MCQs on Odontogenic Cysts and Tumors - Oral Pathology

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# All of the following lesions may be classified as odontogenic tumors except :
A. Acanthomatous ameloblastoma
B. Branchial cleft cyst
C. Myxoma
D. Simple ameloblastoma

# Bifid ribs, Multiple radiolucent lesions of the jaws, multiple basal cell nevi and falx cerebri calcification are found in :
A. Basal cell nevus syndrome
B. Sturge weber syndrome
C. Horner syndrome
D. Hereditary internal polyposis

# Ameloblastoma most frequently occurs in:
A. Mandibular molar region
B. Maxillary molar region
C. Mandibular premolar region
D. Maxillary premolar region

# Compound odontoma shows on a radiograph as:
A. Supernumerary teeth
B. Radiolucent and radioopaque areas
C. Masses of calcified areas
D. Distinguishable tooth like structures

# Which of the following is true neoplasm of functional cementoblasts ?
A. Periapical cemental dysplasia
B. Familial cemental dysplasia
C. Benign cementoblastoma
D. Hypercementosis

# Botryoid odontogenic cyst is a variant of:
A. Lateral periodontal cyst
B. Apiccal periodontal cyst
C. Gingival cysts of the newborn
D. Gingival cysts of adult

# Eruption cyst:
A. Transforms into dentigerous cyst
B. Regresses after eruption of the tooth
C. Is found in the place of the missing tooth
D. Is a type of dentigerous teeth

# Leisegang rings are found in:
A. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic cyst
B. Primordial cyst
C. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor
D. Odontoma

# Which of the following is an odontogenic tumor ?
A. Arrhenoblastoma
B. Astrocytoma
C. Ameloblastoma
D. Granular cell tumor

# The most common odontogenic tumor which occurs in relation to an unerupted tooth in the anterior maxilla:
A. Odontogenic adenomatoid tumor
B. Odontoma
C. Myxoma
D. Cementifying fibroma

# Which of the following shows the presence of cholesterol crystals ?
A. Keratocyst
B. Periodontal cyst
C. Aneurysmal cyst
D. Hemorrhagic cyst

# Nodular growth of alveolus is seen in :
A. Paget's disease
B. Osteomas
C. Cementifying fibroma
D. All of the above

# Basal layer in primordial cyst is arranged in the form of:
A. Tennis racket
B. Picket fence
C. Linear
D. Irregular
# Which of the following is the most common lesion of the mandible ?
A. Adamantinoma
B. Osteogenic sarcoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Osteoclastoma

# One of them is not a true cyst:
A. Hemorrhagic cyst
B. Medial palatal
C. Globulomaxillary
D. Nasolabial

# Dentigerous cyst is likely to cause which neoplasia ?
A. Ameloblastoma
B. Osteogenic sarcoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Osteoclastoma

# Odontogenic Keratocyst has the following feature:
A. Occurs due to infection periapically
B. is developmental in origin
C. Can be treated by aspiration
D. Has low recurrence rate

# Primordial cyst develops :
A. in place of missing teeth
B. in teeth in which crown development is completed
C. In periapical region
D. In mandibular body

# Robinson's classification of ameloblastoma does not include :
A. Multicentric
B. Non functional
C. Anatomically benign
D. Clinically persistent

# Radiographic finding in Pindborg tumor is :
A. Sun-burst appearance
B. Onion-peel appearance
C. Driven - snow appearance
D. Cherry - blossom appearance

# Unicentric, non functional, anatomically benign, clinically persistent tumor is :
A. CEOT
B. Enameloma
C. Odontoma
D. Ameloblastoma
# The most ideal explanation for recurrence of odontogenic keratocyst is:
A. Increased mitotic activity of the epithelial lining
B. Friability of the epithelial lining
C. Presence of satellite cysts or daughter cysts
D. Continued proliferation of rests of dental lamina

# The cyst with highest recurrence rate is :
A. Keratocyst
B. Periapical cyst
C. Nasoalveolar cyst
D. Globulomaxillary cyst

# A multilocular cyst of the jaw is most likely:
A. Dental cyst
B. Dentigerous cyst
C. Keratocyst
D. Simple bone cyst

# Keratocyst has all of the following features except:
A. It is more common in mandible
B. May be filled with thin straw colored fluid
C. Low recurrence rate
D. Expansion of bone clinically seen

