. Dry gangrene</div><div>C. Pyoderma granulosum</div><div>D. Fournier gangrene</div><div><br /></div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEjj6RYF-KAIljoAAOiIvzIw58T3OuYle3VpLrDZV_qmsAA51-48XQOPglxX8TYrATwoN7jtyux6tiTE-2E8rBtEOSq3LBOV3TjWdAwtCimjIjhNQcf0G_6WKOvPmPQGSZNwRX5QIVcRHgk-w8VS_BWivOWlHL9dcuCQgHLSXH9uvZqwTZ6yLXnCjdT_DVg/s1866/Screenshot%202024-02-28%20203217.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="1057" data-original-width="1866" height="290" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEjj6RYF-KAIljoAAOiIvzIw58T3OuYle3VpLrDZV_qmsAA51-48XQOPglxX8TYrATwoN7jtyux6tiTE-2E8rBtEOSq3LBOV3TjWdAwtCimjIjhNQcf0G_6WKOvPmPQGSZNwRX5QIVcRHgk-w8VS_BWivOWlHL9dcuCQgHLSXH9uvZqwTZ6yLXnCjdT_DVg/w513-h290/Screenshot%202024-02-28%20203217.png" width="513" /></a></div><br /><div>The correct answer is D. Fournier gangrene. </div><div><br /></div><div>Fournier gangrene, a relatively rare form of necrotizing fasciitis, is a rapidly progressive disease that affects the deep and superficial tissues of the perineal, anal, scrotal, and genital regions. Named after Dr. Alfred Fournier, the French dermatology and venereal specialist, it was initially described in 1883 as necrotizing fasciitis of the external genitalia, perineal, and perianal region in five of Dr. Fournier’s patients. Also known as necrotizing fasciitis, the disease involves the rapid spread of severe inflammatory and infectious processes along fascial planes affecting adjacent soft tissue; therefore, the disease may initially go unnoticed or unrecognized as there may be minimal or no skin manifestations in its early stages.</div><div><br /></div><div><div>This disease process results from polymicrobial aerobic and anaerobic synergistic infection of the fascia and subcutaneous soft tissue. Gram-positive bacteria such as Group A Streptococci and Staphylococcus aureus and gram-negative bacteria such as E. Coli and Pseudomonas aeruginosa are organisms most commonly grown in wound cultures of Fournier gangrene patients as it is usually polymicrobial. These bacteria can be introduced through several sources, including urinary, bowel, or dermal. Urinary tract infections and other infectious processes of the perineum, such as perianal abscesses or even a simple pimple, may also provide a starting point for the infection. </div><div><br /></div><div>Surgical manipulation of the genital and perineal area similarly can provide the initial insult required to develop Fournier gangrene. Any traumatic insult or localized area of skin breakdown to the perineum or scrotum can lead to bacterial access to the subcutaneous tissues and begin the process, ultimately resulting in Fournier gangrene. About 25% of cases had no known or identifiable etiology.</div></div><div><br /></div><div>Reference: <a href="Leslie SW, Rad J, Foreman J. Fournier Gangrene. [Updated 2023 Jun 5]. In: StatPearls [Internet]. Treasure Island (FL): StatPearls Publishing; 2024 Jan-. Available from: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK549821/" target="_blank"><span style="background-color: white; color: #222222; font-family: monospace; font-size: 13px;">Leslie SW, Rad J, Foreman J. Fournier Gangrene. [Updated 2023 Jun 5]. In: StatPearls [Internet]. Treasure Island (FL): StatPearls Publishing; 2024 Jan-. </span><span class="bk_cite_avail" style="background-color: white; color: #222222; font-family: monospace; font-size: 13px;">Available from: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK549821/</span></a></div>Raman Dhungelhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/02665112922221205920noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5127003399594558662.post-10613249356785973702024-02-28T13:42:00.002+05:452024-02-28T13:42:31.048+05:45Biosafety level 4 (BSL-4) pathogen is:<div style="text-align: left;"> # Biosafety level 4 (BSL-4) pathogen is:</div><div> A. XDR strain of Mycobacterium tuberculosis</div><div>B. SARS CoV-2</div><div>C. Ebola</div><div>D. Measles</div><div><br /></div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEiphiM2miiuoN-0nq1QVNV95TTpjGNLFg-_bafnkoF4Pg84eJhjOz-wBC0RLujj5uUBS2ICIDSszZ3xBZ3ua23CXtcUSafQEH04P1Z9AH5RETvOMNJ6P3VworOLyGHI4UxGyHkwXzrpPgoCwQav_M54YDTOcQvcRZYVexF1zb9wyxANvxB4npzjA5BGc8w/s1874/Screenshot%202024-02-28%20133818.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="1065" data-original-width="1874" height="331" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEiphiM2miiuoN-0nq1QVNV95TTpjGNLFg-_bafnkoF4Pg84eJhjOz-wBC0RLujj5uUBS2ICIDSszZ3xBZ3ua23CXtcUSafQEH04P1Z9AH5RETvOMNJ6P3VworOLyGHI4UxGyHkwXzrpPgoCwQav_M54YDTOcQvcRZYVexF1zb9wyxANvxB4npzjA5BGc8w/w582-h331/Screenshot%202024-02-28%20133818.png" width="582" /></a></div><div><br /></div>The correct answer is C. Ebola.<div><br /></div><div><div>Biological Safety Levels (BSL) are a series of protections relegated to the activities that take place in particular biological labs. They are individual safeguards designed to protect laboratory personnel, as well as the surrounding environment and community.</div><div><br /></div><div>These levels, which are ranked from one to four, are selected based on the agents or organisms that are being researched or worked on in any given laboratory setting. For example, a basic lab setting specializing in the research of nonlethal agents that pose a minimal potential threat to lab workers and the environment are generally considered BSL-1—the lowest biosafety lab level. A specialized research laboratory that deals with potentially deadly infectious agents like Ebola would be designated as BSL-4—the highest and most stringent level.</div><div><br /></div><div><div>The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) sets BSL lab levels as a way of exhibiting specific controls for the containment of microbes and biological agents. Each BSL lab level builds upon on the previous level—thereby creating layer upon layer of constraints and barriers. These lab levels are determined by the following:</div><div><ul style="text-align: left;"><li>Risks related to containment</li><li>Severity of infection</li><li>Transmissibility</li><li>Nature of the work conducted</li><li>Origin of the microbe</li><li>Agent in question</li><li>Route of exposure</li></ul></div></div><table align="center" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" class="tr-caption-container" style="margin-left: auto; margin-right: auto;"><tbody><tr><td style="text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEi0jVgSAaRaWKg7neXxaSHN7zhd-hFk5hvX4Xsqo-hG6zkIYDkTr2m2xtaaS6iHTCxmf8H_sIbmZ-P3pDnpKMq_xedkTVjOcfwMof_UWwhaDbZZTSqJulFGfVviTxuMqpVP83gOeWHNXGOHT1UZ2LsgcifV1YE3ZkglzVFO8kcNDj6xB8NjWhSyeg65JUM/s827/Screenshot%202024-02-28%20134057.