Periodontics / Periodontology and Implant Dentistry Question Paper - BPKIHS 4th Year BDS, VIII Sem, July 2018

Time - 1 Hour 20 minutes
 Total Marks: 60
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
SECTION - 'A'
Maximum Marks - 30
1. Define and classify infrabony pocket. Describe the pathogenesis of infrabony pocket. (2+3=5)
2. Define periodontal plastic surgery (PPS). (2+3=5)
3. Describe different Radiographic presentations of Malignancy.  (5)
4. Enumerate receptors used for digital imaging. Highlight the recent advances in digital imaging. (2+3=5)
5. Describe the pathogenesis of Oral submucous fibrosis with applied aspect in therapy. (3+2=5)
6. List the four methods of assessing Professionalism and Ethics in an individual and highlight any one.
(2+3=5)



SECTION 'B'
MODIFIED ESSAY QUESTIONS

Maximum Marks: 30
I. A 20-year-male complains of swelling in the lower front region of the jaw. The swelling is insidious in onset and gradually increasing but asymptomatic. The left submandibular lymph node was palpable 1 cm in size mobile and firm. There was a large swelling in the anterior mandible crossing the midline with the displacement of teeth.

Q1. Based on the above history and clinical findings, give three differential diagnosis with reasons. (3)
Q2. Enlist two radiographs of choice with reasons. (2)

On radiographic examination, there is a multilocular radiolucency within the site stated and histopathological section showed multinucleated giant cell within a background of proliferating mesenchymal cells. 
Q3. Enumerate other characteristic radiographic features. (3)
Q4. Mention two laboratory investigations with reasons.  (2)
Q5. State the final diagnosis. (1)
Q6. Outline medical management. (4)

II. A fifty-year-old female complains of gum swelling for one year. It was associated with mobility and pus discharge. On taking history she had excessive thirst, hunger, and increased urination during sleep. 
Q7. State the systemic disease for the case. (1)

On examination, she had decreased saliva and multiple periodontal abscesses.
Q8. Enumerate the causes of dryness of mouth. (2)
Q9. Describe the association between the periodontal disease and the medical condition. (4)

The extraction is planned as the tooth has a poor prognosis.
Q10. Describe laboratory diagnostic criteria for the disease. (3)
Q11. Mention the signs and symptoms of medical emergencies in the dental office with its management protocol.


(2+3=5)

AIIMS MDS Entrance Examination MCQs - November 2003


# History of dislike for sweet food items is typically present in:
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Glycogen storage diseases
C. Hereditary fructose intolerance
D. Galactosemia

# Excessive intake (hypervitaminosis) of which of the following vitamins is associated with increased risk of congenital malformations?
A. Vitamin A
B. Biotin
C. Folic acid
D. Vitamin K



# Gold standard surgical procedure for prevention of aspiration is:
A. Thyroplasty
B. Tracheostomy
C. Tracheal division and permanent tracheostome
D. Feeding gastrostomy / jejunostomy

# The presence of small size platelets on the peripheral smear is characteristic of:
A. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
B. Bernard Soulier syndrome
C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
D. Wiskott Aldrich Syndrome

# Which one of the following therapeutic mode is commonly employed in intra operative radiotherapy?
A. X-rays
B. Gamma rays
C. Photon
D. Electrons

# Radiation therapy to hypoxic tissue may be potentiated by the treatment with:
A. Methotrexate
B. Metronidazole
C. Meiphalan
D. Mycostatin

# The most accepted theory of dental caries is:
A. Proteolytic theory
B. Proteolysis-chelation theory
C. Parasitic theory
D. Miller's acidogenic theory or Chemicoparasitic theory

# The iatrogenic traumatic facial nerve palsy is most commonly caused due to:
A. Myringoplasty
B. Stapedectomy
C. Mastoidectomy
D. Ossiculoplasty

# Which of the following disorders is likely to result in a prolonged bleeding time?
A. Hemophilia A
B. Hemophilia B
C. Hemophilia C
D. Thrombocytopenia

# The most successful treatment for a vital primary second molar with a large carious pulp exposure is:
A. Formocresol pulpotomy
B. Indirect pulp capping
C. Pulpotomy with calcium hydroxide
D. Pulp capping with calcium hydroxide

# The origin of calcium ions in a calcified bridge formed by calcium hydroxide is:
A. from calcium hydroxide itself
B. from underlying dentin
C. through blood stream via pulp
D. from periapical tissues

# A radiograph shows an abscessed primary second molar with severe furcation involvement. The developing bud of the second premolar is partially enclosed within its roots. To resolve this problem without disturbing the permanent tooth bud, the proper treatment is:
A. Section the tooth and remove portions individually
B. Lift a flap and remove sufficient alveolar bone to allow extraction
C. Remove the tooth with a short-beak dental forceps by luxating slowly
D. Perform pulp therapy and postpone extraction until sufficient root resorption has occurred

# The undesirable side effect most commonly associated with the use of a buccal coil spring to regain space for a mandibular second premolar is:
A. Pain
B. Gingival irritation
C. Tendency for the first molar to intrude
D. Tendency for the first premolar to rotate

# A child accidentally swallows 10cc of a 10% fluoride solution. The most effective immediate action is to:
A. Have the child drink copious quantities of water
B. Have the child drink a 10% sodium bicarbonate solution
C. Have the child drink milk or some other calcium containing liquid
D. Send the child to family physician

# Which of the following local anesthetic is an ester?
A. Procaine
B. Lidocaine
C. Etidocaine
D. Prilocaine

# A 7 year old patient has a unilateral cross bite due to functional shift of the mandible. The management involves:
A. Bilateral expansion of the maxillary arch
B. Unilateral expansion of maxillary posterior teeth on the side of functional shift
C. Expansion of the maxilla opposite to the side of functional shift
D. Observation

# The most effective means of limiting applied loads to abutment teeth in a distal extension RPD is by:
A. Splinting abutments
B. Using a stress breaker
C. Using acrylic replacement teeth
D. Maintaining a stable base-tissue relationship

# When porcelain is baked against metal, it should possess a:
A. High fusion expansion
B. High fusion temperature
C. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion less than but close to that of the metal
D. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion greater than but close to that of the metal

# The modulus of elasticity means:
A. Rigidity or stiffness of the material
B. Ability to be stretched with permanent deformation
C. Ductility of the material
D. Malleability of the material

# When a simple tipping force is applied to the crown of a single rooted tooth, the center of rotation is usually located:
A. At the apex
B. Within the apical 1/3rd of the root
C. Within the middle 1/3rd of the root
D. Within the coronal 1/3rd of the root

