Dentosphere : World of Dentistry

# The commonest teeth involved in transposition are: a) Maxillary central incisor and lateral incisor b) Maxillary canine and first premolar c) Maxillary 1st premolar and 2nd premolar d) Maxillary canine and Lateral incisor    The correct answer is B. Maxillary canine and first premolar.  Canine-first premolar transposition is the most common  transposition. 21.  Canine-lateral incisor is the second most common transposition.  Transposition is never seen in primary dentition.  CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQs

# The average "Leeway space" available in each half of the maxilla is approximately: a) 0.9 mm b) 4.0 mm c) 2.9 mm d) 6.9 mm  The correct answer is A. 0.9 mm. The combined mesiodistal width of the permanent canines and premolars is usually less than that of deciduous canines and molars and this difference is known as Leeway Space of Nance. This space is used by the permanent lower molars during late mesial shift from end-on occlusion to class-I relation. The amount ot leeway space is about 1.8 mm (0.9 mm on each side of arch) in maxillary arch and about 3.4 mm in mandibular arch (1. 7 mm on each side of arch).  CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQs

# Ugly duckling stage affects: a) Maxillary anterior teeth b) Mandibular anterior teeth c) Both Maxillary and mandibular teeth d) Cause decrease in vertical height  The correct answer is A. Maxillary anterior teeth.  Ugly duckling stage is seen in maxillary central incisor region between 8 -9 years of age. This condition is seen during eruption of permanent canines. The developing canines displaces the roots of central and lateral incisors mesially and causes distal divergence of the crowns of the central incisors resulting in midline diastema.  This type of malocclusion is not seen in lower arch because lower anteriors erupt almost simultaneously. Also, the path of eruption of mandibular canine is different from that of maxillary canines. CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQs

# Canine placed anterior to the orbital plane: a) Protraction b) Abstraction c) Attraction d) Expansion The correct answer is A. Protraction. CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQs

# An ANB angle 2 ° on the cephalogram usually indicates: a) An unfavorable relationship of mandible to maxilla b) A favorable relationship of maxillary alveolar base to mandibular alveolar base c) Poor cranial growth with poor prognosis d) Retruded maxillary incisor The Correct answer is B. A favorable relationship of maxillary alveolar base to mandibular alveolar base. SNA angle relates maxilla to the cranial base. The mean value is 82°. A Larger value indicates prognathic maxilla while a smaller value is suggestive of retrognathic maxilla. SNB angle relates mandible to cranial base. Its average value is 80°. Larger values indicate prognathic mandible while smaller values indicates retrusive mandible. AN B angle denotes the relative position of maxilla and mandible to each other. Mean value is 2° . An increase in this angle indicates class-II skeletal tendency while an angle that is Less than normal or a negative angle is suggestive of a skeletal classIII ...

# Frankfort's horizontal plane is formed by joining: a) Porion and Orbitale c) Porion and sella b) Nasion and se lla d) Porion and Nasion The correct answer is A. Porion and Orbitale. FHP or Frankfort horizontal plane =  Formed by joining Porion and orbitale SN plane or anterior cranial base = Formed by joining nasion and sella Cranial base length = Nasion and Bolton line Upper facial height = Nasion to ANS (anterior nasal spine) Lower facial height = ANS to menton Total facial height = Nasion to menton CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQs.

# Prolonged retention of primary tooth may lead to a) Altered path of permanent tooth eruption b) Root resorption of adjacent tooth c) Ankylosis of permanent tooth d) Warping of roots of adjacent teeth The correct answer is A. Altered path of permanent tooth eruption. CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQs.

# In a patient with competent lips together at rest, the lip line is opposite the tips of the upper incisors. The lip line is then described as: a) Average b) High c) Incomplete d) Low # Following are "essential diagnostic criteria" according to Graber except: a) Case history b) Facial photographs c) Periapical x-rays d) Lateral cephalograms # Incompetent lips refer to: a) Inability of the Lips to cover the incisors in the mandibular relaxed position b) Inability of the lips to cover the incisors in occlusion c) The lips come in between the upper and lower incisors d) Tongue thrusts against the lips during swallowing # Mentalis muscle contraction causes the lower lip to: a) Retrude b) Protrude c) Inversion d) Eversion # Transposition of teeth refers to: a) Bucco rotation of 120° b) Hypodontia c) Teeth erupted in unusual position i.e, one tooth erupts in place of another d) Inverted supernumerary teeth # Carpel radiograph is used for assessment of...

