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Gangrene due to known infectious agent is:

 # Gangrene due to known infectious agent is:
 A. Wet gangrene
B. Dry gangrene
C. Pyoderma granulosum
D. Fournier gangrene


The correct answer is D. Fournier gangrene. 

Fournier gangrene, a relatively rare form of necrotizing fasciitis, is a rapidly progressive disease that affects the deep and superficial tissues of the perineal, anal, scrotal, and genital regions. Named after Dr. Alfred Fournier, the French dermatology and venereal specialist, it was initially described in 1883 as necrotizing fasciitis of the external genitalia, perineal, and perianal region in five of Dr. Fournier’s patients. Also known as necrotizing fasciitis, the disease involves the rapid spread of severe inflammatory and infectious processes along fascial planes affecting adjacent soft tissue; therefore, the disease may initially go unnoticed or unrecognized as there may be minimal or no skin manifestations in its early stages.

This disease process results from polymicrobial aerobic and anaerobic synergistic infection of the fascia and subcutaneous soft tissue. Gram-positive bacteria such as Group A Streptococci and Staphylococcus aureus and gram-negative bacteria such as E. Coli and Pseudomonas aeruginosa are organisms most commonly grown in wound cultures of Fournier gangrene patients as it is usually polymicrobial. These bacteria can be introduced through several sources, including urinary, bowel, or dermal. Urinary tract infections and other infectious processes of the perineum, such as perianal abscesses or even a simple pimple, may also provide a starting point for the infection. 

Surgical manipulation of the genital and perineal area similarly can provide the initial insult required to develop Fournier gangrene. Any traumatic insult or localized area of skin breakdown to the perineum or scrotum can lead to bacterial access to the subcutaneous tissues and begin the process, ultimately resulting in Fournier gangrene. About 25% of cases had no known or identifiable etiology.

No comments:

Biosafety level 4 (BSL-4) pathogen is:

 # Biosafety level 4 (BSL-4) pathogen is:
 A. XDR strain of Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. SARS CoV-2
C. Ebola
D. Measles


The correct answer is C. Ebola.

Biological Safety Levels (BSL) are a series of protections relegated to the activities that take place in particular biological labs. They are individual safeguards designed to protect laboratory personnel, as well as the surrounding environment and community.

These levels, which are ranked from one to four, are selected based on the agents or organisms that are being researched or worked on in any given laboratory setting. For example, a basic lab setting specializing in the research of nonlethal agents that pose a minimal potential threat to lab workers and the environment are generally considered BSL-1—the lowest biosafety lab level. A specialized research laboratory that deals with potentially deadly infectious agents like Ebola would be designated as BSL-4—the highest and most stringent level.

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) sets BSL lab levels as a way of exhibiting specific controls for the containment of microbes and biological agents. Each BSL lab level builds upon on the previous level—thereby creating layer upon layer of constraints and barriers. These lab levels are determined by the following:
  • Risks related to containment
  • Severity of infection
  • Transmissibility
  • Nature of the work conducted
  • Origin of the microbe
  • Agent in question
  • Route of exposure
 Summary of Biological Agents and BSL levels


No comments:

Once bone is formed, it grows by:

 # Once bone is formed, it grows by:
 A. Interstitial growth only
B. Appositional growth only
C. Both appositional and interstitial growth
D. Degenerative changes into bony structures


The correct answer is B. Appositional growth only.

Which is growth by the addition of new layers on those previously formed. Bone formation begins in the embryo where mesenchymal cells differentiate into either fibrous membrane or cartilage. 

This leads to two paths of bone development:
1. Intramembranous ossification is so called because it takes place in membranes of connective tissue. Osteoprogenitor cells in the membrane differentiate into osteoblasts: a collagen matrix is formed which undergoes ossification. Note: The maxilla and mandible as well as the cranial vault are forrmed this way.

2. Endochondral ossification is how the remainder of the skeleton forms and takes place within a hyaline cartilage model. Cartilage cells are replaced by bone cells (osteocytes replace chondrocytes), organic matrix is laid down and calcium and phosphate are deposited. This type of ossification is principally responsible for the formation of short and long bones. Note: The ethmoid, sphenoid, and occipital bones (bones of the cranial base) form this way.