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: auto; margin-right: auto;"><img border="0" data-original-height="827" data-original-width="826" height="489" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEi0jVgSAaRaWKg7neXxaSHN7zhd-hFk5hvX4Xsqo-hG6zkIYDkTr2m2xtaaS6iHTCxmf8H_sIbmZ-P3pDnpKMq_xedkTVjOcfwMof_UWwhaDbZZTSqJulFGfVviTxuMqpVP83gOeWHNXGOHT1UZ2LsgcifV1YE3ZkglzVFO8kcNDj6xB8NjWhSyeg65JUM/w489-h489/Screenshot%202024-02-28%20134057.png" width="489" /></a></td></tr><tr><td class="tr-caption" style="text-align: center;"><span style="color: #222222; font-family: proxima-nova, san-serif; font-size: 14px; text-align: start;"> Summary of Biological Agents and BSL levels</span></td></tr></tbody></table><br /><div><br /></div></div><div>Reference: <a href="https://www.utrgv.edu/ehsrm/programs/lab-safety/biological-safety-program/biosafety-levels/index.htm#:~:text=Two%20examples%20of%20such%20microbes,of%20all%20materials%20before%20exiting">The University of Texas Rio Grande Valley</a></div>Raman Dhungelhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/02665112922221205920noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5127003399594558662.post-22150687367757313652024-02-25T22:52:00.001+05:452024-02-25T22:52:09.614+05:45Once bone is formed, it grows by:<div style="text-align: left;"> # Once bone is formed, it grows by:</div><div> A. Interstitial growth only</div><div>B. Appositional growth only</div><div>C. Both appositional and interstitial growth</div><div>D. Degenerative changes into bony structures</div><div><br /></div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEiDXMgqV2o8-aFSRvXJ2vPEIpCht0CLgLD4r9uTLlWxSZUgzn5Xwp1kdnn4GOOZuQy16ZDv9vfUmlMpNj9w1tnjZ_bvqGOt78enJOCoYV7MbwIvo-SE8GXdGlwzHpcgtpnnLLavKBIRU0dg9Mji7jAancVcQo7ic5C81mqs-1v7W9NfDDuNWkeRBDtoEt4/s1864/Screenshot%202024-02-25%20224519.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="1065" data-original-width="1864" height="283" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEiDXMgqV2o8-aFSRvXJ2vPEIpCht0CLgLD4r9uTLlWxSZUgzn5Xwp1kdnn4GOOZuQy16ZDv9vfUmlMpNj9w1tnjZ_bvqGOt78enJOCoYV7MbwIvo-SE8GXdGlwzHpcgtpnnLLavKBIRU0dg9Mji7jAancVcQo7ic5C81mqs-1v7W9NfDDuNWkeRBDtoEt4/w494-h283/Screenshot%202024-02-25%20224519.png" width="494" /></a></div><div><br /></div>The correct answer is B. Appositional growth only.<div><br /></div><div><div>Which is growth by the addition of new layers on those previously formed. Bone formation begins in the embryo where mesenchymal cells differentiate into either fibrous membrane or cartilage. </div><div><br /></div><div><div>This leads to two paths of bone development:</div><div>1. Intramembranous ossification is so called because it takes place in membranes of connective tissue. Osteoprogenitor cells in the membrane differentiate into osteoblasts: a collagen matrix is formed which undergoes ossification. Note: The maxilla and mandible as well as the cranial vault are forrmed this way.</div><div><br /></div><div>2. Endochondral ossification is how the remainder of the skeleton forms and takes place within</div><div>a hyaline cartilage model. Cartilage cells are replaced by bone cells (osteocytes replace chondrocytes), organic matrix is laid down and calcium and phosphate are deposited. This type of ossification</div><div>is principally responsible for the formation of short and long bones. Note: The ethmoid,</div><div>sphenoid, and occipital bones (bones of the cranial base) form this way.</div></div><div><div><br /></div></div></div>Raman Dhungelhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/02665112922221205920noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5127003399594558662.post-39675940122878667922024-02-17T14:55:00.001+05:452024-02-17T14:55:12.115+05:45The incisor overjet is increased for a class II case that is undergoing treatment. The reason is:<div style="text-align: left;"> # The incisor overjet is increased for a class II case that is undergoing treatment. The reason is:</div><div> A. Loss of anchorage</div><div>B. Arch collapse</div><div>C. Crowding in the lower arch</div><div>D. None of the above</div><div><br /></div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEi7p8WM_xmgqolBsrDR8GN1eLFeXmfND7YcGIuQ2X8VyI3iTJ-Byg7siduo65Edw7UDhkQJZiht750PeOd-P1keRBrN63J4Hw6j3Y-ePYAgo3O0ee-e2IvP7Cr0jJglyps65fAVnHwnce5KiHI14e2Zjba1LSUfTl7sCj6ZPXvZXxXTiHC4jGPPon2xU88/s1881/Screenshot%202024-02-17%20145251.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="1071" data-original-width="1881" height="301" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEi7p8WM_xmgqolBsrDR8GN1eLFeXmfND7YcGIuQ2X8VyI3iTJ-Byg7siduo65Edw7UDhkQJZiht750PeOd-P1keRBrN63J4Hw6j3Y-ePYAgo3O0ee-e2IvP7Cr0jJglyps65fAVnHwnce5KiHI14e2Zjba1LSUfTl7sCj6ZPXvZXxXTiHC4jGPPon2xU88/w530-h301/Screenshot%202024-02-17%20145251.png" width="530" /></a></div><br /><div>The correct answer is A. Loss of anchorage.</div><div><br /></div><div>Following are the features of anchorage loss in class II cases:</div><div>- Increase in overjet</div><div>- Molar relation becoming more class II</div><div>- Normal canine relation without any change</div>Raman Dhungelhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/02665112922221205920noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5127003399594558662.post-28369558548050906412024-02-17T13:14:00.001+05:452024-02-17T13:21:18.463+05:45Which of the following are typical and acceptable preventive and therapeutic measures for dealing with the periodontal problems during fixed appliance therapy?<div style="text-align: left;"> # Which of the following are typical and acceptable preventive and therapeutic measures for dealing with the periodontal problems during fixed appliance therapy?</div><div> A. Elimination of gingivitis prior to placing orthodontic appliances</div><div>B. Home care instructions regarding the use of toothbrush and water pik during orthodontic treatment</div><div>C. Megavitamin therapy</div><div>D. Scaling and curettage immediately after appliance removal</div><div><br /></div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEiX15Tt8r96gXz3uRhYE-EBtZX1HTIz5WFsjQaobu5wVxt_Fv4nwz88KBLCTnZCzcp_PWO5Lm7PJQ0wxt0AwGMMt7Z0j3Yddbzts3vnfXJAiVF3nI0-aOwQdUPjP4v16nT9lCr-8rKuQQCSKd9-ICjoyI7MdR4OcpCmKbkQDK2-NSbHCnNdkRa9rq0Cvis/s1879/Screenshot%202024-02-17%20101452.png" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="1067" data-original-width="1879" height="358" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEiX15Tt8r96gXz3uRhYE-EBtZX1HTIz5WFsjQaobu5wVxt_Fv4nwz88KBLCTnZCzcp_PWO5Lm7PJQ0wxt0AwGMMt7Z0j3Yddbzts3vnfXJAiVF3nI0-aOwQdUPjP4v16nT9lCr-8rKuQQCSKd9-ICjoyI7MdR4OcpCmKbkQDK2-NSbHCnNdkRa9rq0Cvis/w630-h358/Screenshot%202024-02-17%20101452.png" width="630" /></a></div><br /><div><br /></div><div>The correct answer is A. Elimination of gingivitis prior to placing orthodontic appliances.