# Predominant bacteria found in two days old plaque is: A. Streptococci B. Bacteroides C. Spirochetes D. Actinomyces The correct answer is: A. Streptococci.  - Plaque can be defined as a complex microbial community, with greater than 10^10 bacteria per milligram.  - The formation of pellicle is the first step in plaque formation. - "Primary colonizers" : The pellicle coated tooth surface is colonized by Gram- Positive aerobic cocci bacteria such as Streptococcus sanguis, Streptococcus mutans, and Actinomyces viscous.  - Secondary colonizers: After 1 to 3 days, the secondary colonizers are gram negative anerobic rods and filaments that include Fusobacterium nucleatum, Prevotella intermedia, and Capnocytophaga species.  Tertiary colonizers: After one week of plaque accumulation, other gram negative species may also be present in plaque. They include Porphyromonas gingivalis, Campylobacter rectus, Eikenella corrodens, Actinobacillus actinomycet...

# Storiform pattern of fibrous tissue is seen in: a. Fibrosarcoma b. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma c. Neurofibroma d. Ameloblastic fibroma The correct answer is: B. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma. MALIGNANT FIBROUS HISTIOCYTOMAS - are group of aggressive malignant neoplasms, arising from undifferentiated mesenchymal cells that differentiate along both fibroblastic and histiocyte pathways. - Histologically the neoplasm reveals actively proliferating, numerous polyhedral or oval shaped, malignant histiocytes and many spindle shaped malignant fibrous cells. - These malignant cells are often arranged in a typical "Cart-wheel" or "Storiform" pattern or Criss cross. - Fibrous histiocytoma: Storiform pattern (helicopter in wheat field) is seen. CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQS.

# The oral drive theory to explain thumb sucking habit was given by: a) Benjamin b) Sears and wise c) Sigmund Freud d) Scheldon The correct answer is B. Sears and Wise. According to ORAL DRIVE THEORY OF SEARS AND WISE, prolonged suckling lead to thumb sucking. BENJAMIN'S TH EORY states that thumb sucking arises from the rooting or placing reflex. Rooting reflex is the movement of infant's head and tongue towards an object touching his cheek. The rooting reflex disappears in normal infants around 7-8 months of age. According to SIGMOND FREUDIAN THEORY, in the oral phase of psychologic development, the mouth is believed to be an oro-erotic zone. The child has the tendency to place fingers or any other object into the oral cavity. ORAL GRATIFICATION THEORY BY SHELDON states that if a child is not satisfied with sucking during the feeding period it will persist as a symptom of an emotional disturbance by digit sucking. CLICK HERE TO PRACTICE MORE M...

# The gonial angle at birth is? a) 110° b) 115° c) 175° d) 145° The correct answer is D. 145 degrees.  The mandibular or gonial angle during perinatal period ranges from 135° to 150°; however, soon after birth, it decreases to 130° to 140°. In adult mandible, the gonial angle measures between 110° to 120°. Studies have also indicated that the angle value of females is 3-5° greater than that of males. CLICK HERE TO PRACTICE MORE MCQs.

# Maxilla develops by: a) Endochondral bone formation b) Intra membranous bone formation c) Cartilage replacement and intra membranous bone formation d) Mostly cartilage replacement and a little by intra membranous The correct answer is B. Intra membranous bone formation. In endochondral type, the bone formation is preceded by formation of cartilaginous model, which is replaced by bone. Eg: Ethmoid bone, Hyoid, Incus, Stapes. In intramembranous type, the formation of bone is not preceded by formation ot cartilaginous model. Instead bone is laid directly in a fibrous membrane. Eg: Maxilla , nasal bones, parietals, zygoma, vomer, lacrimal, zygomatic.  Both intramembranous and endochondral ossification is seen in -occipital, temporal, sphenoid bones. CLICK HERE TO PRACTICE MORE MCQs.