# Most common cause of bruxism is:
A. Occlusal prematurity
B. Emotional stress
C. Periodontal disease
D. Muscle hypertrophy

# A patient complains of dull pain in the TMJ on awakening. He is suffering from:
A. Bruxism
B. Trigeminal neuralgia
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Rheumatoid arthritis

# In the treatment of pericoronitis, :
A. Antibiotics are given only if fever and trismus is present
B. Antibiotics are always given
C. Antibiotics are never given
D. Antibiotics are given with steroids

# The treatment for TMJ dislocation is:
A. No treatment
B. Condylectomy
C. Manual reduction
D. Intermaxillary fixation

# The drug used in dissociative anesthesia is:
A. Phosphoric acid
B. Sodium bicarbonate
C. Ketamine
D. Fentanyl dorperidol

# Laryngeal mask airway (LMA) is used for:
A. Maintenance of the airway
B. Facilitating laryngeal surgery
C. Prevention of aspiration
D. Removing oral secretions

# Which of the following organism is found in periodontal diseases?
A. Bacteroides
B. Wolinella
C. Neisseria
D. Eikenella

# The most common response to frustration is:
A. Denial
B. Aggression
C. Submission
D. Fantasy

# The principal component of plaque is:
A. Dextrans
B. Lactic acid
C. Microorganisms
D. Materia alba

# All of the following are pneumatic bone EXCEPT:
A. Maxilla
B. Parietal
C. Ethmoid
D. Mastoid

# In a disclosing solution, the main component is:
A. Erythrosine
B. Basic fuschin
C. Methylene blue
D. Crystal violet

# Mites are the vectors for all EXCEPT:
A. Rickettsial pox
B. Scabies
C. Scrub typhus
D. Kyasanur forest disease

# Nosocomial infection can be caused by all EXCEPT:
A. Mycobacterium
B. Staphylococci sureus
C. Pseudomonas
D. Enterobacteriaceae

# Drains must be removed from a wound after:
A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 48 hours
D. drainage is complete

# The recurrent laryngeal nerve is closest to:
A. Inferior thyroid artery
B. Superior thyroid artery
C. Middle thyroid vein
D. Superior thyroid vein

# Pyronaridine is:
A. Antimalarial drug
B. Antifungal drug
C. Antibacterial drug
D. Anti HIV drug

# Bacterial resistance to antibiotics is transferred by:
A. Conjugation
B. Transformation
C. Transduction
D. Binary fission

# Edema may be caused by:
A. Constriction of arterioles
B. Increased permeability of capillaries
C. Reduced blood pressure in the capillaries
D. A tissue osmotic pressure

# In a study, the data is collected from 100 pregnant women as to the status of usage of calcium supplements and to the status of the decrease of incidence of caries in their children. The appropriate statistical test of hypothesis is:
A. Paired t-test
B. Unpaired or independent t-test
C. Analysis of variance
D. Chi-square test

# Prognosis following fracture of the root of a permanent maxillary incisor is most favourable if the fracture is in the:
A. apical third of the root
B. middle third of the root
C. coronal third of the root
D. unrelated to the location of the fracture

# In a 18 year old person with a 10 mm incisor overlap, a 14 mm horizontal overlap and a ANB = 11 and a facial appearance of mandibular retrusion, all teeth are present with 3 mm crowding in the mandibular arch. Which of the following is required for a successful correction of the problem ?
A. Treatment with combined orthodontics + surgery
B. Orthodontic + Orthopaedic surgery
C. Multibanded orthodontic treatment for 2 years
D. Good patient cooperation with a functional orthodontic appliance

# When using the acid etch technique to restore a class IV fracture, exposed dentin should first be covered with:
A. Cavity varnish
B. A calcium hydroxide liner
C. Phosphoric acid
D. Zinc oxide eugenol cement

# Environmental factors contributing to dental caries include the following:
A. Actinomyces viscosus, Streptococci mutans, and plaque
B. Decreased salivary flow and gingival recession
C. Pits, fissures and irregularities
D. Nutrition, Oral hygiene and Fluoride

# The distolingual extension of a mandibular impression for a complete denture is limited by the action of which muscle?
A. Superior constrictor of pharynx
B. Stylohyoid
C. Medial pterygoid
D. Lateral Pterygoid

# Which of the following factors is most critical in determining whether or not to extract a tooth involved with periodontal diseases?
A. Depth of pockets
B. Mobility of tooth
C. Amount of attachment loss
D. Relationship of adjacent teeth

# What is the primary consideration for saving decisuous teeth?
A. Esthetics
B. Phonetics
C. Maintaining arch length
D. Mastication

# The treatment for aneurysmal bone cyst is:
A. Treatment
B. Curettage
C. Excision
D. Resection

# A patient without prior medication breathes a gas mixture consisting of 50% oxygen and 50% nitrous oxide by volume. Which of the following effects would be expected?
A. analgesia
B. surgical anesthesia
C. excitement
D. ptosis

# Silver amalgam is superior as:
A. better esthetics
B. superior strength
C. ability to bond with the tooth
D. all of the above

# As the filler particle size in composites is increased:
A. Surface smoothness is improved
B. Strength is improved
C. Viscosity is decreased
D. More exposure time is required for curing

# The ideal medium for growing fungi is:
A. Sabourad's agar
B. Thioglycolate broth
C. Blood agar
D. Tissue culture

# Which of the following enzymes is required to induce the formation of a plasma clot in pathogenic Staphylococci?
A. Coagulase
B. Lysozyme
C. S protein
D. Fibrinolysin

# The amount of force needed to compact direct filling gold properly is influenced most by the:
A. Surface area of the condenser
B. Angle of compaction
C. Bulk of the surrounding tooth
D. Temperature at which the gold is annealed

# The gingival crevicular fluid has a predominance of:
A. Neutrophils
B. B-lymphocytes
C. T lymphocytes
D. Macrophages

# Which of the following dental materials is easily confused with caries when viewed radiographically?
A. Calcium hydroxide
B. ZOE
C. Polycarboxylate
D. Zinc phosphate

# The histology of pulp inadvertently exposed during cavity preparation of deep carious lesions shows:
A. Acute inflammatory cells at site of exposure below which chronic inflammatory cells are there on normal pulp
B. Only acute inflammatory cells at site of exposure on a normal pulp
C. Predominantly chronic inflammatory cells at site of exposure
D. None of the above

# The maximum growth of the skull takes place during what age?
A. Birth to 5 years
B. 5-6 years
C. 6-7 years
D. 7-10 years