</div><div><br /></div><div><br /></div><div>The mean value of visible plaque and visible inflammation showed significant increases during orthodontic treatment. Therefore, prior to orthodontic treatment, patients should have a high level of periodontal health and it should be maintained during the treatment period. Considering the relationship between orthodontic treatment and gingival health, patients, orthodontists and periodontists should cooperate during orthodontic treatment.</div><div><br /></div><div>Reference: Boke F, Gazioglu C, Akkaya S, Akkaya M. Relationship between orthodontic treatment and gingival health: A retrospective study. Eur J Dent. 2014;8(3):373-380. doi:10.4103/1305-7456.137651</div><div><br /></div>Raman Dhungelhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/02665112922221205920noreply@blogger.com2tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5127003399594558662.post-78710346610173366602024-02-08T03:53:00.000+05:452024-02-08T03:53:09.140+05:45FDA approved locally delivered minocycline for subgingival placement is marketed under trade name:<div style="text-align: left;"> # FDA approved locally delivered minocycline for subgingival placement is marketed under trade name:</div><div> A. Periochip</div><div>B. Atridox</div><div>C. Arestin</div><div>D. Elyzol</div><div><br /></div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEiD7ugxdjrnGxTsVSJihjPzXpGXqCxaTIkiVqh-uzdyCmGr6X8VnR-Evw0FRott0HYYLXlvSB5XPymU4hUu3Wr0QhOpFtWPj6AnkYUzQArsGtKcTZGahgqy_szcfpWtFxEmX6BBiPGtbJpaAD9Gmbf2424MNpdOO3jjod5rlMheoqCokTh86LNMXK71khM/s1880/Screenshot%202024-02-08%20034938.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="1068" data-original-width="1880" height="318" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEiD7ugxdjrnGxTsVSJihjPzXpGXqCxaTIkiVqh-uzdyCmGr6X8VnR-Evw0FRott0HYYLXlvSB5XPymU4hUu3Wr0QhOpFtWPj6AnkYUzQArsGtKcTZGahgqy_szcfpWtFxEmX6BBiPGtbJpaAD9Gmbf2424MNpdOO3jjod5rlMheoqCokTh86LNMXK71khM/w559-h318/Screenshot%202024-02-08%20034938.png" width="559" /></a></div><br /><div>The correct answer is C. Arestin.</div><div><br /></div><div><div>FDA has approved Arestin 2% Minocycline for subgingival placement as an adjunct to scaling and root planning.</div></div><div><br /></div><div>Periochip: Chlorhexidine chip placed in the pocket for local drug delivery.</div><div><br /></div><div><br /></div>Raman Dhungelhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/02665112922221205920noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5127003399594558662.post-22763022022042463002024-02-08T03:43:00.002+05:452024-02-08T03:43:19.129+05:45The recommended concentration of acidulated phosphate (APF) fluoride gel is:<div style="text-align: left;"> # The recommended concentration of acidulated phosphate (APF) fluoride gel is:</div><div> A. 2%</div><div>B. 8%</div><div>C. 1.23%</div><div>D. 10%</div><div><br /></div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEjO2wq5w1nXS6HL4-VVMo8-7GONhUywL8ZbKH1aC6O2HcbZHmEEaPGQnMQp-KMPtj47H2_BxHgNlxnbz6r-ktQVg5yWcJxdMjujLeBQTX8d4hy7674rd5ZfN0VcYB6CdkN8TA9Pf4uJbYZUkK_jZ0D5KPQ9pNufJOfbs-wE21Ri_7bHvHaCJgJdIX-vNpc/s1884/Screenshot%202024-02-08%20034103.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="1077" data-original-width="1884" height="274" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEjO2wq5w1nXS6HL4-VVMo8-7GONhUywL8ZbKH1aC6O2HcbZHmEEaPGQnMQp-KMPtj47H2_BxHgNlxnbz6r-ktQVg5yWcJxdMjujLeBQTX8d4hy7674rd5ZfN0VcYB6CdkN8TA9Pf4uJbYZUkK_jZ0D5KPQ9pNufJOfbs-wE21Ri_7bHvHaCJgJdIX-vNpc/w479-h274/Screenshot%202024-02-08%20034103.png" width="479" /></a></div><br /><div>The correct answer is C. 1.23%.</div><div><br /></div><div><div>Brudevold's solution or APF solution is prepared by dissolving 20 gms of NaF in 1 Litre (2% NaF) of 0.1M phosphoric acid and to this 50% hydro fluoric acid is added to adjust the pH at 3.0 and fluoride ion concentration at 1.23% APF gel is prepared by adding gelling agents like methylcellulose and hydroxyl ethyl cellulose and the pH is adjusted between 4-5.</div></div>Raman Dhungelhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/02665112922221205920noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5127003399594558662.post-12117722724813495572024-02-08T03:37:00.005+05:452024-02-08T03:37:47.223+05:45Duraphat is:<div style="text-align: left;"> # Duraphat is:</div><div> A. Lacquer</div><div>B. Sodium Fluoride in varnish form</div><div>C. Stannous Fluoride</div><div>D. Sodium Fluoride 2%</div><div><br /></div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEjWreSOAaCa20-whzH4Mm6IYPdimmeqZAa_5D1AeRvnacCAkqfLYLXW213mJfsI_14kZV1dXOeUH8eQ9t_zZjPcQqyNGihaf6HIETj9KmI8nH1Ao0QaloeDimtFLCAjeh54zIo74AHUNTKEPLWqP40InsbI6t8qXOsYvqduVPlO8lOCs5pFBrbS11FaimA/s1874/Screenshot%202024-02-08%20032645.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="1069" data-original-width="1874" height="293" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEjWreSOAaCa20-whzH4Mm6IYPdimmeqZAa_5D1AeRvnacCAkqfLYLXW213mJfsI_14kZV1dXOeUH8eQ9t_zZjPcQqyNGihaf6HIETj9KmI8nH1Ao0QaloeDimtFLCAjeh54zIo74AHUNTKEPLWqP40InsbI6t8qXOsYvqduVPlO8lOCs5pFBrbS11FaimA/w512-h293/Screenshot%202024-02-08%20032645.png" width="512" /></a></div><br /><div>The correct answer is B. Sodium fluoride in varnish form.</div><div><br /></div><div><div>Duraphat 50 mg/mL Dental Suspension is to be applied by the dental professional and not for self medication by the patient. 1 mL suspension contains 50 mg sodium fluoride (5% w/v), equivalent to 22,600 ppm
