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THESIS TOPICS OF MDS ORTHODONTICS IN BPKIHS DONE BY MDS POST GRADUATE RESIDENTS
MDS Orthodontics - Thesis Topics
## 1. Cephalometric and Radiographic Studies cephalometric analysis in orthodontic treatment planning
These studies utilize 2D radiographs (Lateral Cephalograms and OPGs) which are widely available.
Cephalometric Norms for a Specific Nepalese Ethnic Group: Establish Steiner's or Tweed's cephalometric norms for a specific population (e.g., Newar, Rai, Gurung) to create a local database.
Practical Application: Provides more accurate diagnostic standards for local populations instead of relying solely on Caucasian norms.
Soft Tissue Profile Changes after First Premolar Extractions: A retrospective study evaluating changes in the lips and chin position in Class I bimaxillary protrusion cases.
Practical Application: Helps in predicting esthetic outcomes and managing patient expectations regarding facial changes.
Navigating Advanced Dental Education: Fellowships, Clerkships, and Specializing in Cleft Lip and Palate Orthodontics
MCQs in Orthodontics - Orthodontic Growth and Development Assessment
A. Hypertrophy
B. Maturation
C. Accretion
D. Hyperplasia
# The concept that growth occurs along an axis from head to tail is known as which growth pattern?
A. Anteroposterior
B. Proximodistal
C. Somatic
D. Cephalocaudal
# According to Scammons' curves, which tissue system exhibits the most rapid growth during the first few years of life, followed by a plateau?
A. Genital system
B. General body growth
C. Lymphoid system
D. Neural system
# Which theory of craniofacial growth posits that growth occurs primarily due to adaptive responses of the skeletal tissues to functional demands of surrounding soft tissues and spaces?
A. Sutural theory
B. Servosystem theory
C. Cartilage theory
D. Functional Matrix Theory
# The primary mechanism for the increase in size of the cranial vault after birth is:
A. Surface remodeling on the external surface of the vault
B. Endochondral ossification at the cranial base
C. Appositional growth at the condylar cartilage
D. Intramembranous bone formation at the sutures
# Which cranial base synchondrosis typically fuses last, continuing to contribute to anteroposterior cranial base growth into late adolescence?
A. Pterygomaxillary synchondrosis
B. Spheno-ethmoidal synchondrosis
C. Intersphenoid synchondrosis
D. Spheno-occipital synchondrosis
# Forward and downward growth of the maxilla primarily occurs through:
A. Appositional growth at the alveolar processes
B. Endochondral ossification within the maxilla itself
C. Direct bone formation at the midpalatal suture
D. Bone deposition at the maxillary sutures and surface remodeling
# Which of the following is the primary mechanism for the growth of the mandible during childhood?
A. Intramembranous ossification of the corpus
B. Endochondral ossification at the condylar cartilage
C. Growth at the symphysis
D. Sutural growth at the posterior border of the ramus
# According to Lavergne and Gasson's classification, which type of mandibular rotation refers to the rotation of the basal bone relative to the cranial base?
A. Intramatrix rotation
B. Matrix rotation
C. Total rotation
D. Alveolar rotation
# A patient with a high Frankfort-Mandibular Plane Angle (FMA) and a tendency towards an anterior open bite often exhibits which of Tweed's growth patterns?
A. Type A (Average/Mesofacial)
B. Type B (Horizontal/Brachyfacial)
C. Type C (Vertical/Dolichofacial)
D. Type D (Unclassified)
# Which pharyngeal arch gives rise to the muscles of mastication and the maxilla/mandible?
A. First pharyngeal arch
B. Second pharyngeal arch
C. Third pharyngeal arch
D. Fourth pharyngeal arch
# The primary palate develops from the fusion of which embryonic structures?
A. Two lateral palatine processes
B. Nasal septum and palatal shelves
C. Frontonasal prominence and mandibular prominences
D. Two medial nasal prominences and two maxillary prominences
# At what approximate gestational age does the fusion of the secondary palate typically begin?
A. Week 4
B. Week 6
C. Week 7-8
D. Week 10
# The primary driving force for the elevation of the palatal shelves during secondary palate formation is widely attributed to:
A. Rapid bone growth within the shelves
B. Tongue growth pushing the shelves upward
C. Intrinsic mesenchymal turgor pressure due to hyaluronic acid accumulation
D. Muscle contractions within the shelves
# Programmed cell death (apoptosis) plays a crucial role in the fusion of the palatal shelves by eliminating which specific tissue?