No comments:

The incisor overjet is increased for a class II case that is undergoing treatment. The reason is:

 # The incisor overjet is increased for a  class II case that is undergoing treatment. The reason is:
 A. Loss of anchorage
B. Arch collapse
C. Crowding in the lower arch
D. None of the above


The correct answer is A. Loss of anchorage.

Following are the features of anchorage loss in class II cases:
- Increase in overjet
- Molar relation  becoming more class II
- Normal canine relation without any change
No comments:

Which of the following are typical and acceptable preventive and therapeutic measures for dealing with the periodontal problems during fixed appliance therapy?

 # Which of the following are typical and acceptable preventive and therapeutic measures for dealing with the periodontal problems during fixed appliance therapy?
 A. Elimination of gingivitis prior to placing orthodontic appliances
B. Home care instructions regarding the use of toothbrush and water pik during orthodontic treatment
C. Megavitamin therapy
D. Scaling and curettage immediately after appliance removal



The correct answer is A. Elimination of gingivitis prior to placing orthodontic appliances.


The mean value of visible plaque and visible inflammation showed significant increases during orthodontic treatment. Therefore, prior to orthodontic treatment, patients should have a high level of periodontal health and it should be maintained during the treatment period. Considering the relationship between orthodontic treatment and gingival health, patients, orthodontists and periodontists should cooperate during orthodontic treatment.

Reference: Boke F, Gazioglu C, Akkaya S, Akkaya M. Relationship between orthodontic treatment and gingival health: A retrospective study. Eur J Dent. 2014;8(3):373-380. doi:10.4103/1305-7456.137651

2 comments:

FDA approved locally delivered minocycline for subgingival placement is marketed under trade name:

 # FDA approved locally delivered minocycline for subgingival placement is marketed under trade name:
 A. Periochip
B. Atridox
C. Arestin
D. Elyzol


The correct answer is C. Arestin.

FDA has approved Arestin 2% Minocycline for subgingival placement as an adjunct to scaling and root planning.

Periochip: Chlorhexidine chip placed in the pocket for local drug delivery.


No comments:

The recommended concentration of acidulated phosphate (APF) fluoride gel is:

 # The recommended concentration of acidulated phosphate (APF) fluoride gel is:
 A. 2%
B. 8%
C. 1.23%
D. 10%


The correct answer is C. 1.23%.

Brudevold's solution or APF solution is prepared by dissolving 20 gms of NaF in 1 Litre (2% NaF) of 0.1M phosphoric acid and to this 50% hydro fluoric acid is added to adjust the pH at 3.0 and fluoride ion concentration at 1.23% APF gel is prepared by adding gelling agents like methylcellulose and hydroxyl ethyl cellulose and the pH is adjusted between 4-5.
No comments:

Duraphat is:

 # Duraphat is:
 A. Lacquer
B. Sodium Fluoride in varnish form
C. Stannous Fluoride
D. Sodium Fluoride 2%


The correct answer is B. Sodium fluoride in varnish form.

Duraphat 50 mg/mL Dental Suspension is to be applied by the dental professional and not for self medication by the patient. 1 mL suspension contains 50 mg sodium fluoride (5% w/v), equivalent to 22,600 ppm fluoride ion (22.6 mg of fluoride) in an alcoholic solution of natural resins.

Recommended dosage for single application:
For primary teeth: up to 0.25 mL (= 5.65 mg fluoride)
For mixed dentition: up to 0.40 mL (= 9.04 mg fluoride)
For permanent dentition: up to 0.75 mL (= 16.95 mg fluoride)
For caries prevention: the application is usually repeated every 6 months but more frequent
applications (every 3 months) may be made.
For hypersensitivity: 2 or 3 applications should be made within a few days.
The patient should not brush the teeth or chew food for 4 hours after treatment.
Method of administration: For dental use.

Contraindications
  • Hypersensitivity to any ingredients of Duraphat.
  • Ulcerative gingivitis.
  • Stomatitis.
  • Bronchial asthma.

Special warnings and precautions for use
Application of Duraphat 50 mg/mL Dental Suspension to the whole dentition should not be carried out on an empty stomach. On the day when Duraphat has been applied, no high dose fluoride preparations, such as fluoride gels, should be used. The administration of fluoride supplements should be suspended for several days after applying Duraphat. Prolonged daily ingestion of excessive fluoride may result in varying degrees of fluorosis.