fluoride ion (22.6 mg of fluoride) in an alcoholic solution of natural resins.</div></div><div><br /></div><div><div>Recommended dosage for single application:</div><div>For primary teeth: up to 0.25 mL (= 5.65 mg fluoride)</div><div>For mixed dentition: up to 0.40 mL (= 9.04 mg fluoride)</div><div>For permanent dentition: up to 0.75 mL (= 16.95 mg fluoride)</div><div>For caries prevention: the application is usually repeated every 6 months but more frequent</div><div>applications (every 3 months) may be made.</div><div>For hypersensitivity: 2 or 3 applications should be made within a few days.</div><div>The patient should not brush the teeth or chew food for 4 hours after treatment.</div><div>Method of administration: For dental use.</div></div><div><br /></div><div><div><b>Contraindications</b></div><div><ul style="text-align: left;"><li>Hypersensitivity to any ingredients of Duraphat.</li><li>Ulcerative gingivitis.</li><li>Stomatitis.</li><li>Bronchial asthma.</li></ul></div><div><br /></div><div><b>Special warnings and precautions for use</b></div><div>Application of Duraphat 50 mg/mL Dental Suspension to the whole dentition should not be carried out on an empty stomach. On the day when Duraphat has been applied, no high dose fluoride preparations, such as fluoride gels, should be used. The administration of fluoride supplements should be suspended for several days after applying Duraphat. Prolonged daily ingestion of excessive fluoride may result in varying degrees of fluorosis.</div><div><br /></div><div><b>Interaction with other medicines and other forms of interaction</b></div><div>The presence of alcohol (33.8% v/v) in the Duraphat formula should be considered.</div><div><br /></div><div><b>Fertility, pregnancy and lactation</b></div><div>As this product contains 33.8% v/v of ethanol (each dose contains up to 0.2 g of alcohol), it is recommended to avoid its use in pregnant women and during lactation.</div><div><br /></div><div><b>Undesirable effects</b></div><div>Gastrointestinal disorders: Very rare (<1/10,000): Stomatitis, gingivitis ulcerative, retching, oedema mouth and nausea may occur in sensitive (allergic) individuals</div><div>- if necessary, the dental suspension layer can easily be removed from the mouth by brushing and rinsing.</div><div>Skin and subcutaneous tissue disorders: Very rare (<1/10,000): Irritation in sensitive individuals, angioedema</div><div>Immune System Disorders: Not known (cannot be estimated from the available data)</div><div><br /></div><div>Hypersensitivity. Respiratory, thoracic and mediastinal disorders: Very rare/Isolated report (<1/10,000): Asthma</div></div><div><br /></div><div><b>Overdose: </b>Accidental ingestion of large amounts of fluoride may result in acute burning in the mouth
and sore tongue. Nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea may soon occur after ingestion (within 30
minutes) and are accompanied by salivation, haematemesis, and epigastric cramping
abdominal pain. These symptoms may persist for 24 hours. If less than 5 mg fluoride/kg
body weight has been ingested, give calcium (eg milk) orally to relieve gastrointestinal
symptoms and observe for medical assistance. For accidental ingestion of more than 15 mg
fluoride/kg body weight, admit immediately to a hospital facility. </div>Raman Dhungelhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/02665112922221205920noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5127003399594558662.post-44147088742736863412024-02-08T03:10:00.000+05:452024-02-08T03:10:04.422+05:45A malocclusion is characterized by protrusion of maxilla, labioversion of maxillary incisors deep overbite and overjet. These are typical characteristic of which malocclusion?<div style="text-align: left;"> # A malocclusion is characterized by protrusion of maxilla, labioversion of maxillary incisors deep overbite and overjet. These are typical characteristic of which malocclusion?</div><div> A. Class I</div><div>B. Class II Div 1</div><div>C. Class II Div 2</div><div>D. Class III</div><div><br /></div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEjZoIelrFdIjbiOFA-5Oyrh7tWpcGXtIgvAXeB5e1F3m8GP6-lIkIaqxu9t-bm-Qb_9XKkDFH41_o9CkISZXqmWF83viZ1zUcTNB2lcxm0fjK0JZtoClicaFxrdf0sKAz8bgYEtaH1yXBo3YaVXhN30Jw_I5Bt7f0Zs-P8s5_oMWxyUwHjdFXXqNgYp7D4/s1875/Screenshot%202024-02-08%20025048.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="1068" data-original-width="1875" height="293" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEjZoIelrFdIjbiOFA-5Oyrh7tWpcGXtIgvAXeB5e1F3m8GP6-lIkIaqxu9t-bm-Qb_9XKkDFH41_o9CkISZXqmWF83viZ1zUcTNB2lcxm0fjK0JZtoClicaFxrdf0sKAz8bgYEtaH1yXBo3YaVXhN30Jw_I5Bt7f0Zs-P8s5_oMWxyUwHjdFXXqNgYp7D4/w516-h293/Screenshot%202024-02-08%20025048.png" width="516" /></a></div><br /><div>The correct answer is B. Class II Div 1.</div><div><br /></div><div><div>Class I Incisor Relationship</div><div>Lower incisal edges occlude with or lie immediately below the cingulum plateau of the upper incisors.</div><div><br /></div><div>Class II Incisor Relationship</div><div>The lower incisal edge lies posterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper incisors.</div><div><br /></div><div>Class II Division 1 Incisor Relationship : The upper central incisors are proclined or of average inclination. There is an increase in overjet.</div><div><br /></div><div>Class II Division 2 Incisor Relationship : The upper central incisors are retroclined. The overjet is usually minimal but may be increased.</div><div><br /></div><div>Class III Incisor Relationship: The lower incisal edges lies anterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper incisor.</div></div>Raman Dhungelhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/02665112922221205920noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5127003399594558662.post-70310605485207843082024-02-07T22:06:00.004+05:452024-02-13T20:48:31.577+05:45MECEE MDS 2024 RESULT Medical Education Commission<div style="text-align: left;"> MECEE MDS 2024 RESULT Medical Education Commission</div><div style="text-align: left;"><br /></div><div style="text-align: left;"><div style="text-align: center;">Government of Nepal</div><div style="text-align: center;">MEDICAL EDUCATION COMMISSION</div><div style="text-align: center;">Directorate of Examination</div><div style="text-align: center;">MEDICAL EDUCATION COMMON ENTRANCE EXAMINATION (PG 2024)</div><div style="text-align: center;">ENTRANCE RESULT Wednesday, February 7, 2024</div><div style="text-align: center;"><br /></div><div style="text-align: center;">Program: Masters of Dental Surgery (MDS) 50th Percentile (Cut-off) Score: 71.25</div><div style="text-align: center;"><br /></div><div style="text-align: left;">SN ROLL NO FULL NAME FINAL SCORE RANK</div><div>1 31434 HIMAL DAHAL 132.5 1</div><div>2 31268 BISHAL CHAPAGAIN 128 2</div><div>3 31328 ROSHANI SUBEDI 125.75 3</div><div>4 31447 PRIYANKA DHAKAL 123 4</div><div>5 31438 MEGHA SHRIVASTVA 121.25 