A. Nasal septal cartilage
B. Medial edge epithelium (MEE)
C. Mesenchymal cells of the shelves
D. Oral epithelial cells on the superior surface
# Which of the following maternal conditions during pregnancy is a known environmental factor that increases the risk of cleft palate?
A. Maternal anemia
B. Use of certain anticonvulsant medications (e.g., phenytoin)
C. Maternal hypothyroidism
D. Excessive intake of Vitamin C
# The neonatal line in enamel and dentin is formed as a result of:
A. Physiological stress associated with birth
B. Genetic predisposition for enamel hypoplasia
C. Trauma during eruption of primary teeth
D. Pre-natal systemic illness
# Which of the following conditions would typically lead to a thinner or less distinct neonatal line?
A. Diabetic mother
B. Low birth weight
C. Elective Caesarean section delivery
D. Asphyxia in the newborn
MCQs on Cephalometric Parameters and Malocclusion
A. 2, 4 and 5
B. 1, 4 and 5
C. 3, 4 and 5
D. 1 and 3
# A patient presents with anterior crowding as a result of large size of teeth in comparison to the base of mandible. This will be classified as:
A. Tertiary crowding
B. Secondary crowding
C. Third degree crowding
D. Primary crowding
# Which of the following cephalometric angles is primarily used to assess the anteroposterior position of the maxilla relative to the cranial base?
A. FMA
B. SNB
C. ANB
D. SNA
# A patient with a skeletal Class II malocclusion typically exhibits which of the following characteristics?
A. Prognathic mandible
B. ANB angle greater than 4°
C. Retrognathic maxilla
D. Point B anterior to Point A on Wit's appraisal
# Which cephalometric parameter assesses the vertical relationship between the Frankfort Horizontal plane and the mandibular plane?
A. FMA
B. Y axis
C. Facial angle
D. SN-GoGn
# What is the normal average value for the SNA angle in a Caucasian population?
A. 86°
B. 78°
C. 82°
D. 90°
# A high FMA angle (e.g., 30° or more) is often associated with which facial growth pattern?
A. Anteroposterior growth pattern
B. Horizontal growth pattern
C. Vertical growth pattern
D. Neutral growth pattern
# Which of the following describes a normal skeletal Class I relationship according to cephalometric analysis?
A. Wit's appraisal with point B anterior to point A
B. ANB angle between 0° and 4°
C. ANB angle of 5°
D. SNA=80° and SNB=76°
Which of the following cephalometric parameters suggest skeletal class III malocclusion?
Explanation:
1. ANB is less than 0 degrees: A negative ANB angle indicates that point B (mandible) is anterior to point A (maxilla), which is a classic sign of skeletal Class III malocclusion.
3. SNB=82 degrees: While the average SNB is around 80 degrees, an SNB of 82 degrees indicates a more protrusive mandible relative to the cranial base, which is consistent with a Class III tendency (especially if SNA is normal or reduced). In contrast, SNA=84 degrees (option 2) suggests a protrusive maxilla, which is typically seen in Class II, not Class III.
4. Wit’s appraisal shows point A before point B: This indicates a Class II skeletal relationship, where the maxilla is anterior to the mandible. For Class III, point B would be anterior to point A.
5. FMA is 40 degrees: FMA (Frankfort Mandibular Plane Angle) indicates the vertical growth pattern. A high FMA (40 degrees is significantly high) suggests a vertical growth pattern or an open bite tendency, but it does not directly indicate a sagittal Class III relationship.