Interaction with other medicines and other forms of interaction
The presence of alcohol (33.8% v/v) in the Duraphat formula should be considered.

Fertility, pregnancy and lactation
As this product contains 33.8% v/v of ethanol (each dose contains up to 0.2 g of alcohol), it is recommended to avoid its use in pregnant women and during lactation.

Undesirable effects
Gastrointestinal disorders: Very rare (<1/10,000): Stomatitis, gingivitis ulcerative, retching, oedema mouth and nausea may occur in sensitive (allergic) individuals
- if necessary, the dental suspension layer can easily be removed from the mouth by brushing and rinsing.
Skin and subcutaneous tissue disorders: Very rare (<1/10,000): Irritation in sensitive individuals, angioedema
Immune System Disorders: Not known (cannot be estimated from the available data)

Hypersensitivity. Respiratory, thoracic and mediastinal disorders: Very rare/Isolated report (<1/10,000): Asthma

Overdose: Accidental ingestion of large amounts of fluoride may result in acute burning in the mouth and sore tongue. Nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea may soon occur after ingestion (within 30 minutes) and are accompanied by salivation, haematemesis, and epigastric cramping abdominal pain. These symptoms may persist for 24 hours. If less than 5 mg fluoride/kg body weight has been ingested, give calcium (eg milk) orally to relieve gastrointestinal symptoms and observe for medical assistance. For accidental ingestion of more than 15 mg fluoride/kg body weight, admit immediately to a hospital facility. 
No comments:

A malocclusion is characterized by protrusion of maxilla, labioversion of maxillary incisors deep overbite and overjet. These are typical characteristic of which malocclusion?

 # A malocclusion is characterized by protrusion of maxilla, labioversion of maxillary incisors deep overbite and overjet. These are typical characteristic of which malocclusion?
 A. Class I
B. Class II Div 1
C. Class II Div 2
D. Class III


The correct answer is B. Class II Div 1.

Class I Incisor Relationship
Lower incisal edges occlude with or lie immediately below the cingulum plateau of the upper incisors.

Class II Incisor Relationship
The lower incisal edge lies posterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper incisors.

Class II Division 1 Incisor Relationship : The upper central incisors are proclined or of average inclination. There is an increase in overjet.

Class II Division 2 Incisor Relationship : The upper central incisors are retroclined. The overjet is usually minimal but may be increased.

Class III Incisor Relationship: The lower incisal edges lies anterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper incisor.
No comments:

MECEE MDS 2024 RESULT Medical Education Commission

 MECEE MDS 2024 RESULT Medical Education Commission

Government of Nepal
MEDICAL EDUCATION COMMISSION
Directorate of Examination
MEDICAL EDUCATION COMMON ENTRANCE EXAMINATION (PG 2024)
ENTRANCE RESULT Wednesday, February 7, 2024

Program: Masters of Dental Surgery (MDS)  50th Percentile (Cut-off) Score: 71.25

SN ROLL NO FULL NAME FINAL SCORE RANK
1 31434 HIMAL DAHAL 132.5 1
2 31268 BISHAL CHAPAGAIN 128 2
3 31328 ROSHANI SUBEDI 125.75 3
4 31447 PRIYANKA DHAKAL 123 4
5 31438 MEGHA SHRIVASTVA 121.25 5
6 31485 SAMBRIDHI MATHEMA 120.5 6
7 31220 NIRAJAN BHANDARI 120.5 7
8 31056 KRISHNA DEV MAHATO 120.25 8
9 31413 RAMAN LAMA 119 9
10 31444 PRAVIN BHATTARAI 118.75 10
11 31402 ABHINAW SUBEDI 117.5 11
12 31528 PRATIMA KHADKA 117 12
13 31380 PRABESH BANSTOLA 116.25 13
14 31529 AASHISH KOIRALA 115.5 14
15 31197 VASKAR PRASAD PARAJULI 115 15
16 31354 ASMITA GYAWALI 113.25 16
17 31274 ROMIN SHRESTHA 112.5 17
18 31120 SUNAYAN SUBEDI 112.5 18
19 31192 MILAN KOIRALA 111.75 19
20 31490 SABHYATA PAUDEL 111.75 20
21 31470 ASMINA CHHETRI 111.25 21
22 31147 MINU MISHRA 111.25 22
23 31249 BHESH RAJ PARAJULI 110 23
24 31480 SAMIKSHA SHARMA 109.75 24
25 31180 RAJU PANDEY 109.25 25
26 31346 SUSMITA SHRESTHA 108.75 26
27 31323 RITESH THAPA 108.75 27