# Each of the following cyst is associated with an impacted tooth except :
A. Dentigerous cyst
B. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic cyst
C. Keratocyst
D. Primordial cyst

# Which of the following is wrong about keratocyst?
A. has low recurrence rate
B. has low protein content
C. high recurrence rate
D. B and C

# A 40 year old woman has ameloblastoma, the histomorphologic features will be:
A. Peripheral palisading cellular strand with central loose stellate reticulum
B. Peripheral palisading with central stromal retraction artefact
C. Peripheral palisading cellular strand with peripheral loose stellate reticulum
D. Central loose stellate reticulum shows marked nuclear atypia and numerous mitotic

# Which histopathological type of odontogenic keratocyst is commoner, more invasive and has a greater tendency for recurrence ?
A. Orthokeratinized
B. Parakeratinized
C. Non keratinized
D. Dyskeratinized

# Multiple odontogenic keratocyst are associated with:
A. Gardner's syndrome
B. Gorlin-Goltz Syndrome
C. Goldenhar's Syndrome
D. Grinspan syndrome

# Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor is most commonly found in :
A. Anterior mandible
B. Posterior maxilla
C. Anterior maxilla
D. Ramus of the mandible

# Adamantinoma is :
A. A tumour from embryonal cells of developing teeth
B. also known as ameloblastoma
C. is a complication of dentigerous cyst
D. All of these

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Dentigerous Cyst / Follicular Cyst

Dentigerous Cyst

• defined as an odontogenic cyst that surrounds the crown of an impacted tooth; caused by fluid accumulation between the reduced enamel epithelium and the enamel surface, resulting in a cyst in which the crown is located within the lumen.
• most common ; about 20% of all jaw cysts ; about 10% of impacted tooth form a dentigerous cyst
• almost always permanent tooth involved; rarely deciduous tooth involved

Clinical Features:

• always associated initially with the crown of an impacted, embedded or unerupted tooth
• most common sites of this cyst are the mandibular and maxillary third molar and maxillary cuspid areas, as these teeth are most commonly impacted
• mostly solitary; bilateral and multiple cysts are usually found in association with a number of syndromes including cleidocranial dysplasia and Maroteaux–Lamy syndrome.
• potentially agressive; due to continuous enlargement of the cyst, may result in expansion of bone with subsequent facial asymmetry, extreme displacement of teeth, severe root resorption of adjacent teeth and pain
• usually, no pain or discomfort associated with the cyst unless it becomes secondarily infected

Radiographic Features

• radiolucency associated in some fashion with an unerupted tooth crown is observed
• may be confused with the enlarged dental follicle; histologically identical
• normal follicular space is 3–4 mm, a dentigerous cyst can be suspected when the space is more than 5 mm

Three radiological variations may be observed:

Central - crown is enveloped symmetrically

Lateral - results from dilatation of the follicle on one aspect of the crown

Circumferential - results when the follicle expands in a manner in which the entire tooth appears to be enveloped by the cyst

Histologic Features

• no characteristic microscopic features which can be used reliably to distinguish the dentigerous cyst from the other types of odontogenic cysts
• usually composed of a thin connective tissue wall with a thin layer of stratified squamous epithelium lining the lumen
• unless secondarily infected, rete pegs are absent
• varying numbers of islands of odontogenic epithelium seen ( also seen in normal dental follicles )
• inflammatory cell infiltration of the connective tissue is common
• in cysts exhibiting inflammation, Rushton bodies, which are peculiar linear, often curved, hyaline bodies with variable stainability which are of uncertain origin, questionable nature and unknown significance, are seen within the lining epithelium
• content of the cyst lumen is usually a thin, watery yellow fluid, occasionally blood tinged

Treatment

• depends upon the size of the lesion - smaller lesions totally removed surgically, larger cysts are often treated by insertion of a surgical drain or marsupialization as larger cysts involve serious loss of bone and there is potential of fracturing the jaw if complete surgical removal is attempted
• recurrence relatively uncommon

Potential complications

Besides recurrence, following complications may occur:

• development of an ameloblastoma
• development of epidermoid carcinoma
• development of a mucoepidermoid

MCQs on Cardiovascular System - Physiology Part 2

# Absolute period when whole heart is in diastole is :
A. 0.7 sec
B. 0.3 sec
C. 0.2 sec
D. 0.4 sec

# The effects of adrenaline on heart are all except :
A. Increases heart rate
B. Decreases myocardial irritability
C. Increases force of contraction
D. Increases oxygen uptake by heart

# Cardiac output is maximum to :
A. Liver
B. Brain
C. Kidney
D. Heart

# Increase in carotid sinus pressure produces:
A. Reflex hyperpnea
B. Reflex bradycardia
C. Reflex tachycardia
D. Reflex hypercapnia

# Effect on force of contraction of heart is :
A. Chronotropic effect
B. Dromotropic efffect
C. Bathmotropic effect
D. Inotropic effect

# SA node acts as a pacemaker of the heart because of the fact that it:
A. is capable of generating impulses
B. has rich sympathetic innervations
C. has poor cholinergic innervations
D. generates impulses at the highest rate

# Distribution of blood flow is mainly regulated by the :
A. Arteries
B. Arterioles
C. Capillaries
D. Venules

# The following factors increase the cardiac output except:
A. Preload
B. Afterload
C. Heart rate
D. Myocardial contractility

# Ventricular muscle receives impulses directly from the:
A. Purkinje system
B. Bundle of His
C. Right and left bundle branches
D. AV node

# In determining blood pressure by auscultatory method,
A. The loudest sound is the diastolic pressure
B. Systolic pressure estimation tends to be lower than those made by palpatory method
C. The first sound heard is systolic pressure
D. The sounds that are heard are generated in heart

# Isovolumetric relaxation ends immediately after:
A. AV valve closes
B. When ventricular pressure falls below aortic pressure
C. When ventricular pressure falls below atrial pressure
D. None of the above

# Glomerular capillary pressure differ from other capillaries of body in:
A. Higher filtration pressure
B. Lower filtration pressure
C. Both of the above
D. None

# The hemoglobin oxygen saturation of blood entering the right ventricle is approximately:
A. 97 percent
B. 85 percent
C. 75 percent
D. 53 percent

# Which of the following increases turbulence in blood flow ?
A. Reynolds number <2000
B. Decrease in viscosity of blood
C. Decrease in density of blood
D. Increase in diameter of blood vessel
# In the case of heart muscle , all are true except:
A. Acts as syncytium
B. Has multiple nuclei
C. has gap junctions
D. has branching

# The velocity of conduction in the purkinje fibers of the heart is :
A. 1 to 4 m/s
B. 5 to 8 m/s
C. 9 to 12 m/s
D. more than 12 m/s

# Second heart sound is characterized by all except:
A. due to closure of semilunar valves
B. is occasionally split
C. has longer duration than first heart sound
D. marks the onset of diastole

# What is common between systemic and pulmonary circulation?
A. Volume of the circulation per minute
B. Peripheral vascular resistance
C. Pulse pressure
D. Total capacity

# Stimulation of the baroreceptors results in :
A. Increase in heart rate
B. Decreased vagal discharge
C. Increased sympathetic discharge
D. Decrease in blood pressure

# The function of carotid body is :
A. Measures the change in pO2 in arterial blood
B. Measures pO2 in venous blood
C. Measures the change in CO2 in arterial blood
D. Measures the change in CO2 in venous blood

# The dicrotic notch on the aortic pressure curve is caused by :
A. Closure of the pulmonary valve
B. Rapid filling of the left ventricle
C. Closure of the aortic valve
D. Contraction of the aorta

# Peripheral vascular resistance is best given by :
A. Mean arterial pressure responsible for blood flow to organ
B. Diastolic blood pressure as it decreases till mid-thoracic aorta
C. Pulse pressure as it relates to stroke volume and aortic compliance
D. Systolic pressure as it increase in descending aorta

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MCQs on Cardiovascular System - Physiology

# The first heart sound is produced by the :
A. Closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves
B. Opening of the aortic and pulmonary valves
C. Closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves
D. Opening of the mitral and tricuspid valves


