Dentosphere : World of Dentistry

 # Drug of choice in pneumocystis carinii pneumonia: a) Pentamidine b) Zidovudine c) Ciprofloxacin d) Cotrimoxazole The correct answer is D. Cotrimoxazole. Legionnaire's pneumonia -Pneumonia in association with high fever, confusion and diarrhea suggests Cotrimoxazole, Clindamycin - Drug of choice for atypical pneumonia caused by pneumocystis carini Clarithromycin, Flucloxacillin - Drug of choice for community acquired pneumonia Gram negative bacilli - Most common micro organisms isolated from the patients with nosocomial pneumonias Mycoplasma, Chlamydia, pneumocystis carinii and viral infections  -Causes of atypical pneumonia Streptococcus pneumonia (or) Pneumococcus pneumonia - Most common cause of community acquired pneumonia is Doxycycline, Erythromycin - Drugs used for treatment of atypical pneumonia caused by Chlamydia Erythromycin, Clarithromycin - Drug of choice for atypical pneumonia caused by mycoplasma CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQs

 # Cyanosis is seen if: a) Meth Hb 1.5gm% b) Sulf Hb 0.5gm% c) Reduced Hb 5gm% d) All of the above The correct answer is D. All of the above. Types of cyanosis - Central  - Peripheral - Cyanosis due to abnormal pigments (methemoglobin, sulfhemoglobin) - Mixed CENTRAL CYANOSIS Mechanism : Diminished arterial oxygen saturation Sites : On skin & mucous membranes Eg.: Tongue, lips, cheeks Temperature of the Limb Warm PERIPHERAL CYANOSIS Mechanism : Diminished flow of blood to the local part Sites : On skin only Temperature of the Limb Cold

 # A thin bluish line around the gingival margin is due to the absorption of :  A. Silver  B. Mercury  C. Drugs like tetracycline  D. Lead The correct answer is D. lead. Heavy metals cause gingival pigmentation in areas of inflammation only, where the increased permeability permits the seepage of metal into the surrounding tissue. Lead Line (Burtonian Line) --- Bluish red or deep blue linear pigmentation in marginal gingiva Silver (argyria) --- Violet marginal line Bismuth, arsenic and mercury --- Black marginal line Mesenteric line --- Delicate, brown or black pigmented non cariogenic plaque found on the enamel at the cervical margin of the tooth CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQs

 # Plasma cell gingivitis is seen in individuals having the habit of chewing of the following types of flavored chewing gum? A. Peppermint flavored B. Clove flavored C. Cinnamon flavored D. Banana flavored The correct answer is  C. Cinnamon flavored. PLASMA CELL GINGIVITIS - The gingiva appears red, friable, granular, and bleeds easily.  - It may be associated with cheilitis and glossitis. - Plasma cell gingivitis is a contact hypersensitivity reaction most frequently attributed to Cinnamon flavored chewing gum.  CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQs 

 # Gingival manifestation is seen maximum with:  A. AML B. CLL C. CML D. ALL The correct answer is A. AML. Gum hypertrophy due to leukemic infiltration of the gingiva is a frequent finding in: - M4: Acute myelomonocytic leukemia (Naegeli type) - M5: Acute monocytic leukemia (Schilling type) Incidence of gingival enlargement is highest in acute monocytic leukemia (66.7%), followed by acute myelocytic monocytic leukemia (18.7%) and myelocytic leukemia (3.7%). Leukemic gingival enlargements are not found in edentulous patients or in chronic leukemia. Leukemic gingival enlargement occurs only in acute type and not in chronic leukemia. It occurs mostly in acute monocytic leukemia. The gingival connective tissue is infiltrated with immature leukocytes. CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQS

# Which of the following cannot be used to block undercuts intraorally? A. Addition silicon B. Plaster of Paris C. Irreversible hydrocolloid D. Temporary restorative material # Inability of a material to sustain plastic deformation before the fracture occur: A. Toughness B. Hardness C. Brittleness D. Critical Stress   

  When 30-50% of the upper teeth protrude over the lower teeth, an overbite occurs. Many reasons contribute to overbite problems in children. In this article, let’s first understand the types of overbite problems that exist, what are their causes and how they can be treated.     Types of Overbites They are of two types: Vertical overbite: The top teeth significantly overlap the bottom teeth       Horizontal overbite: The top teeth protrude over the bottom teeth   Overbites are also categorized as dental or skeletal in nature.   ·          In dental overbites, the teeth cause the overbite to form. ·          In skeletal overbites, the jaw is responsible for the overbite to occur.   The overbite teeth problem is the most common type of bite problem and occurs due to a lot of reasons. Let us delve into some:   Causes of Ov...