# When a heavy object in hand is lowered, the extension at the elbow is brought about by:
A. Active shortening of the extensors
B. Passive shortening of the extensors
C. Active lengthening of the flexors
D. Active shortening of the flexors

# If a patient with Raynaud's disease puts his hand in cold water, the hand appears:
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. White
D. Blue

# Carbonic anhydrase in the kidney tubular cells is associated with the reabsorption of:
A. Chloride
B. Urea
C. Bicarbonate
D. Carbohydrate

# All of the following could result from infection within the right cavernous sinus EXCEPT:
A. Loss of papillary blink reflex
B. Loss of corneal blink reflex
C. Ptosis
D. Right Ophthalmoplegia

# Mitochondria is involved in all of the following EXCEPT:
A. ATP production
B. Apoptosis
C. TCA cycle
D. Fatty acid biosynthesis

# A buffer that is most effective at a pH of about 4.5 is:
A. Acetate
B. Bicarbonate
C. Phosphate
D. Tris buffer

# The fasting blood glucose levels for a group of diabetics is found to be normally distributed with a mean of 105mg/100ml of blood and a standard deviation of 10mg/100 ml of blood. From this data, it can be inferred that, approximately 95% of diabetics will have their fasting blood glucose levels within limits of:
A. 75-135 mg/100ml
B. 85-125 mg/100ml
C. 95-115 mg/100ml
D. 65-145 mg/100ml

# The following is true about prevalence and incidence:
A. both are rates
B. prevalence is a rate but incidence is not
C. incidence is a rate but prevalence is not
D. both are not rates

# Implants normally fail in:
A. Chronic smokers
B. Hypertension
C. Diabetics
D. Old people

# Maximum permissible dose of radiation during pregnancy is:
A. 0.5 rads
B. 1 rads
C. 1.5 rads
D. 3 rads

# In a cold curing denture resin, the activator is :
A. Hydroquinone
B. Sodium sulfite
C. Benzoyl peroxide
D. A tertiary amine

# In a double blind clinical drug trial:
A. each patient recieves a placebo
B. each patient receives both (double) treatments
C. the patients do not know which treatment they are receiving
D. the patient do not know that they are in a drug trial

# A 22 year old woman developed small itchy wheals after physical exertion, Walking in the sun, eating hot spicy food and when she was angry. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Chronic idiopathoc urticaria
B. Heat urticaria
C. Solar urticaria
D. Cholinergic urticaria

# If you calculate the plasma osmolality of a child with plasma Na 125mEq/L, glucose 108 mg/dL and BUN (blood urea nitrogen) 140 mg/dL, the most appropriate answer would be:
A. 300 mOsm/kg
B. 306 mOsm/kg
C. 312 mOsm/kg
D. 318 mOsm/kg

# Which of the following disease of endocrine origin can be cured?
A. Phenylketonuira
B. Gaucher's disease
C. Niemann-Pick disease
D. MEN disease

# Transition from G2 to M phase of the cell cycle is controlled by:
A. Retinoblastoma gene product
B. p53 protein
C. Cyclin E
D. Cyclin B

# Hyper coagulability due to defective factor V gene is called:
A. Lisbon mutation
B. Leiden mutation
C. Antiphospholipid syndrome
D. Inducible thrombocytopenic syndrome

# A one year old boy presented with hepatosplenomegaly and delayed milestones. The land biopsy and bone marrow biopsy revealed presence of histiocytes with PAS positive diastase resistant material in the cytoplasm. Electron microscope examination of these histiocytes is most likely to reveal the presence of:
A. Birbeck granules in the cytoplasm
B. Myelin figures in the cytoplasm
C. Parallel rays of tubular structures in lysosomes
D. Electron dense deposit in the mitochondria

# Use of folic acid to prevent congenital malformation should be best initiated:
A. During first trimester of pregnancy
B. During second trimester of pregnancy
C. During third trimester of pregnancy
D. Before conception

# Several hormones regulate the tubular absorption of water and electrolytes at different in the nephron. Which of the following combination is correct?
A. Angiotensin in distal tubule
B. Aldosterone in collecting ducts
C. ADH in proximal tubule
D. ANP in loop of Henle

# NADPH is produced by:
A. Glycolysis
B. Citric acid cycle
C. HMP pathway
D. Glycogenesis

# MRI rooms are shielded completely by a continuous sheet or wire mesh of copper or aluminium to shield the imager from external electromagnetic radiations. This is called:
A. Maxwell cage
B. Faraday cage
C. Edison's cage
D. Ohm's cage

# At the end of anesthesia after discontinuation of nitrous oxide and removal of endotracheal tube, 100% oxygen is administerd to the patient to prevent:
A. Diffusion hypoxia
B. Second gas effect
C. Hyperoxia
D. Bronchospasm

# Marjolin's ulcer is a:
A. malignant ulcer found on the scar of a burn
B. malignant ulcer found on the infected foot
C. trophic ulcer
D. tropical ulcer characterized by absence of pain

# Lymph spread can be detected by:
A. Palpation
B. Angiography
C. X rays
D. Percussion

# A child patient is always fearful of the dental situation. The dentist decides to permit the child to observe his working with a cooperative younger during an operative procedure. The behaviour modification technique used is:
A. Modelling
B. Reinforcement
C. Desensitization
D. Contracting

# In primary molar RCT, the filling material of choice is:
A. Chlorpercha
B. Cavit
C. ZOE without catalyst
D. Calcium hydroxide

# Least maligannt thyroid cancer is:
A. papillary carcinoma
B. follicular carcinoma
C. medullary carcinoma
D. anplastic carcinoma

# The antimicrobial agent which inhibits the ergosterol biosynthesis is:
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Amphotericin B
C. 5 - fLuorouracil
D. Griseofulvin

# After applying a statistical test, the investigator gest the p value as 0.01. It means that:
A. the probability of finding a significant difference is 1 %
B. the probability of declaring a significant difference, when there is truly no difference is 1 %
C. the difference is not significant 1 % times and significant 99% times
D. the power of the test used is 99%

AIIMS MDS Entrance Examination MCQs - November 2002


# Edema may be caused by:
A. Constriction of arterioles
B. Increased permeability of capillaries
C. Reduced blood pressure in the capillaries
D. A tissue osmotic pressure that is lower than that of plasma

# The middle meningeal artery is associated with which foramen?
A. Ovale
B. Rotundum
C. Stylomastoid
D. Spinosum



# Behavior problem in the dental office is traced to the fact that a 3-year-old girl heard about dental difficulties from her mother; the most satisfactory method of handling the situation is to:
A. Introduce another child as a good example
B. Modify her fear by familiarization
C. Use small amount of barbiturates
D. Use firmness