SN ROLL NO FULL NAME FINAL SCORE RANK
28 31062 PRIYANKA ROY 108.75 28
29 31125 TRIPURARI SHUKLA 108.5 29
30 31216 RIYA GUPTA 108 30
31 31365 PRAKRITI BASUKALA 108 31
32 31241 AYUSH GURAGAIN 107.75 32
33 31395 ELIJMA RANJIT 107.5 33
34 31494 ASMITA PARAJULI 107.5 34
35 31435 KISHOR SUBEDI 107 35
36 31079 SARANGA GHIMIRE 107 36
37 31068 SADICHHYA BAJRACHARYA 106.5 37
38 31133 SHOVA SAPKOTA 105.75 38
39 31526 DHARMA PRATAP BHARKHER 105.5 39
40 31390 DIPTI SHRESTHA 104.75 40
41 31181 BISHOW DEEP POUDEL 104.5 41
42 31057 NIROJ CHAUDHARY 104.5 42
43 31414 KRIPA LAMICHHANE 104.25 43
44 31031 KIRAN THAKUR 103.75 44
45 31355 LAXMI PARAJULI 103.75 45
46 31183 USHA SAPKOTA 103.75 46
47 31410 KAJAL MEHTA 103.75 47
48 31185 BIPLAV KUMAR CHAUDHARY 103.5 48
49 31460 SRISTI ADHIKARI 103.25 49
50 31399 RAKSHYA KC 103 50
51 31237 SANJITA PANDEY 103 51
52 31455 SNEHA SAPKOTA 102.5 52
53 31451 ROSHAN KUMAR YADAV 102.25 53
54 31030 JITENDRA RAY YADAV 101.75 54

SN ROLL NO FULL NAME FINAL SCORE RANK
55 31273 UJWAL MEHTA 101.75 55
56 31474 ICHHYA PRADHAN 101.5 56
57 31456 SUBANI PAUDEL 101.25 57
58 31143 NITESH ADHIKARI 101.25 58
59 31430 RICHA YADAV 100.75 59
60 31172 MELINA MULMI 100 60
61 31263 REETU SHARMA 99.75 61
62 31376 PRAKRITEE LIMBU 99.75 62
63 31433 DOLLY AGRAWAL 99.25 63
64 31525 BINAY KUMAR YADAV 99.25 64
65 31285 ASHRU SHRESTHA 99 65
66 31035 GYANENDRA SHARMA 98.75 66
67 31214 PARIKSIT TIMILSINA 98.5 67
68 31160 PRAKASH POUDYAL 97.75 68
69 31527 PUSHPA LAL SHAH 97.5 69
70 31338 UJJWAL SHRESTHA 97 70
71 31271 KUSUM K.C. 97 71
72 31397 ANIL KUMAR 96.75 72
73 31491 RENU MEHTA 96.5 73
74 31467 KERISHNA KANSAKAR 96.25 74
75 31221 SAROJ MAHARJAN 96.25 75
76 31092 BIBEK SUNAR 95.25 76
77 31209 PRIKSHA KHANAL 95 77
78 31176 JYOTI KHAREL 95 78
79 31389 PRAKASH SUWAL 95 79
80 31109 SRIJANA JAIRU 94.75 80
81 31530 SLESHA GURUNG 94.75 81
SN ROLL NO FULL NAME FINAL SCORE RANK
82 31211 SMRITI CHAUDHARY 94.75 82
83 31496 ANAMOL DUMARU 94.5 83
84 31315 SUMAN PUDASAINI 94 84
85 31327 RAKSHAK MANANDHAR 93.75 85
86 31052 RAJ KUMAR SHRESTHA 93.75 86
87 31006 AJIT KUMAR YADAV 93.75 87
88 31275 PRIYANKA SHAH 93.75 88
89 31326 SUBASH MEHTA 93.5 89
90 31303 REBIKA SHRESTHA 93.25 90
91 31359 RITI GUPTA 93 91
92 31409 SAGAR PARIYAR 92.5 92
93 31477 PRAKRITI KAFLE 92.5 93
94 31110 MANISH KUMAR DEV 92 94
95 31311 SAUJANYA PANT 92 95
96 31093 BIMAL POUDEL 91.75 96
97 31314 SABYA MANANDHAR 91.75 97
98 31381 SABIN GWACHHA 91.75 98
99 31046 SUNITA PUN 91.75 99
100 31305 DIVYA JHA 91.5 100
101 31505 KRITISHA ACHARYA 91.25 101
102 31324 SUSHANT KUMAR THAKUR 91.25 102
103 31367 SURESH DAHAL 91.25 103
104 31281 ASMITA KUMARI SAH 91 104
105 31158 AKASH NHEMAPHUKI 91 105
106 31145 PINKY AGRAWAL 90.75 106
107 31335 MANISHA KHARBUJA 90.75 107
108 31522 RAJMEE SHRESTHA 90.75 108