5</div><div>6 31485 SAMBRIDHI MATHEMA 120.5 6</div><div>7 31220 NIRAJAN BHANDARI 120.5 7</div><div>8 31056 KRISHNA DEV MAHATO 120.25 8</div><div>9 31413 RAMAN LAMA 119 9</div><div>10 31444 PRAVIN BHATTARAI 118.75 10</div><div>11 31402 ABHINAW SUBEDI 117.5 11</div><div>12 31528 PRATIMA KHADKA 117 12</div><div>13 31380 PRABESH BANSTOLA 116.25 13</div><div>14 31529 AASHISH KOIRALA 115.5 14</div><div>15 31197 VASKAR PRASAD PARAJULI 115 15</div><div>16 31354 ASMITA GYAWALI 113.25 16</div><div>17 31274 ROMIN SHRESTHA 112.5 17</div><div>18 31120 SUNAYAN SUBEDI 112.5 18</div><div>19 31192 MILAN KOIRALA 111.75 19</div><div>20 31490 SABHYATA PAUDEL 111.75 20</div><div>21 31470 ASMINA CHHETRI 111.25 21</div><div>22 31147 MINU MISHRA 111.25 22</div><div>23 31249 BHESH RAJ PARAJULI 110 23</div><div>24 31480 SAMIKSHA SHARMA 109.75 24</div><div>25 31180 RAJU PANDEY 109.25 25</div><div>26 31346 SUSMITA SHRESTHA 108.75 26</div><div>27 31323 RITESH THAPA 108.75 27</div></div><div style="text-align: left;"><br /></div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEi4rfXRCvI2BMEvmYJHWr1xMX2FJsZ-YHfKrrmGMuNU9uSYKPyT9WuHCbT-bimNodVW2loHyyMGZiJJBsEsw6JbXXin4U3hk2vI1Ghm2o2qODhWiwY2ZkAaffZ2Wb6UwAN18CNeR1PEj5_NxdeKNYTUNab5s420CmcRGQS_y2S8HK8AhVq5WdZUaZ-B1qM/s1111/PG_Result2024_final_Page_109.jpg" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="1111" data-original-width="794" height="650" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEi4rfXRCvI2BMEvmYJHWr1xMX2FJsZ-YHfKrrmGMuNU9uSYKPyT9WuHCbT-bimNodVW2loHyyMGZiJJBsEsw6JbXXin4U3hk2vI1Ghm2o2qODhWiwY2ZkAaffZ2Wb6UwAN18CNeR1PEj5_NxdeKNYTUNab5s420CmcRGQS_y2S8HK8AhVq5WdZUaZ-B1qM/w465-h650/PG_Result2024_final_Page_109.jpg" width="465" /></a></div><div>SN ROLL NO FULL NAME FINAL SCORE RANK</div><div>28 31062 PRIYANKA ROY 108.75 28</div><div>29 31125 TRIPURARI SHUKLA 108.5 29</div><div>30 31216 RIYA GUPTA 108 30</div><div>31 31365 PRAKRITI BASUKALA 108 31</div><div>32 31241 AYUSH GURAGAIN 107.75 32</div><div>33 31395 ELIJMA RANJIT 107.5 33</div><div>34 31494 ASMITA PARAJULI 107.5 34</div><div>35 31435 KISHOR SUBEDI 107 35</div><div>36 31079 SARANGA GHIMIRE 107 36</div><div>37 31068 SADICHHYA BAJRACHARYA 106.5 37</div><div>38 31133 SHOVA SAPKOTA 105.75 38</div><div>39 31526 DHARMA PRATAP BHARKHER 105.5 39</div><div>40 31390 DIPTI SHRESTHA 104.75 40</div><div>41 31181 BISHOW DEEP POUDEL 104.5 41</div><div>42 31057 NIROJ CHAUDHARY 104.5 42</div><div>43 31414 KRIPA LAMICHHANE 104.25 43</div><div>44 31031 KIRAN THAKUR 103.75 44</div><div>45 31355 LAXMI PARAJULI 103.75 45</div><div>46 31183 USHA SAPKOTA 103.75 46</div><div>47 31410 KAJAL MEHTA 103.75 47</div><div>48 31185 BIPLAV KUMAR CHAUDHARY 103.5 48</div><div>49 31460 SRISTI ADHIKARI 103.25 49</div><div>50 31399 RAKSHYA KC 103 50</div><div>51 31237 SANJITA PANDEY 103 51</div><div>52 31455 SNEHA SAPKOTA 102.5 52</div><div>53 31451 ROSHAN KUMAR YADAV 102.25 53</div><div>54 31030 JITENDRA RAY YADAV 101.75 54</div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;">
<script async="" src="//pagead2.googlesyndication.com/pagead/js/adsbygoogle.js"></script>
<br />
<ins class="adsbygoogle" data-ad-client="ca-pub-8419641143363974" data-ad-format="fluid" data-ad-layout="in-article" data-ad-slot="3033272005" style="display: block; text-align: center;"></ins><script>
(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});
</script>
<a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEjcysk4jcNAkK3HdDBwKhF_Jn2cY52i1Sm0xQSJ0SErZ4iqDL-vOOjb-NBqnRuNhETaj9dq0hNuUMdinWCdouj8mlbz3Yu_pwBjpaSH3PX8NpgGBwxo1t8jaq_SYU7mpWCg54KbHeAUuqYjHd8C9RZ0odMSI44qQ4hauH24rIIsrqnEFQRqWLFfaFOitfU/s1111/PG_Result2024_final_Page_110.jpg" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="1111" data-original-width="794" height="661" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEjcysk4jcNAkK3HdDBwKhF_Jn2cY52i1Sm0xQSJ0SErZ4iqDL-vOOjb-NBqnRuNhETaj9dq0hNuUMdinWCdouj8mlbz3Yu_pwBjpaSH3PX8NpgGBwxo1t8jaq_SYU7mpWCg54KbHeAUuqYjHd8C9RZ0odMSI44qQ4hauH24rIIsrqnEFQRqWLFfaFOitfU/w473-h661/PG_Result2024_final_Page_110.jpg" width="473" /></a></div><div>SN ROLL NO FULL NAME FINAL SCORE RANK</div><div>55 31273 UJWAL MEHTA 101.75 55</div><div>56 31474 ICHHYA PRADHAN 101.5 56</div><div>57 31456 SUBANI PAUDEL 101.25 57</div><div>58 31143 NITESH ADHIKARI 101.25 58</div><div>59 31430 RICHA YADAV 100.75 59</div><div>60 31172 MELINA MULMI 100 60</div><div>61 31263 REETU SHARMA 99.75 61</div><div>62 31376 PRAKRITEE LIMBU 99.75 62</div><div>63 31433 DOLLY AGRAWAL 99.25 63</div><div>64 31525 BINAY KUMAR YADAV 99.25 64</div><div>65 31285 ASHRU SHRESTHA 99 65</div><div>66 31035 GYANENDRA SHARMA 98.75 66</div><div>67 31214 PARIKSIT TIMILSINA 98.5 67</div><div>68 31160 PRAKASH POUDYAL 97.75 68</div><div>69 31527 PUSHPA LAL SHAH 97.5 69</div><div>70 31338 UJJWAL SHRESTHA 97 70</div><div>71 31271 KUSUM K.C. 97 71</div><div>72 31397 ANIL KUMAR 96.75 72</div><div>73 31491 RENU MEHTA 96.5 73</div><div>74 31467 KERISHNA KANSAKAR 96.25 74</div><div>75 31221 SAROJ MAHARJAN 96.25 75</div><div>76 31092 BIBEK SUNAR 95.25 76</div><div>77 31209 PRIKSHA KHANAL 95 77</div><div>78 31176 JYOTI KHAREL 95 78</div><div>79 31389 PRAKASH SUWAL 95 79</div><div>80 31109 SRIJANA JAIRU 94.75 80</div><div>81 31530 SLESHA GURUNG 94.75 81</div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEhX8JA2Eab4g-u2KaXHrICKDDms2feiKWruXGqRDUMccCVo9Y4yu6m3SUt_WNKX9tXpy1kh6T7JdWqEfF_iXwXxgxfusMQgO6JBP4gW05IE04RWYVUUtREwYfXKEttGBzVVrmwK_LByFMOyvorcqCrl0F_y-GNnFIaM76-OA9GqTs_lGKIYcPCcYSdNn1s/s1111/PG_Result2024_final_Page_111.jpg" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="1111" data-original-width="794" height="621" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEhX8JA2Eab4g-u2KaXHrICKDDms2feiKWruXGqRDUMccCVo9Y4yu6m3SUt_WNKX9tXpy1kh6T7JdWqEfF_iXwXxgxfusMQgO6JBP4gW05IE04RWYVUUtREwYfXKEttGBzVVrmwK_LByFMOyvorcqCrl0F_y-GNnFIaM76-OA9GqTs_lGKIYcPCcYSdNn1s/w444-h621/PG_Result2024_final_Page_111.jpg" width="444" /></a></div><div>SN ROLL NO FULL NAME FINAL SCORE RANK</div><div>82 31211 SMRITI CHAUDHARY 94.75 82</div><div>83 31496 ANAMOL DUMARU 94.5 83</div><div>84 31315 SUMAN PUDASAINI 94 84</div><div>85 31327 RAKSHAK MANANDHAR 93.75 85</div><div>86 31052 RAJ KUMAR SHRESTHA 93.75 86</div><div>87 31006 AJIT KUMAR YADAV 93.75 87</div><div>88 31275 PRIYANKA SHAH 93.75 88</div><div>89 31326 SUBASH MEHTA 93.5 89</div><div>90 31303 REBIKA SHRESTHA 93.25 90</div><div>91 31359 RITI GUPTA 93 91</div><div>92 31409 SAGAR PARIYAR 92.5 92</div><div>93 31477 PRAKRITI KAFLE 92.5 93</div><div>94 31110 MANISH KUMAR DEV 92 94</div><div>95 31311 SAUJANYA PANT 92 95</div><div>96 31093 BIMAL POUDEL 91.75 96</div><div>97 31314 SABYA MANANDHAR 91.75 97</div><div>98 31381 SABIN GWACHHA 91.75 98</div><div>99 31046 SUNITA PUN 91.75 99</div><div>100 31305 DIVYA JHA 91.5 100</div><div>101 31505 KRITISHA ACHARYA 91.25 101</div><div>102 31324 SUSHANT KUMAR THAKUR 91.25 102</div><div>103 31367 SURESH DAHAL 91.25 103</div><div>104 31281 ASMITA KUMARI SAH 91 104</div><div>105 31158 AKASH NHEMAPHUKI 91 105</div><div>106 31145 PINKY AGRAWAL 90.75 106</div><div>107 31335 MANISHA KHARBUJA 90.75 107</div><div>108 31522 RAJMEE SHRESTHA 90.75 108</div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEi_mmGdYaQW3Dk5MyruR67SzZiPeAqPMAioQX4PvnB0qOqi02Tv6gq9B-Mtp0RTihxQV6upXE48vcDPcqoNg02ZRIMrCbgg51afGfs5ebP-ANmDq5987eNJ_oYXz82cCKVG19GlpNYVKndh7aOA7H6APlAhy-VaBPgHrlOFOO42Ljhc3DW8d739GhGRJlU/s1111/PG_Result2024_final_Page_112.jpg" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;">