# When using only standard floss, the mesial root surface of which of the following teeth is typically NOT totally cleaned? A. Mandibular central incisor B. Mandibular 1st premolar C. Mandibular 1st molar D. Maxillary 1st premolar E. Maxillary central incisor The correct answer is D. Maxillary first premolar. The mesial root surface of the maxillary 1st premolar is typically NOT thoroughly cleaned using ONLY dental floss due to the mesial root concavity. Because of the lack cleansibility of the mesial of this tooth, It is advised to use inter dental brushes, end tuft brushes, tooth pick in holders, rubber tips, and powered floss to clean these interproximal areas. This is because of the type of gingival embrasure space on the mesial aspect off maxillary 1st premolar. The three types of gingival embrasures are: Type I: Having NO inter dental papilla loss Type II: Partial loss of inter dental papilla Type lIl: Complete loss of inter dental papilla The mesial surface of the maxillary 1st ...

 # Which of the following is not found in acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis? A. Pocket formation B. Tooth loss C. Bone loss D. Gingival recession The correct answer is A. Pocket formation. NUG or NUP does not usually lead to periodontal pocket formation, because the necrotic changes involve the junctional epithelium, a viable junctional epithelium is needed for pocket deepening.

 # Which of the following describes the etiology of cone-cutting? A. Inadequate exposure time B. Excessive mA C. Excessive kVp D. Incorrect source-object distance E. Incorrect placement of X-ray machine The correct answer is E. Incorrect placement of X Ray machine. Cone-cutting occurs when the X-ray machine is not lined up properly with the X-ray sensor or film. The film or sensor should be placed perpendicular to the X-ray collimator to ensure that all of the necessary information is picked up. External devices are often used to ensure that the film/sensor are perpendicular to the X-ray collimator.

  # A periapical radiograph suggests an opaque mass Over the apex of the maxillary right 2nd molar. A second periapical radiograph is made with the X-ray head adjusted in a more mesial direction. The second periapical suggests that the object in question has moved distally compared to the 1st radiograph. Which of the following directions describes the location of the object? A.In-between the roots B. Buccal to the tooth C. Lingual to the tooth D. Not enough information is provided The correct answer is B. Buccal to the tooth. The SLOB (Same Lingual, Opposite Buccal) rule suggests that the object is buccal to the tooth. Because the object moved opposite to the positioning of the X-ray device for the 2nd radiograph it demonstrates buccal positioning If the object moved mesially with the head of the X-ray head being moved mesially, it would have demonstrated lingual/palatal positioning.

 # A person wearing complete denture has difficulty in pronouncing T. The reason may be: A. Too thick palatal area B. Incorrect position of upper incisor teeth C. Too thick mandibular bone D. Reduced salivary flow The correct answer is B. Incorrect position of upper incisor teeth.  - Sounds like t, d, n, etc. are alveolar sounds. These sounds are produced with tip of tongue touching anterior palate. - If maxillary anterior teeth are placed too far anteriorly, 'd' will sound like 't'. - If they are placed too palatally, 't' will sound like 'd'. 

 # Lentulo spirals are used for: A. Locating canal orifice B. Pulp extirpation C. Enlarging coronal third of the root canal D. Application of root canal sealer The correct answer is D. Application of root canal sealer.  - Finger pluggers are used for vertical compaction of gutta percha.  - Finger spreaders are used for  lateral compaction of gutta percha. - Lentulo spiral is used to deliver sealer or triple antibiotic paste to the root canal.

  B.P. Koirala Institute of Health Sciences (BPKIHS) has initiated an innovative service of Online registration and ticketing for providing OPD services from 2077-06-26. For this, the patients have to get themselves registered from the Android App BPKIHS    Patients have to: - register their personal details - select the desired department and register the ticket / pay the stipulated amount via Khalti or eSewa or IMEPay - If registered before 8:00 AM, the patients will be registered for the same day, and those registering after 8:00 AM will be registered for the next day. Patients have to collect their OPD cards from the counter in the respective departments and enter the doctor's chamber.  At present, this service is available only for routine OPD (daily regular OPD). In the upcoming days, Institutional based private practice (Private OPD) registration will also be incorporated in the app. Staffs from respective departments working in the OPD should collect the OPD ...