# Prolonged administration of Streptomycin may result in damage to the:
A. Optic Nerve
B. Facial Nerve
C. Auditory nerve
D. Trigeminal nerve

# A patient with grand-mal epilepsy would likely be under treatment with:
A. Meprobamate
B. Pentobarbital
C. Trimethadione
D. Phenytoin

# Which one of the following hormones stimulates contraction of the uterus and let down of the milk?
A. Progesterone
B. Prolactin
C. Prostaglandin
D. Oxytocin

# One of the following is not an amino acid:
A. Glycine
B. Hydroxyproline
C. Glutamic acid
D. Choline

# Which of the following is not a part of epidemiological triad?
A. Agent
B. Host
C. Disease
D. Environment

# A bacterial enzyme capable of altering the ground substance of the periodontal ligament is:
A. Amylase
B. Mucinase
C. Dextranase
D. Hyaluronidase

# A two day old developing plaque consists primarily of:
A. Filamentous organisms
B. Spirochetal organisms
C. Gram positive cocci and rods
D. Gram negative motile organisms

# Which of the following is not true about boiling water?
A. It can kill Hepatitis B virus
B. It is used for sterilization of surgical instruments
C. It can kill Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. It can kill vegetative bacterial cells

# Toxoids are most often prepared by treating toxins with:
A. Pepsin
B. Papain
C. Antitoxin
D. Formaldehyde

# Carbamazepine has been utilized to successfully diminish attacks in trigeminal neuralgia. During this therapy, which of the following is indicated?
A. Clinical observation only
B. Clinical observation and complete blood and platelet counts prior to and at frequent intervals during therapy
C. No monitoring
D. Complete blood investigation only if adverse symptom arise

# Physical sign of severe aortic stenosis is:
A. A late peaking holosystolic murmur
B. A delayed carotid upstroke
C. A diastolic rumble
D. An opening snap

# In myocardial infarction, the first enzyme to rise is:
A. CPK - MB
B. LDH
C. SGOT
D. Amylase

# Which of the following may be a feature of acromegaly?
A. Large tongue
B. Micrognathia
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Crowded teeth

# If a patient who has Raynaud's disease puts his hands in cold water, the hands appear:
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. White
D. Blue

# The type of maxillofacial bone graft having the best chance of success is the:
A. Isograft
B. Xenograft
C. Allograft
D. Autograft

# A 50 year old man has gradual loss of hearing and loss of vision as well as enlargement of maxilla. A provisional diagnosis should include:
A. Osteomalacia
B. Ameloblastoma
C. Paget's disease
D. Multiple myeloma

# In a 19 year old patient, with a swelling over the left angle of the mandible, temperature 38 degree celcius and negative history of trauma, one should suspect:
A. Spontaneous fracture of the mandible
B. Pericoronal infection
C. Mumps
D. Sjogren's syndrome

# Which syndrome consists of flushing, warmness and perspiration over the cheek and pinna of the ear on the side following the ingestion of highly seasoned food?
A. Fanconi's
B. Auriculotemporal
C. Horner's
D. Cushing's

# Acantholysis is an important diagnostic feature in:
A. Pemphigus
B. Lichen planus
C. Erythema multiforme
D. Lupus erythematosus

# Which of the following is innervated by the vagus nerve?
A. The levator veli palatini
B. The posterior belly of digastric
C. Mylohyoid
D. The tensor veli palatini

# The primary site of action of antidiuretic hormone is on the:
A. distal tubules and collecting ducts in the kidney
B. afferent arterioles of the glomeruli
C. thirst center in the hypothalamus
D. osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus

# One of the following is not true for myelinated nerve fiber:
A. Conduction of impulse through myelinated nerve fiber is slower than that in non myelinated nerve fiber
B. Membrane currents are generated at nodes of Ranvier
C. Myelin sheath is composed of lamellated cylinder of fatty material
D. Local anesthetic solution can be effective only where the nerve is not covered by the myelin sheath

# Which of the following muscles is a prime mover in effecting a left working movement?
A. Left lateral pterygoid
B. Right lateral pterygoid
C. Left medial pterygoid
D. Right medial pterygoid


# DNA is found principally in:
A. Nucleolus
B. Nucleus
C. Cytoplasm
D. Mitochondria

# The diploid number of chromosomes is perpetuated in somatic cells by a process of:
A. Meiosis
B. Mitosis
C. Amitosis
D. Cytokinesis

# Ataxia involves a lesion of the:
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Pons
C. Cerebral cortex
D. Cerebellum

# Endocrine glands that are not influenced by the pituitary gland include the:
A. Thyroid gland, testes and the adrenal medulla
B. Adrenal medulla, parathyroid and islets of Langerhans
C. Adrenal cortex, parathyroids and ovaries
D. Pancreas, Adrenal medulla and thyroid gland

# Which hormone together with catecholamines enhances the tone of vascular smooth muscles and assist in elevating the blood pressure?
A. Parathyroid hormone
B. Glucagon
C. Thyroxine
D. Cortisol

# Iodine is primarily important in the biochemical synthesis of :
A. ACTH
B. Thyroxin
C. Adrenalin
D. Calcitonin

# The vitamin that promotes the synthesis by the liver is:
A. Carotene
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin K
D. Folic acid

# PMA is a symbol for a:
A. Pulp capping material
B. Caries index
C. Periodontal index
D. Materia alba index

# Majority of oral microorganisms are:
A. Strict anaerobes
B. Gram positive bacilli
C. Spirochetes
D. Facultative anaerobes

# The ability of the pathogenic Staphylococci to induce the formation of a plasma clot requires release of the enzyme:
A. Amylase
B. Fibrinolysin
C. Coagulase
D. Lysozyme

# The major antiseptic value of soap lies in its ability to:
A. Kill microbes
B. Removes microbes
C. Inhibit microbial growth
D. Dehydrate microbial cells

# Bacterial spores are a problem in sterilizing instruments and equipments because:
A. They are resistant to antibiotics
B. They are easy to kill but are usually protected by organic matter
C. They are comparatively resistant to physical and chemical injuries
D. Most pathogenic bacteria are spore formers

# Amide type local anesthetics are metabolized in the :
A. Serum
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Kidneys

# Valvular lesion most often resulting from myocardial infarcton is:
A. Aortic stenosis
B. Mitral stenosis
C. Mitral regurgitation
D. Pulmonary stenosis

# The most common cause of right ventricular failure is:
A. Seconday to left ventricular failure
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Mitral stenosis
D. Aortic stenosis