# Father of modern orthodontics is: a) Dewey b) Angle c) Andrew d) Clark  The correct answer is B. Angle.  Many inventors have significantly contributed to the fascinating science of orthodontics. The person given the most credit for pioneering modern orthodontics is Dr Edward H Angle, who is rightly honored as the “Father of Modern Orthodontics.” Publication of Angle’s classification system of malocclusion in 1899 marked a turning point in the history of orthodontics, paving way to establishment of the oldest specialty of dentistry. CLICK HERE TO PRACTICE MORE MCQs.

# Which among the following shows pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia? a) Squamous cell carcinoma b) Basal cell carcinoma c) Verrucous carcinoma d) Granular cell myoblastoma The correct answer is D. Granular cell myoblastoma. Granular cell myoblastoma is a benign tumor of muscle tissue origin, most commonly involving tongue. The epithelium exhibits pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia because of which it is confused with epidermoid carcinoma. NOTE: Pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia is also seen in: • Granular cell myoblastoma • Blastomycosis • Papillary hyperplasia • DLE (Discoid lupus erythematosus) CLICK HERE TO PRACTICE MORE MCQs.

# Increased incidence of carcinoma is observed with: a) Homogenous leukoplakia b) Verrucous leukoplakia c) Nodular leukoplakia d) None of the above The correct answer is C. Nodular Leukoplakia. Clinically, Leukoplakia is of three types: A. Homogenous B. Speckled or Nodular C. Proliferative verrucous leukoplakia (PVL) A. Homogenous • Appears as translucent white, raised area. • It is non-palpable i.e., same as surrounding mucous membrane. • Differential diagnosis is hyperplastic lichen planus. B. Speckled or Nodular  • Raised from surface with red and white areas. • Mostly seen at the angle of mouth and commissures of lips in chronic smokers. • Indurations, fissuring and ulcer formation is seen • The epithelial dysplasia is more common and has more tendency for malignancy. C. Proliferative verrucous leukoplakia (PVL)  • First described by Hansen and is associated with a high risk of progression to squamous cell carcinoma. • May be associated with hu...

# Elephantiasis neuromatosa is a feature of: a) Von Recklinghausen's disease b) Neurilemmoma c) Paraganglioma d) Multiple endocrine neoplasia syndrome The correct answer is A. Von Recklinghausen's disease. Two distinct variants of Elephant man syndrome or von Recklinghausen's neurofibromatosis are known. Type 1 which is often associated with oral lesions and neurofibromatosis 2 (bilateral acoustic neurofibromatosis) is less common and is less frequently associated with obvious peripheral neurofibromatosis or oral lesions. CLICK HERE TO PRACTICE MORE MCQs.

# If a flush terminal plane is present in the deciduous dentition then the molars will erupt: a) Initially in class I occlusion b) Initially in class II occlusion c) Initially in class III occlusion d) End to end The correct answer is D. End to End Baume's classification of primary molars Flush terminal plane :  • The distal surface of upper and lower second deciduous molars are in one vertical plane. • The permanent molars will erupt in a flush or end on relationship. Mesial Step: • The distal surface of lower second deciduous molar is more mesial to that of upper second deciduous molar. • Mesial step- (normal mesial step of < 2mm, which is more common)- The permanent molars will erupt in Angle's class-I occlusion • Exaggerated Mesial step of >2 mm- The permanent molars will erupt in Angle's classIII occlusion Distal Step: • The distal surface of lower second deciduous molar is distal to that of upper second deciduous molar. • The permanent m...

# Growth trends show that in most patients a) maxilla and mandible grow in unison b) maxilla grows more rapidly c) mandible grows at a faster rate than the middle third of the face d) no such conclusion could be made The correct answer is: C. mandible grows at a faster rate than the middle third of the face. The concept of "Cephalo-caudal gradient of growth" says that there is an axis of increased growth extending from the head towards the feet i.e., structures, which are far from brain grow more compared to other parts. When the facial growth pattern is viewed against the perspective of cephalocaudal gradient, it is not surprising that the mandible, being farther away from the brain tends to grow more and later than the maxilla, which is close to brain. CLICK HERE TO PRACTICE MORE MCQs.