# Parasympathetic stimulation of heart causes:
A. SA node decreases firing
B. Increased AV node excitability
C. Decreased ventricular contraction
D. Tachycardia

# Normally, the rate of the heart beat in a human is determined by:
A. Bundle of His
B. all cardiac muscles
C. the SA node
D. the cervical ganglion

# The ventricular repolarisation in ECG is best seen in:
A. "P" wave
B. "Q" wave
C. "R" wave
D. "T" wave

# Stroke output of each ventricle in normal adult is :
A. 30 ml
B. 130 ml
C. 70 ml
D. 5 liters

# Cardiac output is a measure of :
A. Peripheral resistance * tissue fluid
B. Peripheral resistance * cardiac rate
C. Blood pressure * Cardiac rate
D. Heart rate * Stroke volume

# Cardiac output is not affected by :
A. Heart rate
B. Peripheral resistance
C. Systolic blod pressure
D. Venous return

# The largest function of the total peripheral resistance is due to:
A. Venules
B. Arterioles
C. Capillaries
D. Precapillary sphincters

# All the heart valves are open during which stage of cardiac cycle?
A. Systolic ejection
B. Isovolumetric relaxation
C. Isovolumetric contraction
D. None of the above

# Minimum blood Pressure is in:
A. Aorta
B. Arteries
C. Capillaries
D. Venules
# Starling's law of the heart
A. Does not operate in the failing heart
B. Does not operate during exercise
C. Explains the increase in cardiac output that occurs when venous return is increased
D. Explains the increase in cardiac output when the sympathetic nerves supplying the heart are stimulated

# Which of the followings is true ?
A. Starling's law of heart states that increase in force of contraction is directly related to cardiac output
B. Starling's law of heart states that the force of ventricular contraction is directly related to the end diastolic volume
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

# Peripheral resistance is maximum in:
A. Aorta
B. Artery
C. Arteriole
D. Vein

# Stimulatuion of baroreceptor leads to :
A. Increased blood pressure, Increased heart rate
B. Decreased BP, decreased heart rate
C. Increased BP, decreased heart rate
D. Decreased BP, Increased heart rate

# Increased functional demand on the heart produces increased size of the myocardium by:
A. Hyperplasia
B. Hypertrophy
C. Fatty infiltration
D. Increased amounts of fibrous connective tissue

# Cardiac index is related to :
A. Cardiac output and body weight
B. Cardiac output and body surface area
C. Cardiac output and work of the heart
D. Stroke volume and pulse rate

# Absolute refractory period in heart :
A. Lasts till cardiac contraction
B. Longer than refractory period in skeletal muscle
C. A phase of cardiac cycle in which heart cannot be stimulated by any amount of stimulus
D. Corresponds with duration of action potential
E. All of the above

# Closure of the aortic valve occurs before the following event:
A. Isovolumetric contraction
B. Isovolumetric relaxation
C. Prediastole
D. Presystole

# Conduction velocity is least in:
A. AV node
B. SA Node
C. Purkinje fibers
D. Budele of His

# Fastest conducting tissue in human heart:
A. AV node
B. SA node
C. Bundle of His
D. Purkinje fibers

# Under resting condition, the cardiac output is ____ L/min:
A. 2.5
B. 4.25
C. 5.25
D. 9.5

# Coronary blood flow is usually predominantly controlled by :
A. Auto regulation
B. Hormones
C. Parasympathetic impulses
D. Sympathetic impulse

# Cardiac output in L/min divided by heart rate equals:
A. Cardiac efficiency
B. Cardiac index
C. Mean Stroke volume
D. Mean arterial pressure

# Cardiac cycle duration in man is:
A. 0.4 sec
B. 0.8 sec
C. 1.2 sec
D. 1.6 sec

# First heart sound occurs during the period of:
A. Isotonic relaxation
B. Isovolumetric relaxation
C. Isovolumetric contraction
D. Isotonic contraction

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Oral Cancer and Precancer of the Oral Mucosa : Histological Classification

