Dentosphere : World of Dentistry

 # Gangrene due to known infectious agent is:  A. Wet gangrene B. Dry gangrene C. Pyoderma granulosum D. Fournier gangrene The correct answer is D. Fournier gangrene.  Fournier gangrene, a relatively rare form of necrotizing fasciitis, is a rapidly progressive disease that affects the deep and superficial tissues of the perineal, anal, scrotal, and genital regions. Named after Dr. Alfred Fournier, the French dermatology and venereal specialist, it was initially described in 1883 as necrotizing fasciitis of the external genitalia, perineal, and perianal region in five of Dr. Fournier’s patients. Also known as necrotizing fasciitis, the disease involves the rapid spread of severe inflammatory and infectious processes along fascial planes affecting adjacent soft tissue; therefore, the disease may initially go unnoticed or unrecognized as there may be minimal or no skin manifestations in its early stages. This disease process results from polymicrobial aerobic and anaerobic s...

 # Biosafety level 4 (BSL-4) pathogen is:  A. XDR strain of Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. SARS CoV-2 C. Ebola D. Measles The correct answer is C. Ebola. Biological Safety Levels (BSL) are a series of protections relegated to the activities that take place in particular biological labs. They are individual safeguards designed to protect laboratory personnel, as well as the surrounding environment and community. These levels, which are ranked from one to four, are selected based on the agents or organisms that are being researched or worked on in any given laboratory setting. For example, a basic lab setting specializing in the research of nonlethal agents that pose a minimal potential threat to lab workers and the environment are generally considered BSL-1—the lowest biosafety lab level. A specialized research laboratory that deals with potentially deadly infectious agents like Ebola would be designated as BSL-4—the highest and most stringent level. The Centers for Disease Cont...

 # Once bone is formed, it grows by:  A. Interstitial growth only B. Appositional growth only C. Both appositional and interstitial growth D. Degenerative changes into bony structures The correct answer is B. Appositional growth only. Which is growth by the addition of new layers on those previously formed. Bone formation begins in the embryo where mesenchymal cells differentiate into either fibrous membrane or cartilage.  This leads to two paths of bone development: 1. Intramembranous ossification is so called because it takes place in membranes of connective tissue. Osteoprogenitor cells in the membrane differentiate into osteoblasts: a collagen matrix is formed which undergoes ossification. Note: The maxilla and mandible as well as the cranial vault are forrmed this way. 2. Endochondral ossification is how the remainder of the skeleton forms and takes place within a hyaline cartilage model. Cartilage cells are replaced by bone cells (osteocytes replace chondrocytes), o...

 # The incisor overjet is increased for a  class II case that is undergoing treatment. The reason is:  A. Loss of anchorage B. Arch collapse C. Crowding in the lower arch D. None of the above The correct answer is A. Loss of anchorage. Following are the features of anchorage loss in class II cases: - Increase in overjet - Molar relation  becoming more class II - Normal canine relation without any change

 # Which of the following are typical and acceptable preventive and therapeutic measures for dealing with the periodontal problems during fixed appliance therapy?  A. Elimination of gingivitis prior to placing orthodontic appliances B. Home care instructions regarding the use of toothbrush and water pik during orthodontic treatment C. Megavitamin therapy D. Scaling and curettage immediately after appliance removal The correct answer is A. Elimination of gingivitis prior to placing orthodontic appliances. The mean value of visible plaque and visible inflammation showed significant increases during orthodontic treatment. Therefore, prior to orthodontic treatment, patients should have a high level of periodontal health and it should be maintained during the treatment period. Considering the relationship between orthodontic treatment and gingival health, patients, orthodontists and periodontists should cooperate during orthodontic treatment. Reference: Boke F, Gazioglu C...

 # FDA approved locally delivered minocycline for subgingival placement is marketed under trade name:  A. Periochip B. Atridox C. Arestin D. Elyzol The correct answer is C. Arestin. FDA has approved Arestin 2% Minocycline for subgingival placement as an adjunct to scaling and root planning. Periochip: Chlorhexidine chip placed in the pocket for local drug delivery.

 # The recommended concentration of acidulated phosphate (APF) fluoride gel is:  A. 2% B. 8% C. 1.23% D. 10% The correct answer is C. 1.23%. Brudevold's solution or APF solution is prepared by dissolving 20 gms of NaF in 1 Litre (2% NaF) of 0.1M phosphoric acid and to this 50% hydro fluoric acid is added to adjust the pH at 3.0 and fluoride ion concentration at 1.23% APF gel is prepared by adding gelling agents like methylcellulose and hydroxyl ethyl cellulose and the pH is adjusted between 4-5.