# One of the earliest signs of cavernous sinus thrombosis is deficit in the function of the:
A. Ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve
B. Maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve
C. Oculomotor nerve
D. Abducent nerve

# Pott's puffy tumor is:
A. A malignant tumor
B. An extradural abscess
C. A tumor of pituitary gland
D. An adrenal gland tumor

# Marjolin's ulcer is a:
A. malignant ulcer found on the scar of a burn
B. malignant ulcer found on the infected foot
C. trophic ulcer
D. tropical ulcer characterized by absence of pain

# Visible bleeding of an artery is best controlled via:
A. Pressure
B. Tea bag pressure
C. Tourniquet
D. Clamping and ligation


# In the healing of a wound, the epithelium that eventually will cover the defect is derived from:
A. Intact epithelium from the wound margin
B. Metaplasia of fibroblast to epithelial cells
C. Transformation of fibrous exudates into epithelium
D. Transformation of endothelial cells into epithelial cells

# Which of the following characteristics of inlay wax is its major disadvantage?
A. Flow
B. Rigidity
C. Hardness
D. High thermal expansion

# As the gold content of a dental solder decreases, the:
A. hardness decreases
B. ductility increases
C. Corrosion resistance decreases
D. Ultimate tensile strength decreases

# When porcelain is baked against metal, it should possess a:
A. High fusion temperature
B. Low fusion temperature
C. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion less than but close to that of metal
D. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion greater than but close to that of metal

# The high copper dental amalgam are superior to other amalgam because high copper dental amalgams:
A. corrode more and corrosion products seal the margin better
B. have less marginal breakdown
C. are workable at lower ratio of tensile to compressive strength
D. generally have a higher ratio of tensile to compressive strength

# In a normal dentition in centric occlusion, opposing contacts are expected at:
A. Buccal slopes of buccal cusps of maxillary posterior teeth
B. Buccal slopes of lingual cusps of maxillary posterior teeth
C. Lingual slopes of lingual cusps of mandibular posterior teeth
D. All slopes of lingual cusps of mandibular posterior teeth

# Before eruption, the position of permanent mandibular incisor buds relative to primary incisors is:
A. Superior and facial
B. Superior and lingual
C. Inferior and facial
D. Inferior and lingual

# The permanent anterior tooth that is most often atypical in size is the:
A. Maxillary canine
B. Mandibular central incisor
C. Maxillary lateral incisors
D. Maxillary canine

# Generally, contact areas between posterior teeth are located in which direction from the center of the proximal surface?
A. Facially and occlusally
B. Facially and gingivally
C. Lingually and gingivally
D. Lingually and occlusally

# The facial surfaces of mandibular molars compared with the anterior border of ascending ramus are located:
A. Medial to the border
B. Lateral to the border
C. Continuous with the border
D. Individual variation exists

# In which of the following areas is the alveolar process the thinnest?
A. Lingual to the maxillary central incisor
B. Buccal to the mandibular central incisor
C. Lingual to the maxillary canine
D. Lingual to the mandibular first molar

# Acanthosis denotes:
A. Hyperchromatism of cells
B. Increased mitotic divisions
C. Increased thickness of spinous cell layers
D. Loss of polarity or disorientation of cell

# Which of the following is a reason for sealing caries into the cavity:
A. To eliminate the need for eventual direct pulp capping
B. To produce an aseptic field when pulp exposure is inevitable
C. To allow the formation of secondary dentin
D. To produce a hard surface as a foundation for subsequent restoration

# The bevel of the cavosurface angle of an inlay preparation permits closer adaptation of the gold margin structure because the:
A. thin margin of gold can be drawn over pronounced margin deficiencies to eliminate the defect
B. Wax pattern can be more accurately carved to margins of the preparation
C. Wax margins are less likely to distort when the pattern is invested
D. Thinner margins of the gold overlying the bevel is more adaptable

# Restoration of the cusp using dental amalgam requires that:
A. All the enamel removed from the cusp to provide bulk to the amalgam
B. Only the carious enamel be removed to conserve tooth structure
C. At least 2 mm of the cusp be removed to provide retention form
D. At least 2 mm of the cusp be removed to provide resistance form

# When removing the rubber dam, the first step should be:
A. Remove the clamp
B. Release the holder
C. Pull off the rubber from the isolated tooth
D. Cut the interseptal rubber with scissors

# Direct pulp capping is indicated when there is:
A. a large exposure
B. pain response to cold
C. no hemorrhage from the exposure
D. an accidental mechanical exposure

# A healthy pulp recovers from minimal injury by:
A. Anachoresis
B. Degeneration
C. Deposition of dentin
D. Formation of polyp

# The most frequent cause of failure in endodontics is:
A. Split roots
B. Root perforation
C. Incomplete obturation
D. Separated instruments

# Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis usually occurs:
A. prior to age 10
B. between ages 13 and 30
C. at the age of onset of the menstrual period
D. during menopause

# A 0.7 cm, pedunculated, white, rough surfaced growth occurring on hard palate is most likely:
A. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
B. Pleomorphic carcinoma
C. Keratoacanthoma
D. Papilloma

# CPR should have a ratio of chest compression to mouth breathing of:
A. 10:1
B. 30:2
C. 60:1
D. 20:1

# Post auricular ecchymosis in cases of the fracture of the base of skull is called:
A. Battle's sign
B. Tinel's sign
C. Trousseau's sign
D. Nikolsky's sign

# Selection of the proper kilovoltage for dental films is influenced by:
A. Type of timer
B. Target-film distance
C. Temperature of the developing solution
D. Density of the tissues to be radiographed

# The most effective method of reducing patient somatic exposure when taking a radiograph is to use:
A. A lead apron
B. Speed E film
C. Added filtration
D. An open ended shilded cone

# Abutment teeth for removable dentures should be contoured so that the retentive clasp tip can be placed:
A. On the gingival third of the crown
B. On the middle third of the crown
C. In a distal undercut
D. In a mesial undercut

# Ridge soreness in denture patients may be associated with:
A. Gapping
B. Malocclusion
C. Overextension
D. Lack of retention

# Overextension of the mandibular denture base in the distofacial area will cause dislodgement of the denture during function as a result of the action of:
A. masseter
B. buccinator
C. pterygomandibular raphe
D. superior pharyngeal constrictor


# Water pressure devices are useful in removing:
A. Plaque
B. Pellicle
C. Food debris
D. Calculus

# Periodontal recall following therapy should occur at:
A. 3 months interval
B. 6 months interval
C. Yearly interval
D. Intervals dependent upon, tissue response, patient dexterity, and patient motivation