SN ROLL NO FULL NAME FINAL SCORE RANK
109 31516 INCHUNA BARAL 90.5 109
110 31146 PABITRA REGMI 90.5 110
111 31306 REGINA DAHAIT 89.75 111
112 31067 ELINA SHRESTHA 89.75 112
113 31207 AISHWARYA JOSHI 89.25 113
114 31471 SRISHTI POUDEL 89.25 114
115 31195 SRIJA JOSHI 89.25 115
116 31426 RIJU SHRESTHA 89 116
117 31144 BENUJA BHANDARI 89 117
118 31104 NITU CHAUDHARY 89 118
119 31074 SAMJHANA GAUTAM 88.75 119
120 31234 ANUJA RUWALI 88.75 120
121 31009 PRANAV KUMAR JHA 88.75 121
122 31497 BISHEK DAHAL 88.5 122
123 31362 KRITI SHRESTHA 88.5 123
124 31071 ROSHAN KUMAR SHAH 88.5 124
125 31349 ANUKA DANGOL 88.25 125
126 31422 SIDDHARTHA SHAKYA 88.25 126
127 31012 PALLAVA KUMAR UPADHAYAYA 88.25 127
128 31464 SHIKHA ADHIKARI 88.25 128
129 31429 ASMITA BHATTARAI 87.5 129
130 31204 RABINA CHAUDHARY THARU 87.25 130
131 31396 ANU PARAJULI 87.25 131
132 31400 SUSHMITA CHHETRI 87 132
133 31345 SRISTI NAPIT 86.75 133
134 31233 RADHA SHAH 86.5 134
135 31022 RIJA MANANDHAR 86.5 135
SN ROLL NO FULL NAME FINAL SCORE RANK
136 31073 AAKRITI JHA 86.5 136
137 31507 SUJANA THAPA 86.25 137
138 31416 BAMINA MAHARJAN 86.25 138
139 31217 SUBHEKSHYA GYAWALI 85.5 139
140 31436 RAMITA LAMA 85.5 140
141 31357 SHRISTI GAUTAM 85.25 141
142 31091 APPU YADAV 85 142
143 31026 SANJAYA PANDEY 85 143
144 31111 ASMITA KUMARI BHANDARI 84.75 144
145 31025 AMRITA KUMARI YADAV 84.75 145
146 31283 RADHA JAISWAL 83.75 146
147 31521 SANJU PANDIT 83.25 147
148 31128 BINAYA BHANDARI 82.75 148
149 31475 ANISHA KHADKA 82.5 149
150 31517 PRAKRITI SHARMA 82.5 150
151 31301 PAYAL JHA 82.5 151
152 31224 RASHILA MANANDHAR 82.5 152
153 31510 ASMITA KATUWAL CHHETRI 82.5 153
154 31325 BIMALA KHATRI 82.5 154
155 31280 SADIKSHA GAUTAM 82 155
156 31378 SUJAN TIMSINA 82 156
157 31299 PRAMILA KHANAL 81.5 157
158 31193 ARABINDA SHRESTHA 81.5 158
159 31236 DURGA PANTHA 81 159
160 31107 ASHWIN KUMAR GUPTA 81 160
161 31123 SARITA KUMARI YADAV 80.75 161
162 31288 SAMPADA POKHREL 80.75 162
SN ROLL NO FULL NAME FINAL SCORE RANK
163 31219 MONICA JHA 80.5 163
164 31350 ANUP OJHA 80.5 164
165 31502 KRISHA SUWAL 80.5 165
166 31452 ASTHA RAJBHANDARI 80.25 166
167 31450 DIPAK RAUT 80.25 167
168 31164 SAHIRA RAJBHANDARI 80.25 168
169 31203 ROMARIYA MAHARJAN 80.25 169
170 31113 PRATIMA PATHAK 80.25 170
171 31514 PRAKRITI RUPAKHETY 80 171
172 31302 PUJA BHAGAT 80 172
173 31166 SHEKHAR KUMAR MANDAL 79.75 173
174 31230 SONU THAPA MAGAR 79.5 174
175 31334 SONAM MISHRA 79.5 175
176 31262 PRANISHA BHANDARI 79.25 176
177 31394 MANIKA SHRESTHA 79 177
178 31238 KRISTINA SAPKOTA 79 178
179 31053 DEEPENDRA POKHAREL 79 179
180 31351 AGYA TIMSINA 78.75 180
181 31267 TANUJA G.C. 78.5 181
182 31235 MANOJ SHRESTHA 78.25 182
183 31072 RAVI RANJIT SHAH 78.25 183