 # Duraphat is:  A. Lacquer B. Sodium Fluoride in varnish form C. Stannous Fluoride D. Sodium Fluoride 2% The correct answer is B. Sodium fluoride in varnish form. Duraphat 50 mg/mL Dental Suspension is to be applied by the dental professional and not for self medication by the patient. 1 mL suspension contains 50 mg sodium fluoride (5% w/v), equivalent to 22,600 ppm fluoride ion (22.6 mg of fluoride) in an alcoholic solution of natural resins. Recommended dosage for single application: For primary teeth: up to 0.25 mL (= 5.65 mg fluoride) For mixed dentition: up to 0.40 mL (= 9.04 mg fluoride) For permanent dentition: up to 0.75 mL (= 16.95 mg fluoride) For caries prevention: the application is usually repeated every 6 months but more frequent applications (every 3 months) may be made. For hypersensitivity: 2 or 3 applications should be made within a few days. The patient should not brush the teeth or chew food for 4 hours after treatment. Method of administration: For dental...

 # A malocclusion is characterized by protrusion of maxilla, labioversion of maxillary incisors deep overbite and overjet. These are typical characteristic of which malocclusion?  A. Class I B. Class II Div 1 C. Class II Div 2 D. Class III The correct answer is B. Class II Div 1. Class I Incisor Relationship Lower incisal edges occlude with or lie immediately below the cingulum plateau of the upper incisors. Class II Incisor Relationship The lower incisal edge lies posterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper incisors. Class II Division 1 Incisor Relationship : The upper central incisors are proclined or of average inclination. There is an increase in overjet. Class II Division 2 Incisor Relationship : The upper central incisors are retroclined. The overjet is usually minimal but may be increased. Class III Incisor Relationship: The lower incisal edges lies anterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper incisor.

 MECEE MDS 2024 RESULT Medical Education Commission Government of Nepal MEDICAL EDUCATION COMMISSION Directorate of Examination MEDICAL EDUCATION COMMON ENTRANCE EXAMINATION (PG 2024) ENTRANCE RESULT Wednesday, February 7, 2024 Program: Masters of Dental Surgery (MDS)  50th Percentile (Cut-off) Score: 71.25 SN ROLL NO FULL NAME FINAL SCORE RANK 1 31434 HIMAL DAHAL 132.5 1 2 31268 BISHAL CHAPAGAIN 128 2 3 31328 ROSHANI SUBEDI 125.75 3 4 31447 PRIYANKA DHAKAL 123 4 5 31438 MEGHA SHRIVASTVA 121.25 5 6 31485 SAMBRIDHI MATHEMA 120.5 6 7 31220 NIRAJAN BHANDARI 120.5 7 8 31056 KRISHNA DEV MAHATO 120.25 8 9 31413 RAMAN LAMA 119 9 10 31444 PRAVIN BHATTARAI 118.75 10 11 31402 ABHINAW SUBEDI 117.5 11 12 31528 PRATIMA KHADKA 117 12 13 31380 PRABESH BANSTOLA 116.25 13 14 31529 AASHISH KOIRALA 115.5 14 15 31197 VASKAR PRASAD PARAJULI 115 15 16 31354 ASMITA GYAWALI 113.25 16 17 31274 ROMIN SHRESTHA 112.5 17 18 31120 SUNAYAN SUBEDI 112.5 18 19 31192 MILAN KOIRALA 111.75 19 20 31490 SABHYATA P...

 # Length of junctional epithelium is: A. 0.25-1.35 mm B. 0.5-0.75 mm C. 1.0-2.0 mm D. 1.0-1.5 mm The correct answer is A. 0.25-1.35 mm. Junctional Epithelium: The epithelium that attaches the gingiva to the tooth's surface, it consists of stratified squamous non-keratinizing epithelium. It is 3-4 layers thick in early life but the number of layers increases with age to 10-20. It is thicker in the coronal portion but becomes thinner toward the cemento-enamel junction only a few cell layers. The length of the JE ranges from 0.25 to 1.35mm. 

 # Chronic atrophic candidiasis is commonly referred to as:  A. Oral Thrush B. Denture stomatitis C. Angular cheilitis D. Erythema multiforme The correct answer is B. Denture stomatitis. Denture stomatitis should be mentioned because it is often classified as a form of erythematous candidiasis, and some authors may use the term chronic atrophic candidiasis synonymously. This condition is characterized by varying degrees of erythema, sometimes accompanied by petechial hemorrhage, localized to the denture-bearing areas of a maxillary removable dental prosthesis.  Although the clinical appearance can be striking, the process is rarely symptomatic. Usually, the patient admits to wearing the denture continuously, removing it only periodically to clean it. Whether this represents actual infection by C. albicans or is simply a tissue response by the host to the various microorganisms living beneath the denture remains controversial.

 # Stress shielding effect is seen in:  A. Miniplates B. Compression bone plating C. Lag screw D. Transosseous wiring The correct answer is B. Compression bone plating. Stress shielding is the reduction in bone density (osteopenia) as a result of removal of typical stress from the bone by an implant. This is because by Wolff's law, bone in a healthy person or animal remodels in response to the loads it is placed under.  The most obvious postoperative complications of internal fixation using compression plates are misplaced bone segments or fixation devices. These complications are readily identified by clinical examination (e.g. malocclusion) or postoperative radiographic examinations. A second surgical procedure will correct such complications. Other complications related to rigid internal fixation include palpability, infection, extrusion or exposure, translocation, stress shielding, cortical osteopenia, and nonunion.