Histological Classification of Cancer and Precancer of the Oral Mucosa
1. Carcinomas Squamous cell carcinoma Verrucous cell carcinoma Basaloid squamous cell carcinoma Adenoid squamous cell carcinoma Spindle cell carcinoma Adenosquamous carcinoma Undifferentiated carcinoma
2. Benign lesions capable of microscopically resembling oral squamous cell carcinoma and oral verrucous carcinoma Papillary hyperplasia Granular cell tumor Discoid lupus erythematosus Median rhomboid glossitis Keratoacanthoma Necrotizing sialometaplasia Juxtaoral organ of Chievitz Chronic hyperplastic candidiasis Verruciform xanthoma Verruca vulgaris Condyloma acuminatum
3. Precancerous lesions (Clinical classification) Leukoplakia Erythroplakia Palatal keratosis associated with reverse smoking
4. Precancerous lesions (Histological classification) Squamous epithelial dysplasia Squamous cell carcinoma in situ Solar keratosis
5. Benign lesions capable of resembling oral precancerous lesions White lesions resembling leukoplakia red lesions resembling erythroplakia Focal epithelial hyperplasia Reactive and regenerative atypia
6. Precancerous conditions Sideropenic dysphagia Lichen planus Oral submucous fibrosis Syphilis Discoid lupus erythematosus Xeroderma pigmentosum Epidermolysis bullosa

MCQs on Complete Dentures: Border Moulding and Posterior Palatal Seal - Prosthodontics

# The upper denture falls when the patient opens his mouth wide. This is due to:
A. Thick labial flange
B. Over extended borders
C. Thick Disto buccal flange
D. Poor Peripheral Seal

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# Distolingual extension of the mandibular impression for a complete denture is limited by the action of :
A. Stylohyoid muscle
B. Medial pterygoid muscle
C. Lateral Pterygoid muscle
D. Superior Constrictor Muscle

# Posterior Palatal Seal (PPS) anatomically is :
A. Pterygomaxillary notches and Fovea Palatine
B. Pterygomaxillary notches and PNS
C. Maxillary tuberosity and Pterygomandibular Raphe
D. Posterior limit of palatine bone

# Secondary peripheral seal area in mandible is provided by:
A. Buccal Shelf
B. Anterior lingual Border
C. Retromolar pad
D. Crest of the ridge

# Increased depth in posterior palatal seal area in mandible is provided by :
A. Tingling sensation
B. Gagging
C. Increased retention
D. Unseating of denture base

# The posterior palatal seal for a maxillary complete denture :
A. Is placed immediately posterior to the vibrating line
B. Is placed immediately anterior to the vibrating line
C. Is not necessary if a metal base is made
D. Will vary in outline and depth according to the palatal form

# The coronoid process :
A. Limits the extension of maxillary posterior teeth setting
B. Limits the thickness of the distobuccal flange of the upper complete denture
C. Limits the thickness of the distobuccal flange of the lower complete denture
D. Determines Posterior palatal seal

# The function of the posterior palatal seal is:
A. To aid in balanced occlusion
B. To aid in insertion and removal of complete denture
C. To ensure a complete seal thus helping in retention of a denture
D. Retention of mandibular denture by sealing its posterior margin

# The buccal frenal attachment of mandibular denture should be trimmed and rounded to allow proper function of :
A. Masseter
B. Buccinator
C. Triangularis
D. Zygomaticus major

# Over extension of the posterior border of the denture causes:
A. Gagging sensation
B. Epulis fissuration
C. Sagging of the corners of the mouth
D. All of the above

# Distal palatal termination of the maxillary complete denture base is dictated by the:
A. Vibrating line
B. Fovea palatine
C. Tuberosity
D. Maxillary torus

# Incorporation of peripheral seal in an impression is necessary to obtain :
A. Stability
B. Functionally moulded periphery
C. Harmonious occlusion
D. Posterior palatal seal

# In determining the posterior limit of a maxillary denture base, which of the following is on the posterior border?
A. Hamular notch
B. Hamular process
C. Fovea palatine
D. Vibrating line

# Vibrating line is on the :
A. Hard palate
B. Junction of the hard palate and soft palate
C. On soft palate
D. At the junction of the muscularis uvulae and palatine muscle

# Post dam area serves mainly to:
A. Preventing ingress of food and saliva beneath denture base
B. Preventing lifting away of denture during incising
C. Stabilize the denture
D. All of the above

