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What is Root Canal Treatment (RCT)? Why do I need to Do RCT?

Root canal Treatment, a sophisticated term as it may seem to the general public, is the treatment done to a tooth with severe decay to such an extent that it has already involved the innermost pulpal layer of the tooth. It is not to be feared as many people do and have negative emotions attached to the term as well as the procedure.


The tooth is a mineralized tissue of the body, which once formed completely, doesn't regenerate if it is lost due to caries or is broken. The tooth tissue once lost due to demineralization and cavitation will not be restored unless some inert and biocompatible material is filled into the cavity after removing the decayed portion and the causative bacteria from the lesion.

The tooth decay which begins as a pit and fissure caries at first is reversible and can be arrested if a favorable environment for remineralization is provided. The initial carious lesion involving enamel only or superficial layer of dentin can be restored with Glass Ionomer Cements or Dental Composite Restorative resins by simply preparing a cavity of adequate shape and size for the restorative material to remain there and function properly for a long time. If the decay is to that extent that it involves the pulp, simply filling the cavity  will not eliminate the pain and halt the carious process. So, the pulpal tissue within the crown portion of tooth (the part of tooth that is seen clinically) as well as from the root canal. The canal should be cleaned up to clear all the bacteria and the root canal should be shaped and enlarged such that it can receive an inert filler into it (gutta percha) and then it can be restored to function as a normal tooth.

Root canal treatment is the best option to treat irreversible pulpitis and conserves natural tooth structure because:
- Artificial prostheses are not as good as natural dentition however close they may resemble it
- The patient doesn't have to undergo extraction (invasive procedure much feared  by patients) and the need for prosthesis
- Cost of treatment is cheaper and the tooth becomes functional very early.

Hence, Root canal treatment is the best treatment plan for your severely painful tooth in which the caries has already reached upto pulp but that can be saved via endodontic treatment.

# Gingiva is attached to tooth by:

# Gingiva is attached to tooth by:
A. Epithelial attachment
B. Periodontal Ligament
C. Connective tissue fibers
D. Lamina Propria

Answer: A, Epithelial Attachment

- Gingiva is attached to tooth by Junctional Epithelium which forms a collar around the tooth. It is wider (15-30 cells thick) at the floor of the gingival sulcus and tapers apically to a final thickness of some 3-4 cells. 


- Surface cells of the junctional epithelium provide the actual attachment of gingiva to tooth tissue (the epithelium being sometimes referred to as attachment epithelium)

- The internal basal lamina of Junctional epithelium unites the epithelium to tooth whereas the external basal lamina of junctional epithelium unites the epithelium to the connective tissue of the gingiva. 

- Basal lamina of junctional epithelium is devoid of type IV collagen and type VIII is present.

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Types of Cementum / Classification of Cementum

Schroeder has classified Cementum as follows:

A. Acellular Afibrillar Cementum (AAC)
- Contains neither cells nor extrinsic or intrinsic collagen fibers apart from a mineralized ground substance
- It is a product of cementoblasts
- In humans, it is found in the coronal cementum

B. Acellular Extrinsic Fiber Cementum (AEFC)
- It is composed entirely of densely packed bundles of Sharpey's fibers and lacks cells.
- It is a product of fibroblasts and cementoblasts
- In humans, it is found in the cervical 1/3rd of roots but may extend further apically


C. Cellular Mixed Stratified Cementum (CMSC)
- It is composed of extrinsic (Sharpey's) and predominantly intrinsic fibers and contains cells
- It is coproduct of fibroblasts and cementoblasts
- In humans, it appears primarily in the apical third of the roots and the apices and in the furcation areas

D. Cellular Intrinsic Fiber Cementum (CIFC)
- Contains cells but no collagen fibers
- It is formed by cementoblasts.
- In humans, it fills resorption lacunae.


# Width of attached gingiva:

# Width of attached gingiva:
A. Decreases with age
B. Increases with age
C. Remains the same
D. Is not age-related

Answer:
B. Increases with age


Because the mucogingival junction remains stationary throughout adult life, changes in the width of attached gingiva are caused by the modification in the position of the coronal end.

The width of attached gingiva increases with age and in supraerupted teeth, with the wear of the incisal edge and continued tooth eruption. The gingival margin of the tooth, therefore the entire dentogingival complex, moves coronally with a resulting increase in width of the attached gingiva.

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How Long Do Dental Restorations Last?