# Age-related gingival recession can be best treated by: A. Gingivoplasty B. Pedicle graft C. Free gingival graft D. No treatment The correct answer is D. No treatment. Gingival recession increases with age, the incidence varies from 8% in children to 100% after the age of 50 years. This has led to some investigators to assume that recession may be a physiologic process related to ageing. 

 # Facial surface of which tooth is most affected by gingivitis?  A. Upper first molar  B. Lower first molar  C. Lower central incisor  D. Lower premolar The correct answer is A. Upper first molar. Facial surface of upper first molar and lingual surface of lower central incisors is most affected by gingivitis. This is due to close proximity to opening of salivary ducts.

 # Life saver shaped gingival enlargement of marginal gingiva is called:  A. Stillman's cleft  B. McCall's festoons  C. Widow peaks  D. Craters The correct answer is B. McCall's festoons. The term McCall's festoons has been used to describe a rolled, thickened band of gingiva that is usually seen adjacent to the cuspids when recession approaches the mucogingival junction. Stillman clefts are apostrophe shaped indentations extending to marginal gingiva. They are usually present on facial surface.  Craters are bony defects or concavities found in interdental areas. Widow peaks are pseudo piling up of gingiva when failed to remove bony discrepancies at gingival line angles during osteotomy procedures. These are peaks of residual cortical bone left out during horizontal grooving at the facial/palatal/lingual line angles. 

 # One of the radiographic finding of Aggressive periodontitis is arc shaped bone loss extending from: A. Distal surface of the second premolar to mesial surface of second molar B. Distal surface of the first premolar to mesial surface of first molar C. Mesial surface of the second molar to distal surface of the first premolar D. Mesial surface of the first premolar to distal surface of the second premolar The correct answer is A. Distal surface of the second premolar to mesial surface of second molar - Localized Juvenile Periodontitis is characterized by distribution of lesions in the first molars and incisors with least destruction in the cuspid-premolar area whereas in Generalized Juvenile periodontitis, there is generalized involvement of teeth. - Vertical bone loss around incisors and molars in otherwise healthy teenagers is diagnostic of Localized juvenile periodontits. - There is an arc shaped bone loss extending from distal surface of second premolar to mesial surface of se...

# Which  is  the  preferred  method  of  biopsy  in  case  of  a  malignant  involvement  of  lymph  node?  a. Fine needle  aspiration  b. Incisional  biopsy c. Excisional biopsy  d. No  biopsy The correct answer is A. Fine needle aspiration. Fine-needle aspiration (FNA) is a diagnostic procedure used to investigate lumps or masses. In this technique, a thin (23–25 gauge (0.52 to 0.64 mm outer diameter)), hollow needle is inserted into the mass for sampling of cells that, after being stained, are examined under a microscope (biopsy). The sampling and biopsy considered together are called fine-needle aspiration biopsy (FNAB) or fine-needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) (the latter to emphasize that any aspiration biopsy involves cytopathology, not histopathology). Fine-needle aspiration biopsies are very safe minor surgical procedures. Often, a major surgical (excisional or open) biopsy ...

 # The pulp stem cells are: A. Pluripotent in nature B. Totipotent in nature C. Multipotent in nature D. None of the above The correct answer is A. Pluripotent in nature. Pulpal stem cells are pluripotent in nature. The stem cells were shown to undergo proliferation and migrate to the site of injured odontoblasts and produce dentin.

 # A young man of 24 years is suffering from Generalized Anxiety Disorder; which drug may be preferred for his problem? a. Zolpidem b. Buspirone c. Midazolam d. Triazolam e. Phenobarbital The correct answer is B. Buspirone. Buspirone is the first azapirone, a new class of antianxiety drugs, distinctly different from Benzodiazepines.  Buspirone:  • Does not produce significant sedation or cognitive/functional impairment. • Does not interact with BZD receptor or modify GABAergic transmission. • Does not produce tolerance or physical dependence. • Does not suppress BZD or barbiturate withdrawal syndrome. • Has no muscle relaxant or anticonvulsant activity. Buspirone relieves mild-to-moderate generalized anxiety, but is ineffective in severe cases, in those showing panic reaction and in OCD. Though most patients on buspirone remain alert, those operating machinery/motor vehicles should be cautioned. Dose: 5–15 mg OD–TDS:

# Which of the following is a feature of anemia of chronic disease ? A.Increased red cell protoporphyrin B.Hypoproliferative marrow C.Normal or increased serum ferritin D.All of the above The correct answer is D. All of the above.  Features of anemia of chronic disease are a low serum iron, increased red cell protoporphyrin, hypoproliferative marrow, transferrin saturation of 15 - 20%, & normal or increased serum ferritin. Ref: Harrison’s 18th edition, Page 849.