A patient presents with anterior crowding as a result of large size of teeth in comparison to the base of mandible. This will be classified as:
Anterior inclined plane (Catlan’s appliance) cannot be used in the following cases EXCEPT:
The most common contraindications for Catlan's appliance are:
Existing anterior open bite
Periodontally compromised mandibular anterior teeth
Cases where further proclination of maxillary anterior teeth is undesirable (e.g., severe anterior flaring if the goal is to reduce it).
Severe skeletal discrepancies.
Comparing the options:
A. Posterior open bite: Not a direct contraindication for using Catlan's, but Catlan's doesn't treat it and could lead to anterior open bite.
B. Class I with anterior flaring: Catlan's causes flaring, so contraindication if flaring is the problem.
C. Severe class III with reverse overjet: Catlan's is not for severe skeletal problems.
D. Anterior open bite: Strong contraindication.
The question is effectively asking for the case where it can be used. If the question implies that the appliance is generally contraindicated in all but one of the listed situations.
Given that Catlan's appliance creates an anterior bite plane, which effectively creates a temporary posterior open bite to allow the anterior crossbite correction, a pre-existing posterior open bite is not an absolute contraindication in the same way an anterior open bite is. It simply means the appliance isn't addressing the posterior open bite.
Therefore, the most logical answer as the "EXCEPT" case (where it can be used, or is not contraindicated) is A.
Salary Analysis of Bachelor of Dental Surgery (BDS) Graduates and General Dentists Worldwide
Salary Analysis of Bachelor of Dental Surgery (BDS) Graduates and General Dentists Worldwide
The Bachelor of Dental Surgery (BDS) degree is a professional undergraduate program that prepares graduates to become licensed dentists, focusing on oral health, diagnosis, and treatment of dental conditions. General dentists, typically BDS graduates or those with equivalent qualifications like Doctor of Dental Surgery (DDS) or Doctor of Dental Medicine (DMD), form the backbone of dental care worldwide. This article provides a comprehensive overview of the salaries of BDS graduates and general dentists across various countries, highlighting average, top, and minimum salaries, and the factors influencing these earnings.
Overview of BDS Graduates and General Dentists
BDS graduates are trained to perform a wide range of dental procedures, including cleanings, fillings, extractions, and patient education on oral health. After completing their degree, they may work as general dentists in private practices, public hospitals, or academic institutions, or pursue further specialization through programs like Master of Dental Surgery (MDS). Salaries for BDS graduates and general dentists vary significantly based on factors such as geographic location, experience, work setting (public vs. private), and additional qualifications.
The global demand for dental professionals is rising due to increased awareness of oral health, an aging population, and advancements in dental technology. However, salary disparities exist across countries due to differences in economic conditions, healthcare systems, and cost of living. Below, we explore the salary landscape for BDS graduates and general dentists worldwide, with specific data for key countries where available.
Periodontology MCQs - Flap and Mucogingival Surgery
A. 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 21 days
D. 1 month
# In guided tissue regeneration technique for root coverage, the titanium reinforced membrane was used to create space beneath the membrane by:
A. Tinti and Vincenzi
B. Pini Prato and Tonetti
C. Ramjford and Nissle
D. Widman and Cohen
Primary immunoglobulin secreted or activated after vaccination:
According to Clark’s rule for localization of object, if tube is shifted mesially to original angulation:
All of the following are the features of dysplasia EXCEPT:
Renin secretion is stimulated by all EXCEPT:
As no dental biomaterial is absolutely free from the potential risk of adverse reactions, the testing of biocompatibility is related to:
Traumatic injury of a nerve causing paresthesia is:
The correct answer is A. Neuropraxia.
Explanation:
- Neuropraxia is the mildest form of traumatic nerve injury, involving a temporary conduction block due to compression or mild trauma. It often causes paresthesia (tingling or numbness) without significant structural damage to the nerve. Recovery is usually complete within days to weeks.