# Distobuccal flange of mandibular denture is influenced by:
A. Masseter
B. Buccinator
C. Temporalis
D. Platysma


# Broad palatal seal indicates :
A. Type A palatal form
B. Type B palatal form
C. Type C palatal form
D. None of the above

# Which of the following is not a mouth temperature waxes?
A. Adaptol
B. Korrecta type I
C. HL physiologic paste
D. IOWA paste

# Posterior palatal seal is recorded when the head is bent at:
A. 30 degrees
B. 15 degrees
C. 60 degrees
D. 45 degrees

# Instructing the patient to say "AH" with short vigorous bursts will help in visualizing :
A. Soft palate
B. Posterior vibrating line
C. Anterior vibrating line
D. Junction of soft and hard palate

# Fovea palatine are situated in:
A. Hard palate
B. Soft palate
C. At the junction of hard and soft palate
D. Their position is not fixed

# Which muscle has dual function as related to complete dentures?
A. Masseter
B. Buccinator
C. Temporalis
D. Lateral Pterygoid

# The correctly placed posterior palatal seal creates :
A. Vacuum in posterior part of the palate
B. Vacuum beneath the maxillary denture
C. Partial vacuum beneath the maxillary denture
D. A close adaptation of maxillary denture at tuberosity

# Anterior vibrating line is located on:
A. Soft palatal tissue
B. Hard palatal tissue
C. Either on soft or hard palatal tissue
D. Posterior to Fovea palatine

# Mandibular complete denture should cover retromolar pad because:
A. More surface area gives better retention
B. Provides border seal
C. Resists movement of denture base
D. All of the above

# Posterior palatal seal is seen in:
A. Hard palate
B. Soft palate
C. Junction of hard and soft palate
D. Both of them

# A high tracing device is used for:
A. Extra oral graphic tracings
B. Intra oral graphic tracings
C. Cephalometric tracings
D. Determining focal forms

# The average intercondylar distance which is adequate for complete dentures is:
A. 110 mm
B. 120 mm
C. 115 mm
D. 140 mm

# The primary cause of Bennet movement is due to contraction of :
A. Lateral pterygoid
B. Medial pterygoid
C. Masseter
D. Temporalis

# Posterior palatal seal is present on:
A. Hard palate
B. Rugae area
C. Movable soft palate
D. Immovable soft palate

# Fovea palatine are:
A. Structures through which blood supply takes place
B. Mucosal salivary glands
C. Palatal termination of maxillary denture
D. Found in every individual

# During recording of the posterior palatal seal, face is tilted down 30 degrees to touch the sternum:
A. to activate the muscle of palate and pharynx
B. to activate the muscle of soft palate only
C. to prevent flow of material to throat
D. to help in sucking and swallowing

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MCQs on Developmental disturbances of Orofacial Region - Oral Pathology Part 4

# The cyst which is found within the bone at the junction of the globular process, the lateral nasal process and maxillary process is :
A. Naso-alveolar cyst
B. Globulomaxillary cyst
C. Nasopalatine cyst
D. Mid palatine cyst

# The histological appearance of " lava following around boulders in dentin dysplasia " suggests :
A. Attempt to repair the defective dentin
B. Abrupt arrest to dentin formation in crown
C. Abnormal dentin formation in disorganised fashion
D. Cascades of dentin to form root

# A four year old child with one tooth less than the normal dentition shows a large tooth with two crowns and two root canals. The anomaly is :
A. Dilaceration
B. Fusion
C. Concrescence
D. Gemination

# Which of the following is most common developmental cyst ?
A. Nasopalatine cyst
B. Naso- alveolar cyst
C. Globulomaxillary cyst
D. Median palatal cyst

# A 6 year old patient with extra cusp on maxillary central incisor is associated with all except :
A. Mohr's syndrome
B. Sturge- weber syndrome
C. Rubinstein Taybi Syndrome
D. Proteus Syndrome

# Taurodontism is seen in :
A. Klinefelter's syndrome
B. Sturge weber syndrome
C. Down syndrome
D. Turner syndrome

# Static bone cyst is cyst developing from ?
A. Infection of salivary gland in the mandible
B. Tissue of odontogenic apparatus
C. Tissue of the oral mucosa
D. None of the above