This is one of the most frequently faced questions by a dentist, "Doctor, How long will my dental restoration last?" In the competitive world of today, people are taken away by the fake promises and guarantees the corporations and manufacturer companies make and expect everything to have a guarantee. But, this question, in particular, is ridiculous because we cannot predict the health or disease of any person or how long will he last!

But, answering the  question, the life of any dental restoration depends principally upon four factors:
- remaining tooth structure
- material with which the tooth is being restored
- clinical technique & expertise of the dentist i.e. how well the restoration is done
- post-restoration environmental challenges the tooth is subjected to

Let's see all these one by one.

i) Remaining tooth structure

"A stitch in time saves nine." This age-old proverb can be well realized in dentistry. We can expect the dental restorations' cost to be cheaper, less time consuming and successful for a long time too if the treatment is done as early as possible. We cannot expect a tooth with cavity extending up to the cervical third of crown involving pulp with almost two-thirds of the crown lost already to have the same prognosis as that of the tooth with cavity extending only up to the enamel layer or superficial dentinal layer.

A restoration may fail due to several reasons:
No 1. - Restoration may fracture if its bulk is too small or its mechanical strength is too low.
No 2. - The tooth may fracture if most of the tooth structure is already lost or excessive occlusal force is applied on the restored tooth.
No. 3 - Failure at the tooth restoration junction: If there is no proper seal at the tooth restoration junction, the food materials, and bacteria can percolate through the breach into the tooth and can cause secondary caries.


Let's see the second factor determining the life of dental restoration.

ii) Material with which the tooth is being restored :

Three major dental restorative materials currently used in dentistry are: 
- Glass ionomer cement
- Dental composite resins
- Amalgams (not used in many countries but still used in some due to the environmental hazard of mercury)

Different types of glass ionomer cement according to their use are available. Glass ionomers are used mostly in the deciduous teeth of children but they can be used adults too and latest GICs with improved properties have been reported to last about 3-5 years too.

Regarding dental composite resins and amalgams, they have similar strength and longevity provided that, the restoration is done meticulously in ideal conditions.

A rule of thumb for clinical service of restoration is that occlusal restorations are stressed an average of one million times per year. And, typically material fails in the range of 10-100 million cycle range during laboratory testing. 

Also, different products from different manufacturers have different mechanical properties. You cannot expect a composite resin from some unknown manufacturer in China to work equally well as that from an internationally renowned brand. 


The third factor determining the longevity of restoration is the clinical technique and expertise. 

iii) How well the dentist has restored the tooth?

Just because the dentist is old and experienced doesn't mean that he will do the restoration well. A dentist who can do well, may not do his best at all times if he is inattentive or is in a hurry. Improper isolation of tooth and contamination by saliva during the procedure also might have compromised the strength. 

And the last and most important factor for the longevity of dental restorations is:

iv) Post-restoration environmental challenges the tooth is subject to

How long would your house last if it were subjected to hot sweet coffee and immediately to freezing cold ice cream? How long would it last if it were struck for about 5000 times daily? What if it is subjected to acidic pH as low as 3 and to alkaline pH as high as 11 within a few minutes? That is what our dental restoration has to sustain. We eat and drink acidic and alkaline foods, hard and soft foods, cold and hot foods, every sort of food without any consideration. How long will it be before the material fatigue occurs in the restoration and breaks down?
By now, you might have understood what I mean to say. But it is a safe bet to say that dental restorations will last about an average of 6-8 years if all the above factors are considered. However, there are cases of restoration failures the very next day as well as some amalgam restorations about 30 years old.

How long has your restoration lasted? What was the material? Please Comment Below for record purpose. Feedback and Suggestions for the article are heartily welcome.


What is Halal Food? - FAO Guidelines for Halal Food

GENERAL GUIDELINES FOR USE OF THE TERM “HALAL”

CAC/GL 24-1997[27]

The Codex Alimentarius Commission accepts that there may be minor differences in opinion in the interpretation of lawful and unlawful animals and in the slaughter act, according to the different Islamic Schools of Thought. As such, these general guidelines are subjected to the interpretation of the appropriate authorities of the importing countries. However, the certificates granted by the religious authorities of the exporting country should be accepted in principle by the importing country, except when the latter provides justification for other specific requirements.