# The movement of bone in response to its own growth is termed as: a) Rotation b) Secondary displacement c) Primary displacement d) Differentiation The correct answer is C. Primary displacement. Types of Bone Growth: Drift:  Combinations of deposition and resorption occurring in different bones of skull resulting in growth movement towards depositary surface. Displacement: • It is the movement of whole bone as a unit. • In primary displacement, the bone is displaced as a result of its own growth. • In secondary displacement, the bone gets displaced as a result of growth and enlargement of adjacent bone. CLICK HERE TO PRACTICE MORE MCQs.

# Characteristic histopathological feature of basal cell carcinoma is: a) Nuclear palisading b) Keratin pearls c) Psammoma bodies d) Foam cells The correct answer is A. Nuclear palisading. • In nodular basal cell carcinoma, the tumor cells typically have large, hyperchromatic, oval nuclei with little cytoplasm and nests of tumor cells show peripheral cell palisading. • Keratin pearls are found in squamous cell carcinoma, while Psammoma bodies are concentric lamellated structures found in papillary thyroid carcinoma, meningioma, papillary serous cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary. • Foam cells are found in verruciform xanthoma. CLICK HERE TO PRACTICE MORE MCQs.

# Granularity of oncocyte is due to: a) Overabundance of golgi bodies b) Overabundance of mitochondria c) Deficiency of mitochondria d) Deficiency of golgi bodies The correct answer is B. Overabundance of mitochondria. Oncocytoma is a rare benign salivary gland tumor composed of oncocytes with granular eosinophilic cytoplasm and a large number of atypical mitochondria. The name oncocytoma is derived from the resemblance of these tumor cells to apparently normal cells termed oncocytes found in salivary glands, respiratory tract, breast, thyroid, pancreas, parathyroid, pituitary, testicle, fallopian tube, liver and stomach. Electron microscopic studies have shown that cytoplasm of oncocyte is choked with mitochondria. CLICK HERE TO PRACTICE MORE MCQs.

# Sturge Weber syndrome is characterized by all EXCEPT: a) Exophytic oral hemangioma b) Facial hematoma c) Tramline calcification of dura on lateral cephalogram d) Facial hemangioma The correct answer is B. Facial hematoma. Though the skin and oral lesions of hemangioma are most deforming and disfiguring, the CNS involvement often results in serious problems of epilepsy, hemiplegia, mental retardation and retinal changes. Sturge-weber syndrome is probably the most common of these malformations. It is characterized by angiomatosis of face, laptomeningeal angiomas, contralateral hemiplegia, massive gingival growths and asymmetric jaw growth. The patients are treated for many years with phenytoin. CLICK HERE TO PRACTICE MORE MCQs.

# Most common site of oral leukoplakia is : a) angle of mouth b) cheek mucosa c) Soft palate d) Gingiva The correct answer is B. Cheek mucosa. CLICK HERE TO PRACTICE MORE MCQs.

# Standard Airway for Ludwig's Angina is: a) Tracheotomy b) Cricothyrotomy c) Nasal intubation d) Oral intubation The correct answer is B. Cricothyrotomy. In Ludwig's angina, cricothyrotomy is always preferred over option A, i.e., Tracheotomy. Tracheotomy is avoided because of the following reasons. • Identification of landmarks is difficult due to associated massive edema and tissue distortion. • Sometimes, tracheostomy may lead to spread of infection to deeper tissues. • May result in Tracheal stenosis in 25 -50% of cases. • Chances of getting pneumonia will always be there. CLICK HERE TO PRACTICE MORE MCQs.

# Trotter's triad is seen in: a) Angiofibroma b) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma c) Laryngeal carcinoma d) Growth in fossa of Rosenmuller The correct answer is B. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma. Trotter's triad: 1) Conductive deafness (Eustachian tube blockade) 2) lpsilateral temporoparietal neuralgia (Cranial Nerve V) 3) Palatal paralysis (Cranial Nerve X) CLICK HERE TO PRACTICE MORE MCQs.

#The virus associated with nasopharyngeal carcinoma is: a) Epstein Barr b) Cytomegalo virus c) Hepatitis d) Herpes virus The correct answer is A. Epstein Barr. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma affects younger age group and half of the patients will present with secondaries in neck. Epstein-Barr virus is also implicated as an etiological factor for Burkitts Lymphoma and infectious mononucleosis. CLICK HERE TO PRACTICE MORE MCQs.

