Dentosphere : World of Dentistry

1. In orthodontic biomechanics, a low moment-to-force ratio typically results in which type of tooth movement? A. Bodily movement B. Controlled tipping C. Uncontrolled tipping D. Intrusion E. Extrusion 2. The center of resistance of a single-rooted tooth is located approximately at what distance from the alveolar crest? A. One-third of the root length B. One-half of the root length C. Two-thirds of the root length D. At the apex E. At the cervical margin

  The Hidden Environmental Cost of Face Masks: How Disposable Masks Contribute to Microplastic Pollution In the wake of the COVID-19 pandemic, disposable face masks became our everyday armor against an invisible enemy. Billions were produced, worn, and discarded, saving countless lives but leaving a lingering question: What happens to all that waste? A recent study published in Environmental Pollution (2024) by researchers Anna A. Bogush and Ivan Kourtchev from Coventry University sheds light on a troubling side effect—disposable masks as a sneaky source of microplastics and harmful chemicals leaching into our environment. If you're concerned about plastic pollution, ocean health, or the long-term legacy of the pandemic, this is a must-read. Let's dive into the findings and explore what it means for our planet. The Pandemic's Plastic Boom: A Quick Recap Remember 2020? As the world grappled with COVID-19, face masks went from niche medical gear to global essentials. The ...

# An orthodontist is using a bracket with a 0.022-inch slot. Which of the following is the most significant disadvantage of using a wire that is not fully seated in this slot? A. Inability to express the full programmed torque and angulation. B. Increased friction between the wire and the bracket. C. Higher risk of bracket debonding. D. Reduced anchorage control. # A patient presents with a history of nickel allergy. What type of orthodontic bracket would be the most appropriate choice to avoid an allergic reaction? A. Stainless steel brackets. B. Ceramic brackets. C. Nickel-titanium brackets. D. Gold-plated brackets. # What is the primary advantage of a self-ligating bracket system compared to a conventional bracket system with elastomeric ligatures? A. Increased control over individual tooth rotation. B. Improved oral hygiene due to less plaque accumulation. C. Reduced treatment time due to increased friction. ...

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 This is a compilation of all the thesis topics done at B.P. Koirala Institute of Health Sciences, Dharan, Nepal, by postgraduate residents in the Department of Orthodontics and Dentofacial Orthopedics. 1. ORIENTATION AND POSITION OF HYOID BONE IN ORTHODONTIC PATIENTS WITH DIFFERENT DENTOFACIAL GROWTH PATTERNS REPORTING TO CODS, BPKIHS: Dr. Bhushan Bhattarai, July 2014 2. THE SHAPE, SIZE, AND BRIDGING OF THE SELLA TURCICA IN SKELETAL CLASS I, II & III ADULT ORTHODONTIC PATIENTS, REPORTING TO CODS, BPKIHS: Dr. Gunjan Kumar Shrestha, July 2014 3. PHARYNGEAL WIDTHS COMPARISON IN DIFFERENT SKELETAL MALOCCLUSIONS AND GROWTH PATTERNS OF PATIENTS VISITING DEPARTMENT OF ORTHODONTICS, BPKIHS: Dr. Nabin Kumar Chaudhary, December 2020 4. CORRELATION BETWEEN DENTAL ARCH WIDTH AND VERTICAL FACIAL MORPHOLOGY IN PATIENTS SEEKING ORTHODONTIC TREATMENT IN BPKIHS, DHARAN, NEPAL: Dr. Subash Shrestha, May 2023 5. NEPALESE TRANSLATION AND VALIDATION OF THE ORAL AESTHETIC SUBJECTIVE IMPACT SCORE (OA...

 These are some very useful thesis topics that are practically useful and doable by postgraduate students. ## 1. Cephalometric and Radiographic Studies cephalometric analysis in orthodontic treatment planning These studies utilize 2D radiographs (Lateral Cephalograms and OPGs) which are widely available. Cephalometric Norms for a Specific Nepalese Ethnic Group: Establish Steiner's or Tweed's cephalometric norms for a specific population (e.g., Newar, Rai, Gurung) to create a local database. Practical Application: Provides more accurate diagnostic standards for local populations instead of relying solely on Caucasian norms. Soft Tissue Profile Changes after First Premolar Extractions: A retrospective study evaluating changes in the lips and chin position in Class I bimaxillary protrusion cases. Practical Application: Helps in predicting esthetic outcomes and managing patient expectations regarding facial changes.

I. Introduction to Advanced Dental Training This report provides a comprehensive overview of advanced educational pathways within the medical and dental fields, specifically distinguishing between fellowships and clerkships. The primary aim is to offer detailed guidance for orthodontists holding a Master of Dental Surgery (MDS) degree who seek to pursue further specialization in cleft lip and palate orthodontics. The information presented herein is designed to equip dental professionals with the knowledge necessary to make informed decisions regarding their advanced training and career trajectory. Your specific interest in cleft lip and palate orthodontics underscores a desire for highly specialized, multidisciplinary training that extends beyond a general orthodontic residency. This report will address the unique requirements, opportunities, and challenges inherent in this niche field, providing a structured pathway for aspiring specialists. II. Understanding Fellowships in Medical an...