- Neurotmesis is the most severe nerve injury, involving complete nerve transection with disruption of the nerve and its sheath, leading to permanent loss of function unless surgically repaired. Paresthesia may occur, but it’s not the primary feature.
- Axonotmesis involves damage to the axons but preservation of the nerve’s connective tissue. It causes more severe symptoms than neuropraxia, with longer recovery times (weeks to months), and paresthesia may be present but is less characteristic.
- Toxolysis is not a standard term in nerve injury classification and is incorrect in this context.
Since the question specifies a traumatic nerve injury causing paresthesia (a sensory symptom like tingling), neuropraxia is the most fitting answer due to its association with mild, reversible sensory disturbances.
A tumor characterized by rapid rate of growth which almost doubles its size by next day:
Popsicle panniculitis can occur:
The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are:
Chicken fat clot is:
Therapy of choice for pockets with an edematous wall is:
Paederus Dermatitis: What You Need to Know About This Painful Insect Reaction - Acid Fly - Nairobi Fly Dermatitis
Paederus Dermatitis: What You Need to Know About This Painful Insect Reaction
Introduction
Paederus dermatitis, also known as "rove beetle dermatitis" or "Nairobi fly dermatitis," is a painful and often alarming skin condition caused by contact with certain species of rove beetles, particularly those from the Paederus genus. These small insects don’t bite or sting, but their body fluids contain a potent toxin called pederin, which can cause severe skin irritation. I recently experienced this myself, resulting in a large, scary wound that prompted me to raise awareness about this little-known but dreadful insect. This article will explain what Paederus dermatitis is, its symptoms, causes, treatment, and prevention strategies to help you avoid the same discomfort.
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Day 3 Crusting and healing of wound |
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Day 2 After contact with the Acid Fly |
What is Paederus Dermatitis?
Paederus dermatitis is a type of irritant contact dermatitis caused by crushing a Paederus beetle against the skin. These beetles, often mistaken for ants or small flies, are typically 7–10 mm long, with a distinctive appearance featuring black and orange or red markings. They are commonly found in tropical and subtropical regions, including parts of Africa, Asia, South America, and Australia, often in warm, humid environments near agricultural fields or rivers.
Unlike bites or stings, the reaction occurs when the beetle’s hemolymph (body fluid), which contains pederin, comes into contact with the skin. This toxin is highly irritating and can cause painful, burning lesions that may last for days or weeks if not properly managed.
Symptoms of Paederus Dermatitis
The symptoms of Paederus dermatitis typically appear 12–48 hours after contact with the beetle and can vary in severity. Common symptoms include:
- Redness and Burning Sensation: The affected area becomes red and feels intensely warm or burning.
- Blisters and Lesions: Small blisters or pustules form, often progressing to larger, open sores or ulcers.
- Itching and Pain: The lesions are often itchy and painful, making it difficult to ignore.
- Linear Marks: The lesions may appear in streaks or linear patterns, as the beetle is often unknowingly brushed across the skin.
- Secondary Infections: Scratching the affected area can introduce bacteria, leading to infections that worsen the condition.
In my case, I developed a large, red, and painful wound that looked alarming and took weeks to heal fully. The delayed onset of symptoms can make it hard to connect the reaction to the beetle, as many people don’t recall encountering the insect.
Causes and Risk Factors
Paederus beetles are attracted to artificial lights, which often brings them into homes or outdoor areas at night. Crushing the beetle, either intentionally or accidentally (e.g., swatting it or brushing it off the skin), releases pederin, triggering the dermatitis. Key risk factors include:
- Geographic Location: Living in or visiting tropical or subtropical regions where these beetles are prevalent.
- Seasonal Factors: Outbreaks are more common during rainy seasons when beetle populations increase.
- Nighttime Exposure: The beetles are nocturnal and drawn to lights, increasing the risk of contact in the evening.