<script async="" src="//pagead2.googlesyndication.com/pagead/js/adsbygoogle.js"></script>
<br />
<ins class="adsbygoogle" data-ad-client="ca-pub-8419641143363974" data-ad-format="fluid" data-ad-layout="in-article" data-ad-slot="3033272005" style="display: block; text-align: center;"></ins><script>
(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});
</script>
<img border="0" data-original-height="1111" data-original-width="794" height="625" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEi_mmGdYaQW3Dk5MyruR67SzZiPeAqPMAioQX4PvnB0qOqi02Tv6gq9B-Mtp0RTihxQV6upXE48vcDPcqoNg02ZRIMrCbgg51afGfs5ebP-ANmDq5987eNJ_oYXz82cCKVG19GlpNYVKndh7aOA7H6APlAhy-VaBPgHrlOFOO42Ljhc3DW8d739GhGRJlU/w447-h625/PG_Result2024_final_Page_112.jpg" width="447" /></a></div><div>SN ROLL NO FULL NAME FINAL SCORE RANK</div><div>109 31516 INCHUNA BARAL 90.5 109</div><div>110 31146 PABITRA REGMI 90.5 110</div><div>111 31306 REGINA DAHAIT 89.75 111</div><div>112 31067 ELINA SHRESTHA 89.75 112</div><div>113 31207 AISHWARYA JOSHI 89.25 113</div><div>114 31471 SRISHTI POUDEL 89.25 114</div><div>115 31195 SRIJA JOSHI 89.25 115</div><div>116 31426 RIJU SHRESTHA 89 116</div><div>117 31144 BENUJA BHANDARI 89 117</div><div>118 31104 NITU CHAUDHARY 89 118</div><div>119 31074 SAMJHANA GAUTAM 88.75 119</div><div>120 31234 ANUJA RUWALI 88.75 120</div><div>121 31009 PRANAV KUMAR JHA 88.75 121</div><div>122 31497 BISHEK DAHAL 88.5 122</div><div>123 31362 KRITI SHRESTHA 88.5 123</div><div>124 31071 ROSHAN KUMAR SHAH 88.5 124</div><div>125 31349 ANUKA DANGOL 88.25 125</div><div>126 31422 SIDDHARTHA SHAKYA 88.25 126</div><div>127 31012 PALLAVA KUMAR UPADHAYAYA 88.25 127</div><div>128 31464 SHIKHA ADHIKARI 88.25 128</div><div>129 31429 ASMITA BHATTARAI 87.5 129</div><div>130 31204 RABINA CHAUDHARY THARU 87.25 130</div><div>131 31396 ANU PARAJULI 87.25 131</div><div>132 31400 SUSHMITA CHHETRI 87 132</div><div>133 31345 SRISTI NAPIT 86.75 133</div><div>134 31233 RADHA SHAH 86.5 134</div><div>135 31022 RIJA MANANDHAR 86.5 135</div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgHwaFjoy_wkH6HMhV0IjyFVA2qypqpRxNY-lsYJ9W13eTS5bx455ma70R_8qGpu6bFWrM2sCjTtyq3XUZNJ-_W5ytQXd0QNfsB8p1pXXWtP5h7J2tZuYLv-Ex0jNH11KYZTYActJTOdggQk38bt2euzACDqmjCcSajnt6tJ-k_5StqxGuzEcZax9pYMrY/s1111/PG_Result2024_final_Page_113.jpg" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="1111" data-original-width="794" height="626" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgHwaFjoy_wkH6HMhV0IjyFVA2qypqpRxNY-lsYJ9W13eTS5bx455ma70R_8qGpu6bFWrM2sCjTtyq3XUZNJ-_W5ytQXd0QNfsB8p1pXXWtP5h7J2tZuYLv-Ex0jNH11KYZTYActJTOdggQk38bt2euzACDqmjCcSajnt6tJ-k_5StqxGuzEcZax9pYMrY/w448-h626/PG_Result2024_final_Page_113.jpg" width="448" /></a></div><div>SN ROLL NO FULL NAME FINAL SCORE RANK</div><div>136 31073 AAKRITI JHA 86.5 136</div><div>137 31507 SUJANA THAPA 86.25 137</div><div>138 31416 BAMINA MAHARJAN 86.25 138</div><div>139 31217 SUBHEKSHYA GYAWALI 85.5 139</div><div>140 31436 RAMITA LAMA 85.5 140</div><div>141 31357 SHRISTI GAUTAM 85.25 141</div><div>142 31091 APPU YADAV 85 142</div><div>143 31026 SANJAYA PANDEY 85 143</div><div>144 31111 ASMITA KUMARI BHANDARI 84.75 144</div><div>145 31025 AMRITA KUMARI YADAV 84.75 145</div><div>146 31283 RADHA JAISWAL 83.75 146</div><div>147 31521 SANJU PANDIT 83.25 147</div><div>148 31128 BINAYA BHANDARI 82.75 148</div><div>149 31475 ANISHA KHADKA 82.5 149</div><div>150 31517 PRAKRITI SHARMA 82.5 150</div><div>151 31301 PAYAL JHA 82.5 151</div><div>152 31224 RASHILA MANANDHAR 82.5 152</div><div>153 31510 ASMITA KATUWAL CHHETRI 82.5 153</div><div>154 31325 BIMALA KHATRI 82.5 154</div><div>155 31280 SADIKSHA GAUTAM 82 155</div><div>156 31378 SUJAN TIMSINA 82 156</div><div>157 31299 PRAMILA KHANAL 81.5 157</div><div>158 31193 ARABINDA SHRESTHA 81.5 158</div><div>159 31236 DURGA PANTHA 81 159</div><div>160 31107 ASHWIN KUMAR GUPTA 81 160</div><div>161 31123 SARITA KUMARI YADAV 80.75 161</div><div>162 31288 SAMPADA POKHREL 80.75 162</div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEjDY0-KNs8mQ_sDm_IUwQxRryZUkPhjdMVo8R1jH7_PhlGe99eKrBqdp0-GlBSNOQC1ePrYcprlAlUIAyxJ4EpOAZlwYn-seAZOpS3nZwxhEk5RfTaovyQldd8D9JwsGQUmoQNJ71IT3Z_FXhXzFCvdhAWKWifajQgvvPEDDIJAa4GVe5arH_rSE4eMPw8/s1111/PG_Result2024_final_Page_114.jpg" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="1111" data-original-width="794" height="572" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEjDY0-KNs8mQ_sDm_IUwQxRryZUkPhjdMVo8R1jH7_PhlGe99eKrBqdp0-GlBSNOQC1ePrYcprlAlUIAyxJ4EpOAZlwYn-seAZOpS3nZwxhEk5RfTaovyQldd8D9JwsGQUmoQNJ71IT3Z_FXhXzFCvdhAWKWifajQgvvPEDDIJAa4GVe5arH_rSE4eMPw8/w409-h572/PG_Result2024_final_Page_114.jpg" width="409" /></a></div><div>SN ROLL NO FULL NAME FINAL SCORE RANK</div><div>163 31219 MONICA JHA 80.5 163</div><div>164 31350 ANUP OJHA 80.5 164</div><div>165 31502 KRISHA SUWAL 80.5 165</div><div>166 31452 ASTHA RAJBHANDARI 80.25 166</div><div>167 31450 DIPAK RAUT 80.25 167</div><div>168 31164 SAHIRA RAJBHANDARI 80.25 168</div><div>169 31203 ROMARIYA MAHARJAN 80.25 169</div><div>170 31113 PRATIMA PATHAK 80.25 170</div><div>171 31514 PRAKRITI RUPAKHETY 80 171</div><div>172 31302 PUJA BHAGAT 80 172</div><div>173 31166 SHEKHAR KUMAR MANDAL 79.75 173</div><div>174 31230 SONU THAPA MAGAR 79.5 174</div><div>175 31334 SONAM MISHRA 79.5 175</div><div>176 31262 PRANISHA BHANDARI 79.25 176</div><div>177 31394 MANIKA SHRESTHA 79 177</div><div>178 31238 KRISTINA SAPKOTA 79 178</div><div>179 31053 DEEPENDRA POKHAREL 79 179</div><div>180 31351 AGYA TIMSINA 78.75 180</div><div>181 31267 TANUJA G.C. 78.5 181</div><div>182 31235 