# The main areas of concern in diagnosis and treatment planning for the child are: A. Oral medical problems B. Dental caries and restorative dentistry C. Occlusion and craniofacial growth and development D. All of the above # Pedodontic triangle is given by: A. Mischer B. McDonanld C. Finn D. Wright # Place of the child in the pedodontic treatment triangle is: A. At the base B. In the centre C. At the apex D. None of the above 

 # Which of the following can result in paradoxical excitement in children?  A. Morphine  B. Phenobarbitone  C. Nitrous oxide  D. Amphetamine The correct answer is B. Phenobarbitone. A paradoxical reaction or paradoxical effect is an effect of medical treatment,usually a drug, opposite to the effect which would normally be expected. Paradoxical excitement is caused by barbiturates which also includes secobarbital.  Reported to occur in approximately 3% of patients. In susceptible individuals,benzodiazepine treatment might increase anxiety,aggressiveness, agitation, loss of  impulse control, talkativeness, violent behavior, and even convulsions. 

 # Before sedating a child: A. Not essential to take the consent B. Essential to take the written consent C. Needed to consult the pediatrician D. Essential for the parents to be present The correct answer is D. Essential for the parents to be present. Before sedating a normal child it is important to take informed consent, and have the parents present during procedure. A child with previous medical history however requires consulting with the child's physician.

 # Altered state of consciousness characterized by a heightened suggestibility to produce desirable behavioral and psychological changes is called: A. Coping B. Hypnosis C. Biofeedback D. Implosion therapy The correct answer is B. Hypnosis. It is also called psychomatic or suggestion therapy.  Hypnosis is a state of  human consciousness involving focused attention and reduced peripheral awareness and an enhanced capacity to respond to suggestion.

 # One of the principal capsid shapes is a 20-sided figure with 12 evenly spaced corners referred to as a(n) _____ capsid.  A. Spiked B. Complex C. Icosahedral D. Helical E. Buckeyball The correct answer is C. Icosahedral. In geometry, an icosahedron (/ˌaɪkɒsəˈhiːdrən, -kə-, -koʊ-/ or /aɪˌkɒsəˈhiːdrən/) is a polyhedron with 20 faces. The name comes from Ancient Greek εἴκοσι (eíkosi) meaning "twenty" and from Ancient Greek ἕδρα (hédra) meaning "seat". The plural can be either "icosahedra" (/-drə/) or "icosahedrons".

 # Viruses have all the following except : A. Definite shape B. Metabolism C. Genes D. Ability to infect host cells E. Ultramicroscopic size The correct answer is B. Metabolism. Viruses are non-living entities and as such do not inherently have their own metabolism. However, within the last decade, it has become clear that viruses dramatically modify cellular metabolism upon entry into a cell. Viruses consist of nucleic acid (genetic material) surrounded by a capsid (protein coat). Most scientists consider viruses to be nonliving because they can't carry out the most basic processes of life. Viruses can't metabolize (break down) food to release energy (carry out respiration) or grow.

 # Endodontic Surgery should be avoided in: A. Short rooted teeth B. Teeth with periodontal disease C. Lingual surface of mandibular molars D. All of the above The correct answer is D. All of the above. Because of inaccessibility and difficulty to gain access to the surgical site through dense layers of bone, endodontic surgery should be avoided on lingual surfaces of molars or external oblique ridge of mandible. 

#Which immunoglobulin is most common in patients with periodontal disease? A. IgA B. IgD C. lgG D. lgE E. IgM  The correct answer is C. IgG.  The presence of IgG in gingival crevicular fluid is a product of actively secreting plasma cells stimulated by chronic plaque/calculus accumulation.  The next abundant type is IgA, There is a negligible amount of lgM. lg A predominates in saliva to agglutinate bacteria so they are more easily swallowed and evacuated from the oral cavity.

# A mandibular lingual holding arch with loops mesial to each molar band is used in children for: A. Correction B. Regaining space C. Space maintenance only D. Correction of distally tilted molars    The correct answer is B. Regaining space. Normal passive mandibular lingual holding arch is used for space maintenance in mandible. This is  a preventive procedure. Lingual arch with U loops mesial to each molar band is a modification of mandibular lingual arch. The loops are opened periodically and this can bring about distalization of molars by 1 to 2 mm. This is an interceptive procedure.