# Punched out edge is characteristic of which type of ulcer? a) Tuberculosis b) Rodent c) Syphilitic d) Non specific The correct answer is C. Syphilitic.  Non-specific ulcer = Shelving edge Tuberculous ulcer = Undermined edge Rodent ulcer = Raised, pearly white and beaded  Squamous cell carcinoma = Rolled out, everted  Syphilitic = Punched out edge; Base covered with wash leather slough CLICK HERE TO PRACTICE MORE MCQs.

Cellular responses to stress and noxious stimuli: Normal cells handle normal physiologic demands, maintaining a steady state called homeostasis. More severe physiologic stresses and some pathologic stimuli may bring about a number of physiologic and morphologic cellular adaptations, during which new but altered steady states are achieved, preserving the viability of the cell. The adaptive response may consist of an increase in the number of cells, called hyperplasia, increase in the sizes of individual cells, called hypertrophy. Conversely, Atrophy is an adaptive response in which there is a decrease in the size and function of cells. Nature of the stimulus and Cell response/adaptation towards it - Increased demand = Hyperplasia and hypertrophy - Decreased nutrients and stimuli = Atrophy - Chronic irritation = Metaplasia - Reduced oxygen supply, chemical and microbial injury = Acute reversible injury - Progressive damage including the DNA = Necrosis and Apoptosis - Met...

# The major mechanism of damage to plasma membrane in ischemia is: A. Reduced intracellular pH B. Increased intracellular accumulation of sodium C. Increased Ca++ ions in the cytosol D. Reduced aerobic respiration The correct answer is C. Increased Ca++ ions in the cytosol. The ion calcium is critical for cell damage. Influx of calcium acts as second messenger and activates wide spectrum of enzymes that destroy cellular organelles. CLICK HERE TO PRACTICE MORE MCQs.

# Out of the various free radical species, the following radical is most reactive: A. Super oxide (O2 B. Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2 C. Hydroxyl (OH- D. Nitric oxide (NO) The correct answer is C. Hydroxyl ion. Important mechanism of cell injury is by damage to DNA, proteins, lipid membranes, and circulating lipids (LDL) by peroxidation caused by oxygen derived free radicals--super oxide anion (O2-), hydroxy radical (OH-), and hydrogen peroxide (H2O2). Hydroxyl ion is most reactive. CLICK HERE TO PRACTICE MORE MCQs.

# Folic acid deficiency is associated with administration of: A. Phenytoin B. Chloramphenicol C. Isoniazide D. Streptomycin The correct answer is A. Phenytoin. Folic acid deficiency can be caused by drugs that interfere with folate absorption or metabolism. Phenytoin, some other anticonvulsants, oral contraceptives, and isoniazide can cause Folic acid deficiency by interfering with Folic acid absorption. Other drugs such as methotrexate and, to a lesser extent, trimethoprim and pyrimethamine, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and may result in a deficiency of folate cofactors and ultimately in megaloblastic anemia. CLICK HERE TO PRACTICE MORE MCQs.

# The fracture of the tooth bearing segment of the mandible is: a) Simple b) Complex c) Compound d) Comminuted The correct answer is C. Compound. • Simple fracture includes linear fracture of condyle, coronoid ramus and edentulous body or mandible. • Compound fracture include fractures of tooth bearing portions of mandible. • Green stick fracture is a rare type of simple fracture and is found exclusively in children. • Comminuted fracture are due to direct violence to mandible from penetrating sharp objects and missiles. CLICK HERE TO PRACTICE MORE MCQs.

# Largest organ in the body is: A. Heart B. Kidney C. Skin D. Liver The correct answer is C. Skin. Liver is the largest visceral organ in the body and is primarily in right hypochondrium and epigastric region,extending into left hypochondrium ( or in right upper quadrant , extending into left upper quadrant) Skin is the largest organ in human body. Liver is the second largest organ of human body. Liver is the largest gland in the human body. The liver Is the largest of the abdominal viscera, occupying a substantial portion of the upper abdominal cavity. It occupies most of the right hypochondrium and epigastrium, and frequently extends into the left hypochondrium as far as the left lateral line. As the body grows from infancy to adulthood the liver rapidly increases in size. This period of growth reaches a plateau around 18 years and is followed by a gradual decrease in the iver weight from middle age. The ratio of liver to body weight decreases with growth from inf...