MANOJ SHRESTHA 78.25 182</div><div>183 31072 RAVI RANJIT SHAH 78.25 183</div><div>184 31342 POONAM SHRESTHA 78.25 184</div><div>185 31033 AVINESH SHRESTHA 78.25 185</div><div>186 31332 RACHITA BHATTARAI 78.25 186</div><div>187 31518 ASMITA PAUDYAL 78 187</div><div>188 31190 RANJANA SHAH 78 188</div><div>189 31353 ROJINA POUDEL 78 189</div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEh33zYQwOLXuDGB_DOwaptkbhiMtHe4tTcytBDpytZRts9wa_MBnrwAe3TUxRUBLjWz1mF08ELtUkz2v-jdHs66C_QljKe10TIwcV46o3SSiEHQC26SgXEOmHwjV3Y8c5DerqnXGTm4ufXXWaauAB6zOUMmzL-tH2xw_r7PPLUDjfODIH5IOHRXdF8FePo/s1111/PG_Result2024_final_Page_115.jpg" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="1111" data-original-width="794" height="613" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEh33zYQwOLXuDGB_DOwaptkbhiMtHe4tTcytBDpytZRts9wa_MBnrwAe3TUxRUBLjWz1mF08ELtUkz2v-jdHs66C_QljKe10TIwcV46o3SSiEHQC26SgXEOmHwjV3Y8c5DerqnXGTm4ufXXWaauAB6zOUMmzL-tH2xw_r7PPLUDjfODIH5IOHRXdF8FePo/w439-h613/PG_Result2024_final_Page_115.jpg" width="439" /></a></div><div>SN ROLL NO FULL NAME FINAL SCORE RANK</div><div>190 31244 AATISH PANGENI 77.75 190</div><div>191 31403 REKHA YADAV 77.75 191</div><div>192 31382 PRERANA ARYAL 77.5 192</div><div>193 31284 SABINA KARKI 77.5 193</div><div>194 31425 ANISHA SHRESTHA 77.5 194</div><div>195 31375 PRIYA BAJRACHARYA 77.5 195</div><div>196 31431 AYUSHI ADHIKARI 77.25 196</div><div>197 31377 SMRITI PANDIT 77 197</div><div>198 31508 RANJANA KHANAL 76.75 198</div><div>199 31503 KAJAL THAKUR 76.75 199</div><div>200 31228 PUNAM RAI 76.75 200</div><div>201 31242 ASTHA UPADHYAYA 76.5 201</div><div>202 31050 RANJANA SHAH 76.25 202</div><div>203 31229 ANUPA TIWARI 76.25 203</div><div>204 31511 SAYANA ACHARYA 76.25 204</div><div>205 31369 DILASHMA THAPA 76.25 205</div><div>206 31366 BIRAT THAPA 76 206</div><div>207 31515 SUNIRA KARKI 76 207</div><div>208 31487 SUSMITA ADHIKARI 76 208</div><div>209 31095 VIJAY RAI 76 209</div><div>210 31463 PRATIMA PANTA 75.75 210</div><div>211 31252 SAGAR PANTHI 75.75 211</div><div>212 31440 SIMPHONI SHRESTHA 75.75 212</div><div>213 31005 SARITA SHAH 75.75 213</div><div>214 31188 SUSMITA THAPA 75.5 214</div><div>215 31404 KIRTI KUMARI WASTI 75.25 215</div><div>216 31358 SIMA KUMARI VERMA 75.25 216</div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEhLF7ZMPGbtlDHKm7eZtMsQxJZ6FSwWm-4x0f0lShT9eQ71QgxUGYLtt4NyV6Ttl8dIM-ntQvHJMPE9xHj6jbX6_C2SRTAf7pYHnUQ_w0C6eU0JCcB6Bq29HpOCjuIWMa0Xj6mw43RUL3Ds6NfJUjFTQUCzI58QVqw6TMxyqGZJF51fuK-3uM8-dIYdLXA/s1111/PG_Result2024_final_Page_116.jpg" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="1111" data-original-width="794" height="612" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEhLF7ZMPGbtlDHKm7eZtMsQxJZ6FSwWm-4x0f0lShT9eQ71QgxUGYLtt4NyV6Ttl8dIM-ntQvHJMPE9xHj6jbX6_C2SRTAf7pYHnUQ_w0C6eU0JCcB6Bq29HpOCjuIWMa0Xj6mw43RUL3Ds6NfJUjFTQUCzI58QVqw6TMxyqGZJF51fuK-3uM8-dIYdLXA/w438-h612/PG_Result2024_final_Page_116.jpg" width="438" /></a></div><div>SN ROLL NO FULL NAME FINAL SCORE RANK</div><div>217 31100 BHUWAN CHAUHAN 75 217</div><div>218 31446 SWORUPA WAGLE 75 218</div><div>219 31013 SITA KUMARI DAS 75 219</div><div>220 31476 RADHA MANDAL 75 220</div><div>221 31361 PRAMISHA KARKI 75 221</div><div>222 31388 SANDEEP DHOJU 75 222</div><div>223 31202 PREETI SHAH 75 223</div><div>224 31401 SALINA MAHARJAN 75 224</div><div>225 31078 DINESH KUMAR SHRESTHA 74.5 225</div><div>226 31298 MANISHA MEHTA 74.5 226</div><div>227 31173 PAMI KARNA 74.5 227</div><div>228 31162 SUSHIL POKHAREL 74.25 228</div><div>229 31265 PRAGYA TULSI 74.25 229</div><div>230 31290 SRISHTI POKHREL 74.25 230</div><div>231 31500 MANITA SITAULA 74.25 231</div><div>232 31254 ARZOO KHATRI 74 232</div><div>233 31523 UDIKSHYA MAHARJAN 74 233</div><div>234 31008 AJAY KUMAR ROY AMATYA 74 234</div><div>235 31223 NEHA SHAH 73.75 235</div><div>236 31150 SHIVANI BHANDARI 73.75 236</div><div>237 31154 MILAN RAI 73.75 237</div><div>238 31509 LAXMI KARKI 73.75 238</div><div>239 31347 ASMINA SHRESTHA 73.5 239</div><div>240 31119 BIMAL CHAND 73 240</div><div>241 31519 SANGITA PANTHI 73 241</div><div>242 31124 ROJEENA ADHIKARI 73 242</div><div>243 31139 NIROJ CHHETRI 73 243</div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgHA1NniQuBj3elJkN7xU1joHozwZ5W5FyNv1QiqvCRqltqzBON7VZioExEHX8w1kEn4dByEHWi02lXPKXCIiDWME08fuImveurhaThj4ZJPuXAovXbpA9t9iSWdTXj3J5f5ZIu9f0sCr4mO7kv5q3d-luInmBK6Fks-bHn17Hd8Uy-VW8V2sZ4o6zSlVQ/s1111/PG_Result2024_final_Page_117.jpg" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="1111" data-original-width="794" height="618" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgHA1NniQuBj3elJkN7xU1joHozwZ5W5FyNv1QiqvCRqltqzBON7VZioExEHX8w1kEn4dByEHWi02lXPKXCIiDWME08fuImveurhaThj4ZJPuXAovXbpA9t9iSWdTXj3J5f5ZIu9f0sCr4mO7kv5q3d-luInmBK6Fks-bHn17Hd8Uy-VW8V2sZ4o6zSlVQ/w442-h618/PG_Result2024_final_Page_117.jpg" width="442" /></a></div><div>SN ROLL NO FULL NAME FINAL SCORE RANK</div><div>244 31106 MONA BASNET 72.75 244</div><div>245 31077 MADHU SUDAN SHARMA 72.75 245</div><div>246 31393 MELINA SURYABANSHI 72.5 246</div><div>247 31090 PAWAN KUMAR GUPTA 72.5 247</div><div>248 31034 SANJIV PRASAI 72.5 248</div><div>249 31392 SUSMITA TIMILSINA 72.25 249</div><div>250 31304 JAY PRAKASH YADAV 72.25 250</div><div>251 31089 SAGAR REGMI 72 251</div><div>252 31058 RAZIYA MIYA 71.75 252</div><div>253 31473 NISCHALA CHAULAGAIN 71.5 253</div><div>254 31075 ANANDA JYOTI OLI 71.5 254</div><div>255 31226 JYOTI MAHATO 71.25 255</div><div>256 31448 PINKY JHANG 71.25 256</div><div>257 31182 AAYUSHA THAPA 71.25 257</div><div>258 31086 BIMAL DEO 71.25 258</div><div>259 31445 SHRESTA GHIMIRE 71.25 259</div><div>260 31189 SANDHYA ADHIKARI NEUPANE 71.25 260</div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><script async="" src="//pagead2.googlesyndication.com/pagead/js/adsbygoogle.js"></script>
<br />
<ins class="adsbygoogle" data-ad-client="ca-pub-8419641143363974" data-ad-format="fluid" data-ad-layout="in-article" data-ad-slot="3033272005" style="display: block; text-align: center;"></ins><script>
(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});
</script>