# Which of the following terms describes an increase in the number of cells? A. Hypertrophy B. Maturation C. Accretion D. Hyperplasia # The concept that growth occurs along an axis from head to tail is known as which growth pattern? A. Anteroposterior B. Proximodistal C. Somatic D. Cephalocaudal # According to Scammons' curves, which tissue system exhibits the most rapid growth during the first few years of life, followed by a plateau? A. Genital system B. General body growth C. Lymphoid system D. Neural system # Which theory of craniofacial growth posits that growth occurs primarily due to adaptive responses of the skeletal tissues to functional demands of surrounding soft tissues and spaces? A. Sutural theory B. Servosystem theory C. Cartilage theory D. Functional Matrix Theory # The primary mechanism for the increase in size of the cranial vault after birth is: A. Su...

# Which of the following cephalometric parameters suggest skeletal class III malocclusion? 1. ANB is less than 0 degree 2. SNA= 84 degrees 3. SNB=82 degrees 4. Wit’s appraisal shows point A before point B 5. FMA is 40 degrees A. 2, 4 and 5 B. 1, 4 and 5 C. 3, 4 and 5 D. 1 and 3 # A patient presents with anterior crowding as a result of large size of teeth in comparison to the base of mandible. This will be classified as: A. Tertiary crowding B. Secondary crowding C. Third degree crowding D. Primary crowding # Which of the following cephalometric angles is primarily used to assess the anteroposterior position of the maxilla relative to the cranial base? A. FMA B. SNB C. ANB D. SNA # A patient with a skeletal Class II malocclusion typically exhibits which of the following characteristics? A. Prognathic mandible B. ANB angle greater than 4° C. Retrognathic maxilla D. Point B anterior to Point...

 # Which of the following cephalometric parameters suggest skeletal class III malocclusion? 1. ANB is less than 0 degree 2. SNA= 84 degrees 3. SNB=82 degrees 4. Wit’s appraisal shows point A before point B 5. FMA is 40 degrees (INICET 2025) A. 1, 4 and 5 B. 1 and 3 C. 2, 4 and 5 D. 3, 4 and 5 The correct answer is B. 1 and 3.  Explanation: 1. ANB is less than 0  degrees:  A negative ANB angle indicates that point B (mandible) is anterior to point A (maxilla), which is a classic sign of skeletal Class III malocclusion. 3. SNB= 82  d e g rees : While the average SNB is around 80 degrees, an SNB of 82 degrees indicates a more protrusive mandible relative to the cranial base, which is consistent with a Class III tendency (especially if SNA is normal or reduced). In contrast, SNA= 84  d e g rees (option 2) suggests a protrusive maxilla, which is typically seen in Class II, not Class III. 4. Wit’s appraisal shows point A before point B : This indicates...

 # A patient presents with anterior crowding as a result of large size of teeth in comparison to the base of mandible. This will be classified as: (AIIMS PG 2020) A. Primary Crowding B. Secondary Crowding C. Tertiary crowding D. Third degree crowding The correct answer is A. Primary Crowding. Explanation: Primary Crowding refers to crowding that arises due to a disproportion between the size of the teeth and the size of the jawbones. In this case, the patient has large teeth relative to a smaller mandible, leading to anterior crowding. This is often genetic in origin and present even before all permanent teeth have erupted. Secondary Crowding typically develops later, often due to factors like premature loss of primary teeth, leading to mesial migration of posterior teeth and a reduction in arch length for the erupting permanent teeth. Tertiary Crowding (also known as late adult crowding) usually occurs in late adolescence or early adulthood, often involving the lower anterior teet...

 # Anterior inclined plane (Catlan’s appliance) cannot be used in the following cases EXCEPT: A. Posterior open bite B. Class I with anterior flaring C. Severe class III with reverse overjet D. Anterior open bite The correct answer is A. Posterior open bite. The Catlan's appliance's mechanism of action involves disoccluding the posterior teeth, which is functionally similar to a posterior open bite. Therefore, an existing posterior open bite does not inherently prevent the appliance from being used to correct a co-existing anterior crossbite. The most common contraindications for Catlan's appliance are: Existing anterior open bite Periodontally compromised mandibular anterior teeth Cases where further proclination of maxillary anterior teeth is undesirable (e.g., severe anterior flaring if the goal is to reduce it). Severe skeletal discrepancies. Comparing the options: A. Posterior open bite: Not a direct contraindication for using Catlan's, but Catlan's doesn'...