# In an inflammatory gingival lesion, one would expect to find:
A. a decreased amount of exudates
B. Large amounts of C-reactive protein
C. Increased vascular permeability
D. Decreased vascular permeability

# A patient with severe periodontal involvement requires flap surgery on the complete mandibular arch. A potential problem is damaging to the:
A. Facial nerve
B. Mental nerve
C. Attachment of the mentalis muscle
D. Attachment of the inferior labialis muscle

# Increasing the zone of attached gingiva in the area of mandibular second and third molars is often complicated by the presence of the:
A. Mylohyoid ridge
B. Vestibular fornix
C. Internal oblique ridge
D. External oblique ridge

# The microorganism seen in a 24 hour plaque are:
A. Vibrios
B. Filaments
C. Spirochetes and vibros
D. Rods and cocci

# A major disadvantage of treatment using a cevical headgear is:
A. Impaction of maxillary canines
B. Extrusion of maxillary incisors
C. Extrusion of maxillary molar
D. Potential deformity of the neck

# Which of the following procedures is used to prevent relapse after correction of a rotated permanent maxillary canine?
A. Recontour of the crown
B. Supracrestal fibrotomy
C. Establishment of cuspid protected occlusion
D. Removal of the functional contacts with the canine in the lateral and protrusive excursions

# The band and crib space maintainer is classified as:
A. Bilateral, fixed and functional
B. Unilateral, fixed and functional
C. Unilateral, fixed and non functional
D. Removal of all functional contacts with the canine in the lateral and protrusive excursions

# Surgical procedures of the maxilla may alter its:
A. Anterior portion only
B. Posterior portion only
C. Length and anteroposterior position only
D. Length, width and height

# Primate spaces are found between:
A. all deciduous teeth during growth of the jaws
B. maxillary deciduous canines and molars
C. maxillary deciduous lateral incisors and canine
D. mandibular lateral incisors and canine

# An early prepubertal growth spurt indicates:
A. A longer treatment time
B. A fast maturing child
C. A slow maturing child
D. An endocrine dysfunction, such as hyperthyroidism

# Premature exfoliation of a primary canine may result in:
A. an arch length excess
B. an arch length deficiency
C. a skeletal malocclusion
D. severe crowding in permanent dentition

# In a mixed dentition space analysis, the most careful estimate will only be accurate within:
A. 0.5 mm
B. 2 mm
C. 4 mm
D. 6 mm

# In deciduous teeth, formocresol pulpotomy is preferred over calcium hydroxide pulpotomy because:
A. Formocresol is a strong bactericide
B. Internal resorption is not found
C. The entire pulpal tissue is devitalized and fixed
D. Deposition of secondary dentin is faster and thicker

# The cotton pellet applied to the pulpal stumps in the formocresol pulpotomy technique should be:
A. slightly damped with formocresol
B. saturated with formocresol
C. Left in place for 15 minutes
D. Left in place upto the second visit

# Chronic pulpal infection in primary molars is usually first noted radiographically as:
A. Periapical pathology
B. Internal root resorption
C. Changes in the bony furcation
D. Widening of the apical periodontal ligament space

AIIMS MDS Entrance Examination MCQs - November 2001


# If during the activation of orthodontic appliance, the force level declines to zero between activations, then the force is classified as:
A. Continuous force
B. Interrupted force
C. Intermittent force
D. Differential force

# The most penetrating power is in:
A. Alpha radiation
B. Beta radiation
C. Gamma radiation
D. Electron beam



# Elastic cartilage is found in:
A. Auditory tube
B. Articular catilage
C. Costal cartilage
D. Nasal septum

# Following an elective Le Fort 1 surgery, a patient develops 24 hours later temperature of 102 degree F without local edema and tenderness. He is prrobably suffering from:
A. Infective endocarditis
B. Sinusitis
C. Infected hematoma
D. Atelectasis

# The prime action of topical fluoride is:
A. conversion of hydoxyapatite to fluorapatite
B. decrease in the plaque bacteria
C. form a resevoir in saliva
D. improve morphology of teeth

# The common complication of the local anesthetic prilocaine is:
A. Agranulocytosis
B. Hepatic dysfunction
C. Methemoglobinemia
D. Loss of taste

# The most common problem with blood transfusion is:
A. Hemolytic reaction
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Hypokalemia
D. Remission of disease

# Guddu, a 16 year old boy is brought to hospital with 60% burns. Management includes:
A. Packed red cells
B. Whole blood
C. Plasma
D. Fibrinogen

# Dermatologic manifestation of drug allergy afe managed by:
A. Lorazepam
B. Pirenzepine
C. Ranitidine
D. Chlorpheniramine

# Osteomyelitis of the mandible is caused by:
A. Nocardia asteroids
B. Borrhelia vincentii
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Actinomyces bovis

# To restrict the mandibular growth in a skeletal class III malocclusion, the minimum amount of force from a chin cup should be:
A. 1.5 - 2 gm/mm2 area of condylar head
B. 6 - 7 gm/mm2 area of condylar head
C. 15 - 20 gm/mm2 area of condylar head
D. 25 - 30 gm/mm2 area of condylar head

# The proximal fragment in a fracture of angle of mandible is displaced:
A. Anteriorly and Superiorly
B. Only posteriorly
C. Only inferiorly
D. Inferiorly and anteriorly

# The microorganism implicated in infective endocarditis is:
A. Streptococcus mitis
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Streptococcus viridans
D. Staphylococcus pyogenes

# The case control studies following the distribution of smokers and non smokers in patients of oral carcinoma and control is as follows. Smokers with oral cancer: 30, Non smokers with oral cancer:20, Control Smokers: 20, Control Non smokers: 30. The odds ratio of getting oral cancer in smokers to that of non smokers is:
A. 0.44
B. 1.0
C. 1.5
D. 2.25

# Iron and folic acid supplement given to children is a form of:
A. Primordial prevention
B. Specific protection
C. Health promotion
D. Early intervention

# In penicillin allergy, penicillin acts as a:
A. hapten
B. carrier
C. super antigen
D. toxin

# Enzyme that catalyses the transfer of a functional group from one molecule to another is called:
A. Oxidases
B. Peptidases
C. Transferases
D. Lipases

# The artery most commonly involved in stroke is the:
A. Lenticulostriate
B. Anterior cerebral
C. Posterior cerebral
D. Middle meningeal

# The primary germ layers develop during:
A. Pre somite period
B. Somite period
C. Fetal period
D. Post somite period

# Maxillary marrow contains:
A. all fatty marrow
B. red marrow
C. fibrous marow
D. Fatty and fibrous marrow

# Epiphora is:
A. Cerebral tumor
B. Leak of cerebrospinal fluid through the nose due to fracture of anterior fossa
C. Abnormal overflow of tears following obstruction to the nasolacrimal duct
D. Eversion of the lower eyelid