<a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEjVL8tizJNI03_TrlhzJEVWZomT236LwyBn4fRk0NqZ4i6MYo1qSNN5ydx3TUcBkyuDClrxJS4akGQf09BioW_suc3DpSWUwqKrVkLeeYCojHdj_0Ehv-1yJ49TMT_72Drdh2RR_m47aDQiS_4dwLJmH08OoQcbMiq_jJN4VLnXpbmSSZhCbTyf8g9W7IQ/s1111/PG_Result2024_final_Page_118.jpg" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="1111" data-original-width="794" height="563" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEjVL8tizJNI03_TrlhzJEVWZomT236LwyBn4fRk0NqZ4i6MYo1qSNN5ydx3TUcBkyuDClrxJS4akGQf09BioW_suc3DpSWUwqKrVkLeeYCojHdj_0Ehv-1yJ49TMT_72Drdh2RR_m47aDQiS_4dwLJmH08OoQcbMiq_jJN4VLnXpbmSSZhCbTyf8g9W7IQ/w403-h563/PG_Result2024_final_Page_118.jpg" width="403" /></a></div><br /><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><br /></div><br /><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><br /></div><br /><div style="text-align: left;"><br /></div>Raman Dhungelhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/02665112922221205920noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5127003399594558662.post-60066264826902180772024-02-07T00:35:00.009+05:452024-02-07T00:35:40.467+05:45Length of junctional epithelium is:<div style="text-align: left;"> # Length of junctional epithelium is:</div><div>A. 0.25-1.35 mm</div><div>B. 0.5-0.75 mm</div><div>C. 1.0-2.0 mm</div><div>D. 1.0-1.5 mm</div><div><br /></div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEj-2rNr34CUb5yCZ4j_7tGrvlfbyU_7ihuaAaa-E3PnabuJrKv0fj9jGeL79Fm0EaIzOc8lVFECi38H6IrrlTwuLaz2UPnLR6suffvfOfMEl0SLcqdjgvydezoKl2fOa9CcK9J6SOSVj9A_b1SImwFIOpQ-LKtndPRCmSnxek1T5VQmwwEI3Q8u90fiYJE/s1881/Screenshot%202024-02-07%20003229.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="1066" data-original-width="1881" height="264" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEj-2rNr34CUb5yCZ4j_7tGrvlfbyU_7ihuaAaa-E3PnabuJrKv0fj9jGeL79Fm0EaIzOc8lVFECi38H6IrrlTwuLaz2UPnLR6suffvfOfMEl0SLcqdjgvydezoKl2fOa9CcK9J6SOSVj9A_b1SImwFIOpQ-LKtndPRCmSnxek1T5VQmwwEI3Q8u90fiYJE/w467-h264/Screenshot%202024-02-07%20003229.png" width="467" /></a></div><br /><div>The correct answer is A. 0.25-1.35 mm.</div><div><br /></div><div><div><b>Junctional Epithelium:</b> The epithelium that attaches the gingiva to the tooth's surface, it consists of stratified squamous non-keratinizing epithelium. It is 3-4 layers thick in early life but the number of</div><div>layers increases with age to 10-20. It is thicker in the coronal portion but becomes thinner toward the cemento-enamel junction only a few cell layers. The length of the JE ranges from 0.25 to 1.35mm. </div></div>Raman Dhungelhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/02665112922221205920noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5127003399594558662.post-26572318041097317932024-02-07T00:23:00.003+05:452024-02-07T00:23:29.248+05:45Chronic atrophic candidiasis is commonly referred to as:<div style="text-align: left;"> # Chronic atrophic candidiasis is commonly referred to as:</div><div> A. Oral Thrush</div><div>B. Denture stomatitis</div><div>C. Angular cheilitis</div><div>D. Erythema multiforme</div><div><br /></div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEhEGsF9LTa0Onn3HxU-TaIjnWkAHABsl3L-CodTDFEv7js9XmgR58eZ5ugui-0jPzg1nNyPkgcMYLnuIuZa8Dl-nCHuZed0u2GsbCXJBQByD5qGl0N_M7RDwQ3Sy4v2Cxjx3oY1Zet5wQ4NMaL4fBgFb_zI1exHhSv7E69IfEvQRzChZQPG9obugUd9tTs/s1873/Screenshot%202024-02-07%20002011.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="1072" data-original-width="1873" height="265" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEhEGsF9LTa0Onn3HxU-TaIjnWkAHABsl3L-CodTDFEv7js9XmgR58eZ5ugui-0jPzg1nNyPkgcMYLnuIuZa8Dl-nCHuZed0u2GsbCXJBQByD5qGl0N_M7RDwQ3Sy4v2Cxjx3oY1Zet5wQ4NMaL4fBgFb_zI1exHhSv7E69IfEvQRzChZQPG9obugUd9tTs/w463-h265/Screenshot%202024-02-07%20002011.png" width="463" /></a></div><br /><div>The correct answer is B. Denture stomatitis.</div><div><br /></div><div><div>Denture stomatitis should be mentioned because it is often classified as a form of erythematous candidiasis, and some authors may use the term chronic atrophic candidiasis synonymously. This condition is characterized by varying degrees of erythema, sometimes accompanied by petechial</div><div>hemorrhage, localized to the denture-bearing areas of a maxillary removable dental prosthesis. </div><div><br /></div><div>Although the clinical appearance can be striking, the process is rarely symptomatic. Usually, the patient admits to wearing the denture continuously, removing it only periodically to clean it. Whether this represents actual infection by C. albicans or is simply a tissue response by the host to the various microorganisms living beneath the denture remains controversial.</div></div>Raman Dhungelhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/02665112922221205920noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5127003399594558662.post-59672415775989623512024-02-07T00:07:00.004+05:452024-02-07T00:07:43.842+05:45Stress shielding effect is seen in:<div style="text-align: left;"> # Stress shielding effect is seen in:</div><div> A. Miniplates</div><div>B. Compression bone plating</div><div>C. Lag screw</div><div>D. Transosseous wiring</div><div><br /></div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEjel6pOWyxCFMND290sAmJJFo5saabXyWjMybOfrIO_OkCoDeeBmX-jzCgViIcCay104DTQyuMqqQgByJHnKOv79PAmKB7Ipk6RP-iRH1kQvZyHP5QgHqsaRMIhVnmQjkdH0T2bdpgPJYyOMrs-FM2kxSVXpWjSNNN-ROt2OfOO_eg592HJ0g9oRv87AaU/s1874/Screenshot%202024-02-07%20000232.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="1066" data-original-width="1874" height="248" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEjel6pOWyxCFMND290sAmJJFo5saabXyWjMybOfrIO_OkCoDeeBmX-jzCgViIcCay104DTQyuMqqQgByJHnKOv79PAmKB7Ipk6RP-iRH1kQvZyHP5QgHqsaRMIhVnmQjkdH0T2bdpgPJYyOMrs-FM2kxSVXpWjSNNN-ROt2OfOO_eg592HJ0g9oRv87AaU/w436-h248/Screenshot%202024-02-07%20000232.png" width="436" /></a></div><div><br /></div>The correct answer is B. Compression bone plating.<div><br /></div><div>Stress shielding is the reduction in bone density (osteopenia) as a result of removal of typical stress from the bone by an implant. This is because by Wolff's law, bone in a healthy person or animal remodels in response to the loads it is placed under. </div><div><br /></div><div><div>The most obvious postoperative complications of internal fixation using compression plates are misplaced bone segments or fixation devices. These complications are readily identified by clinical examination (e.g. malocclusion) or postoperative radiographic examinations. A second surgical procedure will correct such complications. Other complications related to rigid internal fixation include palpability, infection, extrusion or exposure, translocation, stress shielding, cortical osteopenia, and nonunion.</div><div><br /></div><div><br /></div><div><br /></div></div>Raman Dhungelhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/02665112922221205920noreply@blogger.com0