184 31342 POONAM SHRESTHA 78.25 184
185 31033 AVINESH SHRESTHA 78.25 185
186 31332 RACHITA BHATTARAI 78.25 186
187 31518 ASMITA PAUDYAL 78 187
188 31190 RANJANA SHAH 78 188
189 31353 ROJINA POUDEL 78 189
SN ROLL NO FULL NAME FINAL SCORE RANK
190 31244 AATISH PANGENI 77.75 190
191 31403 REKHA YADAV 77.75 191
192 31382 PRERANA ARYAL 77.5 192
193 31284 SABINA KARKI 77.5 193
194 31425 ANISHA SHRESTHA 77.5 194
195 31375 PRIYA BAJRACHARYA 77.5 195
196 31431 AYUSHI ADHIKARI 77.25 196
197 31377 SMRITI PANDIT 77 197
198 31508 RANJANA KHANAL 76.75 198
199 31503 KAJAL THAKUR 76.75 199
200 31228 PUNAM RAI 76.75 200
201 31242 ASTHA UPADHYAYA 76.5 201
202 31050 RANJANA SHAH 76.25 202
203 31229 ANUPA TIWARI 76.25 203
204 31511 SAYANA ACHARYA 76.25 204
205 31369 DILASHMA THAPA 76.25 205
206 31366 BIRAT THAPA 76 206
207 31515 SUNIRA KARKI 76 207
208 31487 SUSMITA ADHIKARI 76 208
209 31095 VIJAY RAI 76 209
210 31463 PRATIMA PANTA 75.75 210
211 31252 SAGAR PANTHI 75.75 211
212 31440 SIMPHONI SHRESTHA 75.75 212
213 31005 SARITA SHAH 75.75 213
214 31188 SUSMITA THAPA 75.5 214
215 31404 KIRTI KUMARI WASTI 75.25 215
216 31358 SIMA KUMARI VERMA 75.25 216
SN ROLL NO FULL NAME FINAL SCORE RANK
217 31100 BHUWAN CHAUHAN 75 217
218 31446 SWORUPA WAGLE 75 218
219 31013 SITA KUMARI DAS 75 219
220 31476 RADHA MANDAL 75 220
221 31361 PRAMISHA KARKI 75 221
222 31388 SANDEEP DHOJU 75 222
223 31202 PREETI SHAH 75 223
224 31401 SALINA MAHARJAN 75 224
225 31078 DINESH KUMAR SHRESTHA 74.5 225
226 31298 MANISHA MEHTA 74.5 226
227 31173 PAMI KARNA 74.5 227
228 31162 SUSHIL POKHAREL 74.25 228
229 31265 PRAGYA TULSI 74.25 229
230 31290 SRISHTI POKHREL 74.25 230
231 31500 MANITA SITAULA 74.25 231
232 31254 ARZOO KHATRI 74 232
233 31523 UDIKSHYA MAHARJAN 74 233
234 31008 AJAY KUMAR ROY AMATYA 74 234
235 31223 NEHA SHAH 73.75 235
236 31150 SHIVANI BHANDARI 73.75 236
237 31154 MILAN RAI 73.75 237
238 31509 LAXMI KARKI 73.75 238
239 31347 ASMINA SHRESTHA 73.5 239
240 31119 BIMAL CHAND 73 240
241 31519 SANGITA PANTHI 73 241
242 31124 ROJEENA ADHIKARI 73 242
243 31139 NIROJ CHHETRI 73 243
SN ROLL NO FULL NAME FINAL SCORE RANK
244 31106 MONA BASNET 72.75 244
245 31077 MADHU SUDAN SHARMA 72.75 245
246 31393 MELINA SURYABANSHI 72.5 246
247 31090 PAWAN KUMAR GUPTA 72.5 247
248 31034 SANJIV PRASAI 72.5 248
249 31392 SUSMITA TIMILSINA 72.25 249
250 31304 JAY PRAKASH YADAV 72.25 250
251 31089 SAGAR REGMI 72 251
252 31058 RAZIYA MIYA 71.75 252
253 31473 NISCHALA CHAULAGAIN 71.5 253
254 31075 ANANDA JYOTI OLI 71.5 254
255 31226 JYOTI MAHATO 71.25 255
256 31448 PINKY JHANG 71.25 256
257 31182 AAYUSHA THAPA 71.25 257
258 31086 BIMAL DEO 71.25 258
259 31445 SHRESTA GHIMIRE 71.25 259
260 31189 SANDHYA ADHIKARI NEUPANE 71.25 260