# Sensory supply of the palate is through all of the following except:
A. Facial nerve
B. Hypoglossal nerve
C. Glossopharyngeal nerve
D. Maxillary division of trigeminal nerve

# Calcium ions trigger muscles contraction by binding to:
A. Actin
B. Myosin
C. Troponin
D. Tropomysin

# Which of the following is present in the plasma but absent in serum ?
A. Albumin
B. Globulin
C. Lecithin
D. Fibrinogen

# Which of the following functions of bone is most prominent ?
A. Calcium reservoir
B. Sodium reservoir
C. Phosphate source
D. Buffering

# Significant decrease in serum calcium will cause:
A. Hyperirritability of nerves and muscles
B. Positive ionotropic and chronotropic effect on the heart
C. Sudden increase in the thyroid and parathyroid
D. Hyperirritability of nerves and muscles

# Magnesium is needed for the activity of which enzyme?
A. Phosphatase
B. Aldolase
C. Dismutase
D. ATPase

# The following host tissue responses can be seen in acute inflammation EXCEPT:
A. Exudation
B. Vasodilation
C. Margination
D. Granuloma formation

# If both the parents have cleft lip and cleft palate, the probability of first child having the same condition is:
A. 1:5 (20%)
B. 1:25 (4%)
C. 1:10 (10%)
D. 3:5 (60%)

# Toxoids are prepared by treating the toxins with:
A. Formaldehyde
B. Pepsin
C. Papain
D. Trypsin


# Which of the following is an obligate intracellular parasite?
A. Bacteria
B. Fungi
C. Rickettsia
D. Gram positive bacilli

# All of the following drugs cause dry mouth EXCEPT:
A. Atropine
B. Chlorpheniramine
C. Imipramine
D. Neostigmine

# In a patient with fixed respiratory obstruction, helium is used along with oxygen instead of plain because:
A. It decreases oxygenation
B. It decreases turbulence
C. It provides analgesia
D. It decreases the dead space

# Renal osteodystrophy differs from the nutritional and genetic form of osteomalacia in having:
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypophosphatemia
D. Hyperphosphatemia

# Bhanu, a 8 year old child has fever, bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy preceded by a sore throat. There is no hepatomegaly. Peripheral blood shows >20% lymphoplasmacytoid cells, no anemia or thrombocytopenia. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. Influenza
B. Tuberculosis
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

# Gastric lavage is indicated in all cases of acute poisoning ideally because of:
A. Fear of aspiration
B. Danger of cardiac arrest
C. Danger of respiratory arrest
D. Inadequate ventilation

# Rajesh, a 7 months old, presents with failure of gaining weight and noisy breathing which becomes worse when the child cries. Laryngoscopy shows a reddish mass in subglottis. Treatment modality may include all except:
A. Radiation
B. Steroids
C. Tracheostomy
D. Carbondioxide laser treatment

# A 50 year old male which is a chronic smoker, complains of hoarseness of voice for the past 4 months. Microlaryngoscopic biopsy shows it to be keratosis of larynx. All are suggested treatment modalities for this condition, EXCEPT:
A. Laser vaporizer
B. Stop smoking
C. Stripping of vocal cord
D. Partial laryngectomy

# A patient with carcinoma of the tongue also has enlarged lymph nodes of the lower neck. Treatement involves:
A. Suprahyoid dissection
B. Supraomohyoid neck dissection
C. Radial neck dissection
D. Teleradiotherapy

# Correct about cystic hygroma is:
A. It is cavernous hemangioma
B. Complication of hyperhidrosis
C. Brilliantly translucent
D. Variety of hydradenitis

# The setting time of zinc phosphate may be retarded by:
A. Increasing the rate of addition of power to liquid
B. Increasing the powder to liquid ratio
C. Diluting the liquid with small amount of water
D. Decreasing the rate of addition of power to liquid

# A thinner mix of gypsum bonded investment will result in:
A. Produce a smoother casting
B. Decrease setting expansion
C. Increase setting expansion
D. Increase thermal expansion

# Cobalt chromium alloys contain:
A. 30% Cobalt and 60% Chromium
B. 60% Cobalt and 30% Chromium
C. 15% Platinum
D. 20% Gold

# Direct wax pattern may distort due to:
A. Release of internal stresses
B. Composition of wax
C. Method of heating the wax
D. The placement of reservoir

# Which is true for high copper amalgam alloy as compared with a conventional alloy ?
A. Poor tensile and compressive strength
B. Good tarnish and corrosion resistance
C. Lower edge strength
D. Mercury content in the final restoration is more

# Tooth buds which develop after birth are:
A. All permanent teeth
B. All permanent teeth and some primary teeth
C. First premolar, second premolar, second molar, third molar
D. First molar

# Before eruption, the position of permanent mandibular incisor buds relative to primary incisors is:
A. Superior and facial
B. Superior and lingual
C. Inferior and lingual
D. Inferior and facial

# Primary function of the dental pulp is to:
A. Form dentin
B. Provide nutrition
C. Provide sensation
D. Assure root end closure

# The vascular supply of the periodontal ligament is:
A. Greatest in the middle third of a multi-rooted tooth
B. Greatest in a middle third of a single rooted tooth
C. A net-like plexus that runs closer to the cementum than to the bone
D. A net-like plexus that runs closer to the bone than to cementum

# The most frequently found salivary gland tumor is:
A. Mucoepidermoid tumor
B. Warthin's tumor
C. Acinic cell tumor
D. Pleomorphic adenoma

# The most common tumor of the mandible in India is:
A. Adamantinoma
B. Osteogenic sarcoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Pleomorphic tumor

# The most common site of Ameloblastoma is:
A. Upper alveolar margin in the midline
B. Mandibular symphysis menti
C. Mandibular molar region
D. Hard palate

# Radiographic finding in Pindborg tumor is:
A. Sun-burst appearance
B. Onion peel appearance
C. Driven-snow appearance
D. Cherry blossom appearance

# The microorganism most commonly cultured from chronic bilateral ulcer at the corner of the mouth is:
A. Mucor
B. Candida
C. Treponema
D. Aspergillus


# What contrast is needed for proper radiographic image in a heavy bony built person?
A. Increase in mA
B. Increase in kVp
C. Increase in exposure time
D. Increase in developing time