# Most common site for melanotic neuroectodermal tumor of infancy (MNTI) is :
A. Maxilla
B. Mandible
C. Ethmoid bone
D. Cervical Spine

# A girl suffering from browning of teeth, wearing of enamel but not cavitory. OPG shows obliteration of pulp with narrowing of canal and deposition of secondary dentin, she gave the history that out of her four brothers, 2 are suffering from the same disease. She is suffering from :
A. Amelogenesis imperfecta
B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
C. FLuorosis
D. Odontodysplasia

# Cysts associated with vital teeth are :
A. Dentigerous cyst, Globulomaxillary teeth , Lateral periodontal cyst , OKC
B. Dentigerous cyst , Globulomaxillary cyst , Radicular cyst
C. Dentigerous cyst , OKC , radicular cyst
D. B and C

# Failure of descent of thyroid analage can be seen in the tongue :
A. In anterior 2/3 of dorsal aspect
B. In posterior 1/3 of dorsal aspect
C. Near the base of the tongue close to foramen caecum
D. In anterior 2/3 of inferior surface

# Premaxilla - Premaxillary cyst :
A. Nasoalveolar cyst
B. Nasopalatine cyst
C. Incisive canal
D. Globulomaxillary cyst
# Geographic tongue is of red color because of :
A. Infiltration of eosinophils
B. Infiltration of neutrophils
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

# According to Veau's classification of cleft lip and palate , isolated cleft palate falls under :
A. Group I
B. Group II
C. Group III
D. Group IV

# Developmental enamel defects are most commonly seen in :
A. Primary incisors
B. Primary second molar
C. Permanent incisors
D. Permanent first molar

# Based on the degree to which apical displacement of the pulpal floor is seen , " Cynodont " is the name given to :
A. Hypotaurodont
B. Mesotaurodont
C. Hypertaurodont
D. Normal tooth
# Fordyce granules mostly occurs in all of the following areas EXCEPT :
A. Vermillion of the lip
B. Posterior tonsillar pillar
C. Alveolar ridge
D. Palate

# Brittle bone syndrome is caused by :
A. Improper synthesis of procollagen
B. Polymerisation of collagen
C. Increased osteoclastic activity
D. Increased fibroblastic activity

# A 7 year old child has yellowish discoloured spot of maxillary central incisor. His mother presents a history of injury to deciduous tooth three years back with recurrent infections and swelling. The diagnosis is :
A. Turners hypoplasia
B. Generalised dental fluorosis
C. Syphillitic hypoplasia
D. Rickets hypomineralisation

# Marked reduction in amount of dentin, widening of predentin layer, presence of large area of interglobular dentin and irregular pattern of dentin is seen in :
A. Hypocalcified dentin
B. Odontodysplasia
C. Dentin dysplasia
D. Dentinogenesis imperfecta

# Amelogenesis imperfecta is a disorder of :
A. Ectoderm
B. Mesoderm
C. Endoderm
D. Ecto and Mesoderm

# A child has marked difference of crown, root size, eruption pattern of left and right side of jaw. The condition is :
A. Crouzan Syndrome
B. Hemifacial hypertrophy
C. Cherubism
D. Achondroplasia

# Hypodontia is mainly found in all, except :
A. Papillon Levefre syndrome
B. Osteopetrosis
C. Cleidocranial dysostosis
D. Ectodermal dysplasia

# Most characteristic feature of mandibulofacial dysostosis is :
A. Normal hearing
B. Normal vision with coloboma
C. Mandibular prognathism
D. Vertical maxillary excess

# How will you differentiate between fibrous dysplasia and facial hemiatrophy ?
A. Size of the face
B. Distance between the anatomical soft tissue landmarks from midline
C. Shape, size and difference in eruption pattern of teeth
D. Shape of tooth and supporting structures

# A true cyst which is derived from stellate reticulum and grows in place of tooth is known as ?
A. Primordial cyst
B. Eruption cyst
C. Dentigerous cyst
D. Radicular cyst

# Supernumerary tooth, tooth within tooth is most commonly seen in :
A. Maxillary lateral incisors
B. Mandibular second premolar
C. Mandibular incisors
D. Mandibular central and lateral incisors

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