1 SCOPE

1.1 These guidelines recommend measures to be taken on the use of Halal claims in food labeling.

1.2 These guidelines apply to the use of the term halal and equivalent terms in claims as defined in General Standard for the Labelling of Prepackaged Foods and include its use in trademarks, brand names and business names.

1.3 These guidelines are intended to supplement the Codex General Guidelines on Claims and do not supersede any prohibition contained therein.


2 DEFINITION

2.1 Halal Food means food permitted under Islamic Law and should fulfill the following conditions:

2.1.1 does not consist of or contain anything which is considered to be unlawful according to Islamic Law;

MCQs on NSAIDs and Other CNS Drugs Part 1

The correct answers are highlighted in Green. Once you have finished studying these MCQs, Test yourself by watching the video at the bottom of the page.

#  Which of the following drugs is least efficacious in the treatment of temporal lobe epilepsy? (MAN-94, AIIMS-93)
a) Phenobarbitone
b) Phenytoin sodium
c) Primidone
d) Carbamazepine

# All are true of diazepenes except: (MAN-02)
a) Benzodiazepam is used in treatment of status epilepticus
b) Benzodiazepam is used in the long term treatment of psychic disorders
c) Clonazepam is used in the treatment of petit mal epilepsy
d) None of the above

# Morphine is contraindicated in all of the following except (MAN-02)
a) Pulmonary oedema 
b) Emphysema
c) Bronchial asthma 
d) Head injury

# Aspirin produces all of the following effects except: (MAN-02)
a) Frank gastric bleeding
b) Prolonged prothrombin time
c) Platelet dysfunction
d) Constipation

# Which of the following is not a contraindication in the therapy with opioids? (MAN-2K)
a) Use in head injury patient
b) Use in impaired pulmonary function
c) Use of agonist with mixed agonist-antagonist
d) Use in severe constant pain

# Which of the following can be given safely to a patient of congestive heart failure? (MAN-2K)
a) Aspirin 
b) Paracetamol
c) Diclofenac sodium 
d) Ibuprofen

# A common side effect associated with all NSAID drugs is: (MAN-98)
a) Drowsiness 
b) Gastric irritation
c) Xerostomia 
d) Constipation

# Which of the following is an irreversible side effect resulting from long term administration of phenothiazine antipsychotics? (MAN-97)
a) Infertility 
b) Parkinsonism
c) Tardive dyskinesia 
d) B & C

# Verrill's sign is seen in: (MAN-2K, AP-2001)
a) Diazepam administration
b) Digitalis toxicity
c) Paget's disease 
d) Unconscious states

# Which of the following anti inflammatory drug is a COX- 2 inhibitor? (AIPG-01)
a) Rofecoxib
b) Ketoprofen
c) Aspirin
d) Sulidec 

# One of the benzodiazepines (BDZ) comparatively safe in pregnancy is (Category -B): (KAR-2003)
a) Zolpidem
b) Lorazepam
c) Alprazolam
d) None of them

# Morphine a powerful opioid analgesic drug should be avoided in all the following conditions except: (AIPG-01)
a) Bronchial asthma
b) Left ventricular failure
c) Pancreatitis
d) Constipation

# All the following decrease skeletal muscle tone by CNS effects except: (AIPG-99)
a) Diazepam
b) D-tubocurarine
c) Baclofen
d) Mephensin

# Which of the following anti-epileptic agents causes the reversible side-effect of gingival hyperplasia? (MAN-99)
a) Sodium valproate
b) Ethosuximide
c) Phenobarbitone
d) None of them

# NSAID's have adverse effect on: (AIPG-97)
a) Liver
b) Bone
c) Stomach
d) Kidney

# Salicylate overdose in children causes: (AIPG-93)
a) Crystalluria
b) Reye's syndrome
c) Kernicterus
d) None of them

# Carbamazepine is a type of: (AIPG-97)
a) Antiemetic
b) Anti-inflammatory
c) Antidepressant
d) Antibiotic


# Drug which causes gingival hyperplasia: (AIPG-94)
a) Cyclosporin & Nifedipine
b) None of them
c) Aspirin
d) Erythromycin

# All the following statements about opioids is correct except: (AIPG-2001)
a) Pentazocine shows withdrawal symptoms in opioid dependent patients
b) Pentazocine and buprinorphine
c) Ethomorphine is similar to pethidine chemically
d) Partial agonists are free from classic opioid adverse effects