No comments:

Length of junctional epithelium is:

 # Length of junctional epithelium is:
A. 0.25-1.35 mm
B. 0.5-0.75 mm
C. 1.0-2.0 mm
D. 1.0-1.5 mm


The correct answer is A. 0.25-1.35 mm.

Junctional Epithelium: The epithelium that attaches the gingiva to the tooth's surface, it consists of stratified squamous non-keratinizing epithelium. It is 3-4 layers thick in early life but the number of
layers increases with age to 10-20. It is thicker in the coronal portion but becomes thinner toward the cemento-enamel junction only a few cell layers. The length of the JE ranges from 0.25 to 1.35mm. 
No comments:

Chronic atrophic candidiasis is commonly referred to as:

 # Chronic atrophic candidiasis is commonly referred to as:
 A. Oral Thrush
B. Denture stomatitis
C. Angular cheilitis
D. Erythema multiforme


The correct answer is B. Denture stomatitis.

Denture stomatitis should be mentioned because it is often classified as a form of erythematous candidiasis, and some authors may use the term chronic atrophic candidiasis synonymously. This condition is characterized by varying degrees of erythema, sometimes accompanied by petechial
hemorrhage, localized to the denture-bearing areas of a maxillary removable dental prosthesis. 

Although the clinical appearance can be striking, the process is rarely symptomatic. Usually, the patient admits to wearing the denture continuously, removing it only periodically to clean it. Whether this represents actual infection by C. albicans or is simply a tissue response by the host to the various microorganisms living beneath the denture remains controversial.
No comments:

Stress shielding effect is seen in:

 # Stress shielding effect is seen in:
 A. Miniplates
B. Compression bone plating
C. Lag screw
D. Transosseous wiring


The correct answer is B. Compression bone plating.

Stress shielding is the reduction in bone density (osteopenia) as a result of removal of typical stress from the bone by an implant. This is because by Wolff's law, bone in a healthy person or animal remodels in response to the loads it is placed under. 

The most obvious postoperative complications of internal fixation using compression plates are misplaced bone segments or fixation devices. These complications are readily identified by clinical examination (e.g. malocclusion) or postoperative radiographic examinations. A second surgical procedure will correct such complications. Other complications related to rigid internal fixation include palpability, infection, extrusion or exposure, translocation, stress shielding, cortical osteopenia, and nonunion.



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