# Bisecting angle technique is based on: A. ALARA principle B. SLOB Technique C. Rule of Isometry D. Convergence The correct answer is C. Rule of Isometry. The Bisecting angle technique is based on a simple geometric theorem, Cieszynski's rule of Isometry, which states that two triangles are equal when they share one complete side and have two equal angle. Position of the film as close as possible to the lingual surface of the teeth, resting in the palate or on the floor of the mouth. The plane of the film and the long axis of the teeth form an angle with its apex at the point where the film is in contact with the teeth. Construct an imaginary line that bisects this angle and direct the central ray of the beam at right angles to this bisector. This forms two triangles with two equal angles and  a common side. (the imaginary bisector) Several methods can be used to support films intra orally for Bisecting angle projections. The preferred method is to use a fil...

# The most common pathognomic sign of mandibular fracture is: a) Malocclusion b) Sublingual hematoma c) Deviation of the jaw on opening d) Paraesthesia of the mental nerve The correct answer is B. Sublingual hematoma. Sublingual ecchymosis is considered as pathognomonic sign of mandibular fracture. CLICK HERE TO PRACTICE MORE MCQs.

# The ideal treatment for fracture of the angle of mandible is: a) Transosseous wiring b) Intermaxillary fixation c) Plating on the lateral side of the body of the mandible d) Plating at the inferior border of the mandible The correct answer is D. Plating at the inferior border of the mandible. Compression plates are used at inferior border of mandible below the inferior dental canal. If there is opening of the upper border, it is necessary to apply a tension band in the form of arch bar or miniplates at the upper border. CLICK HERE TO PRACTICE MORE MCQs.

# Extra-oral landmark for Gowgates technique of mandibular nerve block: a) Corner of the mouth b) Intertragic notch c) Both of the above d) None of the above The correct answer is C. Both of the above Landmarks for Gow-Gates technique: a. Extraoral: • Lower border of tragus (intertragic notch); • Corner of mouth • Mesiolingual cusp of maxillary 2nd molar  b. Intraoral: • Height of injection established by placement of the needle tip just below the mesiolingual (mesiopalatal) cusp of maxillary second molar. • Penetration of soft tissues just distal to the maxillary second molar at the highest established in the preceding step. CLICK HERE TO PRACTICE MORE MCQs.

# Long duration anesthesia is achieved by: a) 2% Lidocaine HCL +Epinephrine 1:200000 b) 3% Mepivacaine HCL c) 4% Prilocaine HCL +Epinephrine 1:200000 d) 0.5% Bupivacaine+ Epinephrine 1:200000 The correct answer is D. 0.5% Bupivacaine+ Epinephrine 1:200000 Short Duration (pulpal anesthesia approximately 30 Minute s) • Mepivacaine HCl 3% - Prilocaine HCl 4% (by infiltration) Intermediate Duration (Pulpal anesthesia approximately 60 Minutes)  • Articaine HCL 4% + epinephrine 1:100,000 • Articaine HCl 4% +epinephrine 1:200,000 • Lidocaine HCl 2% +epinephrine 1:50,000 • Lidocaine HCl 2% +epinephrine 1:100,000 • Mepivacaine HCl 2% + levonordefrin 1:20,000 • Prilocaine HCl 4% (via nerve block only) • Prilocaine HCl 4% +epinephrine 1:200,000  Long Duration (Pulpal anesthesia approximately 90+ Minutes)  • Bupivacaine HCl 0.5% + epinephrine 1:200,000 (by nerve block) CLICK HERE TO PRACTICE MORE MCQs.

#Which of the following muscles is pierced by the needle while giving an inferior alveolar nerve block? a) Medial pterygoid b) Temporalis c) Superior constrictor d) Buccinator The correct answer is D. Buccinator. CLICK HERE TO PRACTICE MORE MCQs.