 # Which of the following is the primary source of anaerobic bacteria in diseased periodontal tissue? A. Supragingival plaque B. Blood C. Subgingival plaque D. Calculus The correct answer is C. Subgingival plaque.  Subgingival plaque is most likely to contain the anaerobic bacteria that cause periodontal disease. Remember that although calculus is a secondary etiologic factor, the primary etiologic factor of periodontal disease is dental plaque.

 # Which of the following is the BEST way to avoid porcelain failure in all-ceramic restorations? A. Rounded angles of the preparation B. Minimal occlusal forces C. Porcelain is 3.5mm thick D. Porcelain is not more than 0.5mm thick  The correct answer is A. Rounded angles of the preparation. All ceramic restorations should include rounded angles in the tooth preparation in order to reduce stress concentration along these areas. Sharp angles within tooth preparations are areas where stress is concentrated, and may cause fracturing. Porcelain thickness is also an important factor in its fracture toughness. All porcelain crowns should have a minimum thickness of 1mm circumferentially and about 1.5mm along the occlusal/ incisal to achieve strength (Not including the framework of the restoration). Proper case selection and occlusal load analysis is also an important factor in preventing failure of an all ceramic restoration. 

 # What is the primary reason why dentists splint adjacent abutment teeth in a fixed partial denture? A. Improve spacing mesiodistally B. Stabilize abutment teeth C. Improve embrasure contours D. Improve the distribution of the occlusal load  The correct answer is D. Improve the distribution of the occlusal load  Abutment teeth are included in fixed partial dentures to provide retention and help disperse the occlusal load placed on the restoration. Abutment teeth provides support and stability to the pontic. Abutment teeth allows better distribution of the occlusal forces acting on all teeth and pontic in the fixed partial denture.

# After packing acrylic resin into the denture flasks, one should wait to cure the resin to: A. Assure full flow of acrylic into the denture mold B. Allow the monomer to reach all acrylic polymer C. Allow for pressure to be equalized between the acrylic and flask D. Make sure temperature equilibrium exists between the flask and acrylic  The correct answer is D. Make sure temperature equilibrium exists between the flask and acrylic Allowing the dental flask packed with acrylic to remain under the bench press until equilibrium in temperature is achieved will give enough time for the acrylic to achieve better monomer-polymer interaction and create stronger chemical bond. The curing of resin should be uniformly completed to lessen any chances of distortion before and during the time the flask is immersed in a water bath.  

# When fabricating dentures, what would be the most likely outcome if the lab compressed/packed the acrylic during the rubbery stage? A. Higher porosity than normal B. A lot of extra resin being attached to the denture that will take a long time to trim C. Incomplete picking up of anatomical details D. The denture would have an increased VDO  The correct answer is C. Incomplete picking up of anatomical details Packing and compressing acrylic during denture fabrication should be done in its doughy stage. The doughy stage is the ideal for packing acrylic resin because it is the moment when acrylic is most packable and workable. The rubbery stage of acrylic denotes the start of the setting when heat is released from the setting acrylic. Rubbery acrylic also has a tendency to revert back to its original position regardless of the forces applied to it during packing, resulting in incomplete packing. VDO (Vertical Dimension of Occlusion) is synonymous with OVD (Occlusal Vertical Dimensio...

 # Excess height of the posterior palatal seal of a complete maxillary denture will usually result in which of the following? A. Gagging B. Increased retention C. A tingling or tickling sensation D. Unseating of the denture The correct answer is D. Unseating of the denture. Over contouring or excessive beading of the posterior palatal seal causes too much pressure to be exerted on the palatal tissues resulting in the unseating of upper dentures. The posterior palatal seal is typically placed approximately on the vibrating line between the hard and soft palate and provides a physiologically acceptable tissue pressure within the compressible portion of the soft palate to attain retention and peripheral seal. Over extending the coverage of seal will cause gaggling and painful swallowing for the part of the patient. 

# Which of the following is associated with a flabby maxillary anterior ridge under a complete denture? A. Retained mandibular anterior teeth B. A "V" shaped ridge C. A "U" shaped ridge D. A patient with Class Il occlusion E. Osteoporosis  The correct answer is A. Retained mandibular anterior teeth. Combination syndrome is a condition that usually occurs when retained mandibular anterior teeth opposes a maxillary complete denture. In combination syndrome, the anterior aspect of upper maxillary ridge becomes highly resorbed and flabby due to the biting force against its natural tooth antagonist. Since the occlusal force of a natural tooth is stronger than the force of a denture supported by an alveolar ridge, the area under pressure will exhibit higher resorption pattern than the rest of the denture.