# In a post operative ward, a patient wound infection after 48 hours of an oral surgical procedure done, 3 more patients also develop postoperative infection. Most effective method to prevent further spread is:
A. Prescribe broad spectrum antibiotics to all patients
B. Fumigation of the ward with formaldehyde
C. Cleaning with 10% formaldehyde
D. Hand washing of all staff

# The clinical findings in subcondylar fracture of the left side are:
A. Trismus and bilateral crepitus
B. Inability to deviate mandible to the right
C. Deviation of the mandible to the right on protrusion
D. Premature molar contact on the right

# The action of long acting muscle relaxants used during GA may be terminated by:
A. Neostigmine
B. Atropine
C. Ketamine
D. Succinylcholine

# The distolingual extension of mandibular impression is limited by:
A. Stylohyoid muscle
B. Medial Pterygoid muscle
C. Lateral pterygoid muscle
D. Superior constrictor muscle

# An imaginary occlusal curve that contacts the buccal and lingual cusp tips of mandibular buccal teeth is called the:
A. Catenary curve
B. Curve of Spee
C. Monson curve
D. Wilson curve

# An overload of mucosa will occur if:
A. Prosthetic teeth used for replacement are non anatomic teeth
B. The bases covering the supportive area are too small
C. Bases covering the supportive area are too large
D. Bases covering the supportive area are overextended distally

# A mucostatic impression for a prosthesis is taken for which of the following cases?
A. Lower RPD with Kennedy I classification
B. Lower RPD with Kennedy II classification
C. Upper RPD with Kennedy IV classification
D. Full upper and lower denture

# Resilient silicine denture lining materials are superior to plasticized acrylic resin as:
A. Bond strength with a denture is increased
B. They remain resilient for a short time
C. They do not support fungal growth
D. Tissue adaptation is better

# The terms most closely related to each other in recording jaw relations are the:
A. Face bow transfer and centric relation
B. Hinge axis transfer and protrusive guidance
C. Hinge axis transfer and incisal guidance
D. Protrusion records and condylar articular guidance

# Before an arbitrary face bow transfer record, the dentist must determine:
A. Physiologic rest position
B. Inhalation of mercury vapors
C. Axial centre of rotation of condyle
D. Kinetic axis of movement of condyle

# An adverse pulpal reaction is likely to occur if the following material is placed directly into a deep cavity:
A. Amalgam
B. Composite resin
C. Calcium hydroxide
D. Polycarboxylate

# The greatest potential hazard of chronic mercury toxicity occurs due to:
A. Skin contact with mercury
B. Inhalation of mercury vapors
C. Amalgam restoration in a patient
D. Ingestion of amalgam scrap during removal of old restoration

# Core built on a molar tooth should preferably be done with a chemically cured composite as:
A. Light cure resin lacks sufficient strength for a core
B. Core made with a light cure resin would be too opaque and esthetically unacceptable
C. Core made with a light cure resin would be too brittle and would fracture easily
D. Its lower viscosity allows free flow of resin also around pins and post

# Tooth in the mandibular arch which is most likely to be displaced due to arch size discrepancy is:
A. First molar
B. Second molar
C. First premolar
D. Second premolar

# Baker's anchorage is a type of:
A. Intramaxillary anchorage
B. Intermaxillary anchorage
C. Extraoral anchorage
D. Muscular anchorage

# Which of the following is not a tooth borne functional appliance?
A. Activator
B. Bionator
C. Herbst appliance
D. Frankel appliance

# Which of the following clasp is preferable on a partially erupted tooth for an adequate retention of a removable orthodontic appliance?
A. Circumferential clasp
B. Adam's clasp
C. Jackson's clasp
D. Southend clasp

# Which of the following enzymes decreases the rate of orthodontic movement?
A. Cyclooxygenase
B. Metalloproteins
C. Alkaline phosphatase
D. Protein kinase

# Which of the following appliances is not used for slow maxillary expansion?
A. Jack screw
B. Coffin spring
C. Quad helix appliance
D. Hyrax appliance

# Which of the following analysis helps in determining the disproportion in the size between maxillary and mandibular teeth?
A. Pont's analysis
B. Bolton's analysis
C. Peck and Peck's analysis
D. Carey's analysis

# Which of the following is true about Catlan's appliance?
A. It is used to treat cross bite of the maxillary posterior teeth
B. It is constructed on the anterior lower teeth with an inclined plane
C. If used for a long period it results in anterior deep bite
D. If constructed on the upper anterior teeth, has a 45 degree angulation

# Which of the following adhesives is preferred for lending an orthodontic bracket on a patient of Amelogenesis imperfecta?
A. BIS-GMA composite resin
B. Acrylic resin
C. Glass ionomer cement
D. No mix adhesive

# The number of sites examined to assess the stages of bone maturation in Fishman's skeletal maturation index are:
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7

# Which of the following classification uses the 'canine law' malocclusion in sagittal direction?
A. Bennet's classifcation
B. Simon's classification
C. Dewey's classification
D. Lischer's classification

# In orthdontics, "DOCKRELL's equation" is associated with:
A. Classifcation of malocclusion
B. Etiology of malocclusion
C. Dewey classification
D. Prognosis of Malocclusion

# Which of the following cephalometric analysis does not reveal the severity of anteroposterior jaw dysplasia?
A. Down's analysis
B. Steiner's analysis
C. Tweed's analysis
D. Wit's analysis

# Which of the following head gear is preferred while treating a class II div 1 malocclusion with a horizontal growth trend?
A. High pull head gear
B. Medium pull head gear
C. Cervical head gear
D. Reverse head gear

# The best method to show the association between height and weight of children in class is by:
A. Bar chart
B. Line diagram
C. Scatter diagram
D. Histogram

# The systolic blood pressure in normal healthy males of age group 40-60 has a normal distribution with mean 130 in a sample of 100. People with systolic blood pressure more than 130 will be:
A. 100
B. 75
C. 50
D. 20

# In a study, variation in cholesterol was seen before and after giving drug. The test which would give its significance is:
A. Unpaired t-test
B. Paired t-test
C. Chi square test
D. Fischer test

# Green Vermillion index measures:
A. Periodontal disease
B. Oral hygiene
C. Bone level
D. Gingival health

# The stiffness of the bristles of the nylon tooth brush is dependent on the:
A. Diameter and length of filament
B. Amount of polish of filament
C. Color of filament
D. Consistency of shape of filament

# Confirmatory test for HIV infection is a:
A. ELISA
B. Immunodot
C. RIPA
D. Western blot

# Which of the following movements are performed by a non working condyle?
A. Straight forward
B. Downwards forward lateral
C. Downwards forward medial
D. Downward backward medial