# The non-rigid connectors are used in the construction of FPD when the span is: a) Short, supplementing alveolar ridge reduction b) Short supplementing alveolar ridge reduction not required c) Long, supplementing alveolar ridge reduction d) Long, supplementing alveolar ridge reduction not required The correct answer is B. Short supplementing alveolar ridge reduction not required CLICK HERE TO PRACTICE MORE MCQs.

# The gingival finish line on a tipped molar should be: a) Shoulder b) Chamfer c) Knife edge d) Feather edge The correct answer is C. Knife edge. When molars are tipped or rotated, a reverse 3/4th crown is indicated. CLICK HERE TO PRACTICE MORE MCQs.

# Egg-shaped pontic is indicated for the replacement of: a) Mandibular posteriors b) Mandibular anteriors c) Maxillary posteriors d) Maxillary anteriors The correct answer is A. Mandibular posteriors. In the mandibular posterior region where esthetics is not a major consideration, spheroidal pontic (egg shaped pontic) is the design of choice because of its contour. In the maxilla, modified ridge lap design satisfies both esthetics and hygiene so it is the pontic design of choice in both anterior and posterior region. CLICK HERE TO PRACTICE MORE MCQs.

# What is minimum of amount of taper that should be maintained for an ideal tooth preparation? a) 4 Degree b) 5 Degree c) 6 Degree d) 12 Degree The correct answer is D. 12 degrees. Some important points on tapers: • The relationship of one wall of preparation to the long axis of that preparation is the inclination of that wall. • Sum of the inclination of two opposing walls gives the taper of the preparation. • Recommended taper is 3-12 degree. According to Schillinberg 6 degree is recommended. • Minimum taper that is necessary to insure the absence of undercuts -12 degree. • A taper or total convergence of 16 degrees has been proposed as being achievable clinically while still affording adequate retention. This probably an acceptable overall target. It can be as low as 10 degree on preparations of anterior teeth and as high as 22 degrees on molars. CLICK HERE TO PRACTICE MORE MCQs.

# Transverse line extending from or between the middle of upper canine and incisive fossa is called: a) Horizontal line b) Orientation line c) Transverse line d) CPC line The correct answer is D. CPC line. Canine-papillary-canine line (CPC line) is used as a guide to orient the upper canine teeth in complete dentures. The incisive papilla is a stable landmark for arranging labial surfaces of central incisors 10mm anterior to the incisive papilla. The tips of canines should be set on a horizontal line which pass through the posterior border of incisive papilla.

# Palatopharyngeal incompetence is treated by? a) Palatal lift prosthesis b) Obturator prosthesis c) Pharyngeal speech prosthesis d) Pharyngeal bulb prosthesis The correct answer is A. Palatal lift prosthesis. Palatal lift prosthesis is useful for patients with velopharyngeal incompetence who exhibit compromised motor control of the soft palate & related musculature. The objective of palatal lift prosthesis is to displace the soft palate to the level of normal palatal elevation, enabling closure by pharyngeal action.

# The use of selected initial roots in over denture therapy is called : a) Overlaying denture therapy b) Biologic denture therapy c) Submucosal vital root retention d) Submerged denture therapy The correct answer is C. Submucosal vital root retention. In over dentures, anterior abutments are preferred over posterior abutments since the anterior ridge is more vulnerable to resorption than the posterior ridge.

# Serum alkaline phosphate is increased in all EXCEPT: A. Paget's disease B. Fibrous dysplasia C. Osteomyelitis D. Hyperparathyroidism - In Paget's disease and hyperparathyroidism the level of Serum alkaline phosphate is elevated. - In fibrous dysplasia, the levels are elevated initially. - In Osteomyelitis, the level stays normal, so is the answer. Oral manifestations of osteogenesis imperfecta - large head size - frontal bossing - maxillary hypoplasia - bulbous crowns of teeth with Dentinogenesis imperfecta and blue or brown translucence (opalescent teeth) - Class III mal occlusion with anterior and posterior cross bite. - Severe attrition of deciduous teeth - Multiple impacted permanent teeth - Excessive bruising tendency - increased incidences of development of osteitis and osteomyelitis following extraction of teeth. 