# Pterygomandibular raphe is a tendon between which of the following muscles? A. Masseter and medial pterygoid B. Anterior belly of the digastric and Buccinator C. Buccinator and Superior constrictor D. Buccinator and Masseter The correct answer is C. Buccinator and Superior constrictor. Pterygomandibular raphe acts as a tendon between the buccinator and superior Constrictor muscle. It is a landmark used often for the identification of the pterygomandibular space for the administration of an inferior alveolar nerve block. The injecting needle pierces the buccinator muscle to inject the local anesthetic solution in the pterygomandibular space.  

 # The minimum number of lobes from which any tooth may develop is: A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Five The correct answer is: C. Four. Tooth development begins with increased cell activity in growth centers in the tooth germ. A growth center (lobe) is an area of the tooth germ where the cells are particularly active. These lobes are primary centers of calcification and are primary sections of formation in the development of the crown of a tooth. They are represented by a cusp on posterior teeth and mamelons and cingula on anterior teeth. They are always separated by developmental grooves, which are very prominent in the posterior teeth and form specific patterns. With anterior teeth, their presence is much less noticeable and these lobes are separated by what are known as developmental depressions. Summary of number of lobes: •All anterior teeth: three labial and one lingual (cingulum) • Premolars: three buccal and one lingual. Exception: The mandibular second premolar has three bucca...

# The lethal dose of fluoride for a typical three-year-old child is approximately : A. 100 mg B. 200 mg C. 350 mg D. 500 mg   The correct answer is D. 500 mg. The studies and surveys link fluorosis to three factors: • Fluorosis is more common in geographic areas where the endemic levels of fluoride in the drinking water is higher than three parts per million • Fluorosis is associated with fluoride supplementation at inappropriately high levels • The use of fluoridated toothpaste has been implicated in fluorosis In acute fluoride toxicity, the goal is to minimize the amount of fluoride absorbed. Therefore, syrup of ipecac is administered to induce vomiting. Calcium-binding products, such as milk or milk of magnesia, decrease the acidity of the stomach, forming insoluble complexes with the fluoride and thereby decrease its absorption. Note: Emergency Medical Service should be activated. In acute fluoride toxicity, symptoms may appear within 30 minutes of ingestion and persist for up ...

# "Koplik's spots" are associated with: A. Smallpox (Variola) B. German measles (Rubella) C. Mumps D. (Rubeola) The correct answer is. D. Measles (Rubeola) Before immunization, measles was very common during childhood so that 90% of the population had been infected by age 20. Measles (also called Rubeola) is a highly contagious viral illness characterized by a fever, cough, and a spreading rash. It is caused by a paramyxovirus. The incubation period is 1 to 2 weeks before symptoms generally appear. The oral lesions are pathognomonic of this disease. These characteristic "Koplik's spots" usually occur on the buccal mucosa. They are 1-2 mm, yellow-white necrotic ulcers that are surrounded by a bright red margin. Rubella (or German measles) is a fairly benign viral disease. The symptoms usually include a red, bumpy rash, swollen lymph nodes (most often around the ears and neck), and a mild fever. Some people will feel a little achy. The virus can manifest in th...

 This particular brand of Glass Ionomer Cement Ketac Molar Easymix by 3M Germany was available in the dental clinic where I work. The powder felt like wheat flour and even after mixing repeatedly, I couldn't get the required consistency. I had used exactly one scoop of powder by the scoop provided by the manufacturer with one drop of liquid. Have you experienced the same problem? Or is this a great GIC product What about its clinical success? Please leave your honest feedback.

# Which of the following is true concerning a young epileptic who has a grand mal seizure in the dental office? A. It is generally fatal B. It is best treated by injecting insulin C. They generally recover if restrained from self-injury and oxygen is maintained D. It can be prevented with antibiotics  The correct answer is C. They generally recover if restrained from self-injury and oxygen is maintained Of the multiple types of seizures, the tonic-clonic (grand mal) type is the most frightening and the one that most often requires treatment. Grand mal seizures are manifested in four phases: the prodromal phase, the aura, the convulsive (ictal) phase, and the postictal phase. The prodromal phase consists of subtle changes that may occur over minutes to hours. It is usually not clinically evident to the clinician or the patient. The aura is a neurologic experience that the patient goes through immediately prior to the seizure. It is specifically related to trigger areas of the brain ...