- Unawareness: Many people, including myself, are unaware of the beetle’s danger and may crush it, worsening the exposure.
Treatment and Management
If you suspect Paederus dermatitis, prompt action can reduce the severity of symptoms. Here’s what to do:
- Wash the Area Immediately: If you believe you’ve come into contact with a beetle, wash the affected area with soap and water to remove any residual pederin. This can help minimize the reaction if done quickly.
- Avoid Scratching: Scratching can worsen the lesions and lead to secondary infections.
- Apply Cold Compresses: A cold compress can reduce burning and inflammation.
- Use Topical Treatments: Over-the-counter hydrocortisone cream or antihistamines can help with itching and inflammation. For severe cases, consult a doctor for stronger topical or oral steroids.
- Monitor for Infection: If the wound shows signs of infection (e.g., increased redness, swelling, or pus), seek medical attention. Antibiotics may be needed.
- Keep the Area Clean and Dry: Proper hygiene can prevent complications and promote healing.
In my experience, washing the area and using a mild corticosteroid cream helped, but the wound still took time to heal. Consulting a healthcare professional early can make a significant difference.
Prevention Tips
Preventing Paederus dermatitis requires awareness and caution, especially in areas where these beetles are common. Here are some practical tips:
- Avoid Crushing Beetles: If you see a small black-and-orange insect, gently brush it off or blow it away rather than crushing it.
- Use Insect Screens: Install fine mesh screens on windows and doors to keep beetles out, especially at night.
- Limit Light Exposure: Turn off unnecessary outdoor lights or use yellow bulbs, which are less attractive to beetles.
- Wear Protective Clothing: Long sleeves and pants can reduce skin exposure when outdoors in beetle-prone areas.
- Check Bedding and Clothing: Shake out clothes, towels, or bedding before use, as beetles may hide in fabrics.
- Stay Informed: Learn to recognize Paederus beetles and their habitats, especially if you live in or travel to affected regions.
Conclusion
Paederus dermatitis is a painful and distressing condition that can catch anyone off guard, as it did me when I developed a large, alarming wound after unknowingly crushing a rove beetle. By understanding the causes, symptoms, and prevention strategies, you can protect yourself and your loved ones from this dreadful insect. If you suspect contact with a Paederus beetle, act quickly to minimize the reaction and seek medical advice if symptoms worsen. Awareness is key—stay vigilant, especially in warm, humid environments, and share this knowledge to help others avoid the same ordeal.
Temporary Anchorage Devices in Orthodontics: A Patient’s Guide
Temporary Anchorage Devices in Orthodontics: A Patient’s Guide
If you’re undergoing orthodontic treatment, you may have heard your orthodontist mention Temporary Anchorage Devices (TADs). These small, innovative tools have revolutionized modern orthodontics, offering precise and efficient solutions for complex tooth movements. This article explains what TADs are, how they work, their benefits, and what you can expect if they’re part of your treatment plan.
What Are Temporary Anchorage Devices (TADs)?
Temporary Anchorage Devices, or TADs, are small, screw-like devices made of biocompatible materials, such as titanium, that are temporarily placed in the jawbone to assist with orthodontic treatment. Think of them as stable anchors that provide a fixed point for moving teeth in ways that traditional braces or aligners alone might not achieve.
TADs are typically 6–12 mm long and about 1–2 mm in diameter, similar in size to a small earring post. They’re placed in specific areas of the mouth by an orthodontist or oral surgeon and removed once they’ve served their purpose.
How Do TADs Work?
Orthodontic treatment often involves applying controlled forces to move teeth into their desired positions. TADs act as anchors to support these forces, ensuring that only the targeted teeth move while others stay in place. Here’s a simple breakdown of how they work:
- Placement: The orthodontist numbs the area with local anesthesia and gently inserts the TAD into the bone through the gum tissue. This is a quick, minimally invasive procedure, often taking just a few minutes.