# Difference between periapical granuloma and periapical cemental dysplasia: A. Vitality B. Histologically C. Radio graphically D. Culture media The correct answer is A. Vitality Periapical granuloma The tooth in Periapical granuloma is non vital and may be slightly tender to percussion but otherwise symptoms may be minimal. - Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia (osseous dysplasia; cemental dysplasia; cementomas). → Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia predominantly involves the periapical region of the anterior mandible. → Solitary lesions may occur but multiple foci are present more frequently. There is a marked predilection for female patients (ranging from 10: 1 to 14: 1) and approximately 70 % of cases affect blacks. → Most patients are diagnosed initially between the ages of 30 and 50, with the diagnosis almost never made in individuals under the age of 20 years.  Teeth associated with the lesions are almost invariably vital and seld...

# History of excessive thirst, hunger, micturition during nights and recent loosening of teeth usually indicate that the patient is suffering from: A Hypertension B Hyperthyroidism C Diabetes mellitus D Glomerulonephritis The correct answer is C. Diabetes Mellitus.

THEORIES OF LOCAL ANAESTHESIA are - A. Calcium displacement theory: LA molecules displaces calcium inside the nerve which in turn controls sodium channels. B. Electrical potential theory: The cations RNH+ of LA align themselves on the nerve membrane and make outside potential more positive, thus the threshold potential is increases. C. Membrane expansion theory: LA penetrates the membrane, expands it and narrows the sodium channels, thus decreases the permeability to sodium ions. D. Specific receptor theory: The specific receptors are sodium channels which are bound by LA controls the sodium channels. It is the most acceptable theory which explains the actions of LA.

# A radiograph of the mandibular anterior teeth in a patient reveals radiolucencies above the apices of right lateral and central incisors. No restorations or cavities are present. There is no pain or swelling and the pulps are vital. The diagnosis is: a) Periapical granuloma b) Cementoblastoma c) Radicular cyst d) Chronic abscess The correct answer is B. Cementoblastoma Options A, C, and D are associated with non-vital teeth. Cementoblastoma (periapical osteofibrosis or periapical fibrous dysplasia or periapical cemental fibrous dysplasia) usually involves people of over 20 years of age and women appear to be affected for more than men. The lesion occurs in and near the periodontal ligament around the apex of the tooth, usually a mandibular incisor.  In most cases, the lesions involve the apices of several mandibular anterior teeth or bicuspids. Note: The codition that is confusing with periapical cemental dysplasia (cementoblastoma) is Benign cementoblastoma, which is a...

Oral submucous fibrosis is a chronic, progressive, scarring, high-risk precancerous condition of the oral mucosa seen  primarily on the Indian subcontinent and in Southeast Asia. It has been linked to the chronic placement in the mouth of a betel quid or paan and is found in 0.4% of India's villagers. The quid consists typically of areca nut and slaked lime, usually with tobacco and sometimes with sweeteners and condiments, wrapped ina betel leaf. The slaked lime acts to release an alkaloid (arecaidine) from the areca nut, producing a feeling of euphoria and well-being in the user. ETIOLOGY Excessive consumptions of red chilies. Excessive "areca nut" chewing. Nutritional deficiency: Deficiency of vitamin A, B complex and C, etc. as well as the deficiency of iron and zinc in the diet. Immunological factors: oral submucous fibrosis exhibits increased number of eosinophils both in the circulation as well as int he tissue. Moreover, there is also presence of gam...

# Fovea palatine situated in hard palate are significant as:  A. Termination of maxillary denture B. Opening of minor salivary gland ducts  C. Indicates closure of mid palatine raphe  D. Opening of greater palatine canal The correct answer is B. Opening of minor salivary gland ducts.  Palatine fovea These are the orifices of common collecting ducts of minor palatine salivary glands. The fovea palatini are two depressions that lie bilateral to the midline of the palate, at the approximate junction between the soft and hard palate. They denote the sites of opening of ducts of small mucous glands of the palate. They are often useful in the identification of the vibrating line because they generally occur with in 2 mm of the vibrating line. The hamular process, or hamulus, is a bony projection of the medial plate of the pterygoid bone and is located distal to the maxillary tuberosity. Lying between the maxillary-tuberosity and the ...