  Salary Analysis of Bachelor of Dental Surgery (BDS) Graduates and General Dentists Worldwide The Bachelor of Dental Surgery (BDS) degree is a professional undergraduate program that prepares graduates to become licensed dentists, focusing on oral health, diagnosis, and treatment of dental conditions. General dentists, typically BDS graduates or those with equivalent qualifications like Doctor of Dental Surgery (DDS) or Doctor of Dental Medicine (DMD), form the backbone of dental care worldwide. This article provides a comprehensive overview of the salaries of BDS graduates and general dentists across various countries, highlighting average, top, and minimum salaries, and the factors influencing these earnings. Overview of BDS Graduates and General Dentists BDS graduates are trained to perform a wide range of dental procedures, including cleanings, fillings, extractions, and patient education on oral health. After completing their degree, they may work as general dentists in pr...

# Granulation tissue is replaced by connective tissue in: A. 7 days B. 14 days C. 21 days D. 1 month # In guided tissue regeneration technique for root coverage, the titanium reinforced membrane was used to create space beneath the membrane by: A. Tinti and Vincenzi B. Pini Prato and Tonetti C. Ramjford and Nissle D. Widman and Cohen

# Primary immunoglobulin secreted or activated after vaccination: A. IgM B. IgA C. IgG D. IgE The primary immunoglobulin secreted or activated after vaccination is: C. IgG Explanation: IgG is the most abundant antibody in blood and extracellular fluid, making up ~75% of serum immunoglobulins. It is the key effector of the secondary immune response (activated after initial exposure or vaccination). IgM is produced first during the primary immune response but is short-lived. Vaccination typically aims to induce long-term immunity via IgG. IgA is important for mucosal immunity (e.g., respiratory/gut lining) but is not the dominant systemic response to vaccines. IgE is associated with allergies/parasitic infections and plays no significant role in vaccine-induced immunity.

# According to Clark’s rule for localization of object, if tube is shifted mesially to original angulation: A. Buccal objects move mesially B. Lingual objects move mesially C. Both buccal and lingual objects move distally D. Both buccal and lingual objects move mesially Correct answer: B. Lingual objects move mesially According to Clark’s rule (also known as the SLOB rule—Same Lingual, Opposite Buccal) for object localization in dental radiography, when the X-ray tube is shifted mesially while maintaining the original angulation: Buccal objects (those closer to the cheek) move in the opposite direction of the tube shift, so they move distally. Lingual objects (those closer to the tongue) move in the same direction as the tube shift, so they move mesially. Given the options: A. Buccal objects move mesially: Incorrect, as buccal objects move distally. B. Lingual objects move mesially: Correct, as lingual objects follow the tube shift direction. C. Both buccal and lingual objects move dis...

# All of the following are the features of dysplasia EXCEPT:  A. Enlarged nuclei and cells B. Increased nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio C. Hypochromatic nuclei D. Pleomorphic nuclei and cells The correct answer is C. Hypochromatic nuclei. Explanation: Dysplasia is characterized by abnormal cellular changes, including enlarged nuclei and cells, increased nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio, and pleomorphic nuclei and cells (variation in size and shape). These are all hallmark features of dysplasia. However, hypochromatic nuclei (nuclei with reduced staining, appearing pale) are not typically associated with dysplasia. Instead, dysplastic cells often have hyperchromatic nuclei (darkly staining due to increased DNA content), which is a key feature of the condition.

# Renin secretion is stimulated by all EXCEPT: A. Cardiac failure B. Low Na+ in proximal tubule C. Sympathetic stimulation D. High Na+ in proximal tubule The correct answer is D. High Na+ in proximal tubule. Explanation: Renin secretion, primarily by the juxtaglomerular cells in the kidneys, is stimulated by factors that signal a need to increase blood pressure or sodium retention. These include: A. Cardiac failure: Reduced cardiac output lowers renal perfusion, stimulating renin release to activate the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) to restore blood pressure. B. Low Na+ in proximal tubule: Detected by the macula densa, low sodium levels signal reduced filtrate delivery, triggering renin secretion to promote sodium reabsorption and increase blood volume. C. Sympathetic stimulation: Activation of the sympathetic nervous system, via beta-adrenergic receptors, directly stimulates renin release to address stress or low blood pressure. D. High Na+ in proximal tubule, however, d...

 # As no dental biomaterial is absolutely free from the potential risk of adverse reactions, the testing of biocompatibility is related to: A. Risk factors B. Risk assessment C. Risk markers D. Risk predictors The correct answer is B. Risk assessment. Explanation: Biocompatibility testing for dental biomaterials focuses on evaluating the potential for adverse biological reactions, such as toxicity or irritation, when the material interacts with the body. This process is a key component of risk assessment, which involves systematically identifying, analyzing, and evaluating risks to ensure the material is safe for use. By assessing these risks, manufacturers and clinicians can minimize potential harm to patients.