# A patient on 300 mg of aspirin will show all the following except: (AIIMS-94)
a) Prolonged bleeding time
b) Irreversible inhibition of cyclooxygenase path way
c) Inhibition of prostaglandin PGI2
d) Inhibition of thromboxane TXA2

# Thiopentone action is terminated by: (AIPG-99)
a) Metabolism
b) Redistribution
c) Excretion
d) Recycling

# Amyl nitrate is most commonly administered: (MAN-98)
a) Sub lingually
b) Orally
c) Intravenously
d) By inhalation

# Clotting time is most likely to be prolonged by the administration of:
a) Barbiturates
b) Vitamin K
c) Acetaminophen
d) Acetyl salicylic acid

# Aspirin acts on which part of brain? (AIIMS-92)
a) Cortex
b) Medulla
c) Substantia gelatinosa
d) Limbic system

# Antagonist of morphine is: (AIPG-93)
a) Nalpuphine
b) Nalosphine
c) Methadine
d) Naloxone

# Carbamazepine is contraindicated in? (AIPG - 14)
a) Temporal lobe epilepsy
b) Juvenile myoclonus epilepsy
c) None of them
d) Generalized tonic clonic

# Phenytoin is associated with: (AIPG-97, 96)
a) Cushing's syndrome
b) Folic acid deficiency
c) Vitamin C deficiency
d) Alzheimer's disease

# Aspirin causes: (AIPG-97)
a) Hemolytic anemia
b) Aplastic Anaemia
c) Hypoprothrombinemia
d) Agranulocytosis

# Aspirin is used in treatment of Myocardial Infarction: (AIPG-02)
a) It inhibits thromboxanes
b) It helps in reducing inflammatory aggregate
c) It stimulates Prostacyclins
d) It is a vasodilator

# Amitryptyline is a: (AP-03)
a) Tricyclic antidepressant
b) Sedative
c) Antibiotic
d) Diuretic

# Drug which is used to control status epitepticus is: (AP-97, AIPG-93)
a) Glyceryl trinitrite
b) Phero barbital
c) Sodium nitroprusside
d) Diazepam

# Narcotic overdose can be antagonized by: (MAN-99)
a) Nalorphine
b) Naloxone
c) Diphenhydramine
d) Atropine

# An attack of migraine can be easily terminated by: (AIPG-99)
a) Acetylcholine
b) Ergotamine
c) Morphine
d) Ibuprofen

# Which of the following drugs causes extra pyramidal symptoms? (PGI-2K)
a) Antibiotics
b) Barbiturates
c) Salicylates
d) Phenothiazines

# Pregnant patient can be safely given: (AP-2K)
a) Paracetamol
b) Barbiturates
c) Tetracycline
d) Metronidazole

# Aspirin is avoided in children with influenza infection because of association of: (KAR-99)
a) Nausea
b) Diarrhoea
c) Acid-base imbalance
d) Reye's syndrome

# Nausea and vomiting that are associated with administration of opioid analgesic is the result of stimulation of the: (MAN-97)
a) Emetic system
b) Opioid receptors in G.I.T.
c) Limbic system
d) Chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ)

# Prolonged use of aspirin causes: (AIPG-98)
a) Hypophosphatasia
b) Hypercalcemia
c) Hyperprothrombinemia
d) Hypoprothrombinemia

# The intramuscular administration of 0.6 mg of atropine sulphate to a 50 kg adult may produce all of the following: effects except: (AIIMS-93)
a) Mydriasis
b) Bradycardia
c) Decreased sweating
d) Decreased salivation

# Prolonged use of aspirin leads to: (AIPG-98)
a) Carcinoma
b) Bleeding defects
c) Peptic ulcer
d) B & C

# Phenothiazines are used to: (AIPG-2003)
a) Suppress coughing
b) Produce muscle relaxation
c) Alter psychotic behaviour
d) Produce analgesia

#  A 50 year old female with end stage renal disease (ESRD), develops pulmonary tuberculosis. Which one of the following drugs should be used in a reduced dose? (KCET-2011)
a) Ethambutol
b) Pyrazamide
c) Isoniazide
d) Rifampicin

# Drug that does not cause sedation: (AIPG-2011)
a) Zopiclone
b) Nitrazepam
c) Buspirone
d) Diazepam

# An attack of bronchial asthma is most likely to be triggered by: (KAR-99)
a) Aspirin
b) Mefenamic acid
c) None of them
d) Diclofenac potassium