- Anchoring: Once in place, the TAD provides a stable point to attach orthodontic appliances, such as wires, springs, or elastic bands.
- Tooth Movement: The TAD helps direct precise forces to move specific teeth or groups of teeth, allowing for complex movements like closing gaps, correcting bite issues, or aligning teeth more effectively.
- Removal: After the desired tooth movement is achieved, the TAD is easily removed, and the area heals quickly.
Why Are TADs Used?
TADs are used to address a variety of orthodontic challenges that might be difficult or impossible to achieve with braces or aligners alone. Some common uses include:
- Closing Large Gaps: TADs can help close spaces between teeth, such as those caused by missing teeth.
- Correcting Severe Misalignments: They assist in moving teeth that are significantly out of position.
- Improving Bite Issues: TADs are often used to correct overbites, underbites, or open bites.
- Reducing the Need for Extractions: By providing precise control, TADs can sometimes eliminate the need to remove teeth to create space.
- Supporting Complex Cases: They’re especially helpful in adult orthodontics or cases where traditional methods are less effective.
Benefits of TADs
TADs offer several advantages that make them a valuable tool in orthodontics:
- Precision: They allow for highly controlled tooth movements, leading to more predictable results.
- Efficiency: TADs can reduce treatment time by enabling faster and more direct tooth movements.
- Minimally Invasive: Placement and removal are quick and typically involve minimal discomfort.
- Versatility: They can be used in a wide range of cases, from minor adjustments to complex treatments.
- Reduced Reliance on Patient Compliance: Unlike headgear or elastics, which depend on consistent wear, TADs work without requiring extra effort from the patient.
What to Expect During TAD Placement
If your orthodontist recommends TADs, here’s what you can expect:
- The Procedure: The area where the TAD will be placed is numbed with local anesthesia, so you’ll feel little to no pain. Some patients report mild pressure during insertion. The process is quick, often taking less than 10 minutes.
- After Placement: You may experience mild soreness or sensitivity for a day or two, similar to what you feel after getting braces adjusted. Over-the-counter pain relievers, like ibuprofen, can help if needed.
- Care Instructions: Keeping the area clean is important to prevent irritation or infection. Your orthodontist will provide guidance on brushing gently around the TAD and avoiding hard or sticky foods that could dislodge it.
- Duration: TADs are typically left in place for a few months to a year, depending on your treatment plan. Once their job is done, they’re removed in a simple procedure, and the gum tissue heals quickly.
Are There Any Risks?
TADs are generally safe, but like any dental procedure, there are minor risks, including:
- Mild Discomfort: Some soreness or irritation around the TAD site is normal but usually temporary.
- Loosening: In rare cases, a TAD may become loose and need repositioning or replacement.
- Infection: Proper oral hygiene minimizes this risk, but it’s important to follow your orthodontist’s care instructions.
Your orthodontist will discuss these risks and ensure TADs are a good fit for your treatment.
Frequently Asked Questions
Will TADs hurt?
The placement is done under local anesthesia, so you won’t feel pain during the procedure. Any post-placement discomfort is typically mild and short-lived.
Will TADs change my appearance?
TADs are small and placed in discreet areas of the mouth, so they’re usually not noticeable when you smile or talk.
How do I care for TADs?
Brush gently around the TAD to keep the area clean, and avoid chewing hard or sticky foods near the device. Your orthodontist will provide specific instructions.
Can anyone get TADs?
TADs are suitable for many patients, but your orthodontist will evaluate factors like bone density and oral health to determine if they’re right for you.
Conclusion
Temporary Anchorage Devices are a game-changer in orthodontics, offering a precise, efficient, and minimally invasive way to achieve a beautiful, healthy smile. If your orthodontist suggests TADs, rest assured they’re a safe and effective tool to enhance your treatment. Feel free to ask your orthodontist any questions to better understand how TADs will work in your unique case. With TADs, you’re one step closer to the smile you’ve always wanted!