 # Traumatic injury of a nerve causing paresthesia is: A. Neuropraxia B. Neurotmesis C. Axonotmesis D. Toxolysis The correct answer is A. Neuropraxia . Explanation : Neuropraxia is the mildest form of traumatic nerve injury, involving a temporary conduction block due to compression or mild trauma. It often causes paresthesia (tingling or numbness) without significant structural damage to the nerve. Recovery is usually complete within days to weeks. Neurotmesis is the most severe nerve injury, involving complete nerve transection with disruption of the nerve and its sheath, leading to permanent loss of function unless surgically repaired. Paresthesia may occur, but it’s not the primary feature. Axonotmesis involves damage to the axons but preservation of the nerve’s connective tissue. It causes more severe symptoms than neuropraxia, with longer recovery times (weeks to months), and paresthesia may be present but is less characteristic. Toxolysis is not a standard term in ...

 # A tumor characterized by rapid rate of growth  which almost doubles its size by next day: A. Hodgkin’s Lymphoma B. Malignant melanoma C. African Burkitt’s jaw lymphoma D. Squamous cell carcinoma The correct answer is C. African Burkitt’s jaw lymphoma. African Burkitt’s lymphoma, particularly the endemic form, is characterized by an extremely rapid growth rate, with tumors often doubling in size within 24 hours. This aggressive B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma is commonly seen in children in equatorial Africa and is strongly associated with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). It frequently presents as a rapidly enlarging jaw or facial mass. While Hodgkin’s lymphoma, malignant melanoma, and squamous cell carcinoma can be aggressive, they do not typically exhibit such an exceptionally rapid doubling time as seen in Burkitt’s lymphoma.

 # Popsicle panniculitis can occur: A. Following prolonged exposure to analgesic powder B. Following prolonged exposure to hot beverages C. Following prolonged exposure to frozen food D. Following prolonged exposure to a sharp tooth The correct answer is C. Following prolonged exposure to frozen food. Popsicle panniculitis is a form of cold-induced panniculitis, an inflammation of the subcutaneous fat, typically seen in infants or young children. It occurs due to prolonged exposure to cold objects, such as frozen food (e.g., popsicles), which can cause localized fat necrosis and inflammation. The condition is often seen on the cheeks or chin after contact with cold items. The other options—analgesic powder, hot beverages, or a sharp tooth—are not associated with this condition. 

 # The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are: A. Gram positive organisms B. Gram negative organisms C. Mycoplasma D. Virus infections The correct answer is B. Gram negative organisms. Gram-negative bacteria, such as Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella pneumoniae, and Acinetobacter species, are the most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial (hospital-acquired) pneumonias in the ICU. These organisms are often associated with ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) and thrive in the ICU environment due to factors like prolonged mechanical ventilation, invasive procedures, and antibiotic resistance. Gram-positive organisms (e.g., Staphylococcus aureus) are less common but still significant, while Mycoplasma and viral infections are rare causes of ICU-acquired pneumonia.

# Chicken fat clot is: A. Postmortem clot B. Thrombus C. Infarct D. None of the above The correct answer is A. Postmortem clot. A chicken fat clot is a type of postmortem clot, typically seen in autopsies. It forms after death due to the settling of red blood cells and plasma, creating a layered appearance with a yellowish "chicken fat" layer of plasma and fibrin on top and a darker red blood cell layer below. Unlike a thrombus, which forms in living tissue and can obstruct blood flow, a chicken fat clot occurs post-mortem and is not associated with disease processes like infarction.

 # Therapy of choice for pockets with an edematous wall is: A. Scaling and root planing B. Gingivectomy C. Apically displaced flap D. Root resection The correct answer is A. Scaling and root planing. This non-surgical procedure is typically the first line of treatment for periodontal pockets with edema, as it addresses the underlying inflammation and infection by removing plaque, tartar, and bacterial toxins from the tooth surfaces and root, promoting healing and reduction of pocket depth.

  Paederus Dermatitis: What You Need to Know About This Painful Insect Reaction Introduction Paederus dermatitis, also known as "rove beetle dermatitis" or "Nairobi fly dermatitis," is a painful and often alarming skin condition caused by contact with certain species of rove beetles, particularly those from the Paederus genus. These small insects don’t bite or sting, but their body fluids contain a potent toxin called pederin, which can cause severe skin irritation. I recently experienced this myself, resulting in a large, scary wound that prompted me to raise awareness about this little-known but dreadful insect. This article will explain what Paederus dermatitis is, its symptoms, causes, treatment, and prevention strategies to help you avoid the same discomfort. Day 3 Crusting and healing of wound Day 2 After contact with the Acid Fly What is Paederus Dermatitis? Paederus dermatitis is a type of irritant contact dermatitis caused by crushing a Paederus beetl...