Torque prescription for maxillary central incisor according to MBT in degrees is:

 # Torque prescription for maxillary central incisor according to MBT in degrees is:

A. 17

B. 10

C. -7

D. 0

The correct answer is A. 17.

Torque in orthodontics refers to the buccopalatal crown-root inclination of a tooth. To implement torque, larger dimensional archwires are inserted and engaged into brackets. This generates an activating force as the wire is manipulated into the bracket slot. Torque is not directly “in the wire.” Instead, it results from torsion in an archwire when it interacts with a bracket slot. When the wire twists compared to the bracket slot, it creates a couple (a rotational force) that affects the tooth’s inclination. Torque is not related to the angle of the bracket slot or the axial inclination of the tooth. In orthodontic treatment, torque control is often required, especially for maxillary incisors. Proper torque helps achieve an ideal inter-incisal angle, adequate incisor contact, and sagittal adjustment of the dentition for an ideal occlusion. The goal is to achieve the desired buccopalatal inclination of the crowns and roots. The MBT system is a popular pre-adjusted edgewise appliance system.

In the MBT system, torque prescription is based on the specific bracket design and the desired tooth movement. Orthodontists select brackets with predetermined torque values to achieve the desired crown-root inclination. The torque values are typically printed on the bracket prescription chart provided by the manufacturer. According to MBT, torque prescription for maxillary central incisor in degrees is 17 degrees. 

Which cusp on a maxillary first molar has two ridges: one that forms part of a transverse ridge and the other that forms part of an oblique ridge?

 # Which cusp on a maxillary first molar has two ridges: one that forms part of a transverse ridge and the other that forms part of an oblique ridge?

a. Mesiobuccal

b. Mesiolingual

c. Distobuccal

d. Distolingual

The correct answer is B. Mesiolingual. 

The mesiolingual cusp has triangular ridge as well as buccal ridge as shown in the figure of right maxillary first molar. 

From which view are only two roots visible on a maxillary first molar?

 # From which view are only two roots visible on a maxillary first molar?

a. Mesial

b. Distal

c. Buccal

d. Lingual

The correct answer is A. Mesial.

On both the maxillary first and second molars from the mesial view, two roots can be seen: the lingual

root and the mesiobuccal root, which is considerably wider buccolingually than the hidden distobuccal root.  On the first maxillary molar, the convex buccal outline of the mesiobuccal root often extends a little buccal to the crown outline, but the apex of this root is in line with the tip of the mesiobuccal cusp.

The furcations are likely to be farthest away from the cervical portion of the tooth in which of the following teeth?

 # The furcations are likely to be farthest away from the cervical portion of the tooth in which of the following teeth?

A. Mandibular first molar

B. Mandibular second molar

C. Mandibular third molar

D. Maxillary first molar

The correct answer is C. Mandibular third molar. 

Both maxillary and mandibular third molar roots are noticeably shorter than on firsts or seconds. They are very crooked, often curving distally, and more commonly fused most of their length resulting in a long root trunk with the furcation located only a short distance from the apices of the roots. 

What is the main purpose of miniplates in orthodontic practice?

 # What is the main purpose of miniplates in orthodontic practice?

A. To manage skeletal discrepancy without dental adverse effects 

B. To serve as an alternative anchorage system for mini-implants 

C. To withstand torsional force 

D. To anchor soft tissue to root apices

The correct answer is: A. To manage skeletal discrepancy without dental adverse effects. 

Miniplates are an alternative form of orthodontic TADs. They are anchored on skeletal bone using monocortical titanium screws and are indicated for orthopaedic traction to manage skeletal discrepancy without dental adverse effects. They can also be used as an alternative anchorage system when mini-implant insertion is unsatisfactory. While miniplates can be used as an alternative anchorage system, their primary purpose is not specifically to serve as an alternative to mini-implants.

Unlike mini-implants, miniplates can resist various types of force applications and have a lower failure rate. They are able to withstand force with a magnitude of 400–500 g. Additionally, the portion of a miniplate covered by soft tissue can be anchored apically to root apices, helping to avoid potential root damage and reduce soft tissue irritation.

Skeletal class II growth pattern 18 years old Female

 # Mr. Baburam Bhattarai brought his two children one female and one male for dental checkup. The female was 18-years-old & the male was 12 years old. Both had a skeletal class II growth pattern. The growth modification can be done only for the following: 

A. Only in male 

B. Only in female 

C. In both the male & female 

D. Cannot be done 

The correct answer is A. Only in Male.

Though the chronological age may be misleading and the status of growth has to be evaluated through CVM stages, growth modulation is possible in 12 year males and it's not possible in 18 year females. 

Test done when midline diastema and high frenal attachment is present

 # Prachanda, a 20-year-old boy went to his dentist with a complaint of spacing between his upper central incisors. On examination there was presence of mid line diastema. There was a high frenal attachment. Which test will the dentist do to confirm it?

 A. Montoux test 

B. Cotton test 

C. Ganong’s test 

D. Blanch test

The correct answer is D. Blanch Test.

To confirm the high frenal attachment in the presence of a midline diastema, the dentist would perform the Blanch test. This test involves lifting the lip and pulling it outward. If blanching (whitening) occurs in the soft tissue palatal to or between the central incisors, it indicates a high labial frenum attachment. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Blanch test.

Lesions within the basal ganglia produce the following signs except:

 # Lesions within the basal ganglia produce the following signs except: 

A. Hypotonia 

B. Tremor 

C. Hemiballisumus 

D. Athetosis

Lesions within the basal ganglia can lead to various motor disturbances. Let's analyze the given signs:

1. Hypotonia: This refers to reduced muscle tone or decreased resistance to passive movement. It is associated with basal ganglia dysfunction.

2. Tremor: Tremors are rhythmic, involuntary movements. Basal ganglia lesions can indeed cause tremors.

3. Hemiballismus: Hemiballismus is characterized by sudden, wild, and flinging movements of one side of the body. It specifically results from damage to the subthalamic nucleus within the basal ganglia.

4. Athetosis: Athetosis involves slow, writhing, and twisting movements, often affecting the hands and fingers. It is also associated with basal ganglia dysfunction.

Given the options, the sign that is not directly associated with basal ganglia lesions is Hypotonia. Hypotonia is more commonly related to other brain regions or spinal cord abnormalities.

Remember, basal ganglia play a crucial role in motor control, coordination, and movement regulation. Any disruption in this area can lead to various motor symptoms. 

Perfusion of oxygen supply in a free flap can be correctly estimated by:

 # Perfusion of oxygen supply in a free flap can be correctly estimated by:

a) Pulse oximetry 

b) Laser Doppler flowmetry 

c) Prick test 

d) Fluroscopy

The correct answer is B. Laser doppler flowmetry.

Let's go through each option:

a) Pulse oximetry: Pulse oximetry measures the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin in arterial blood non-invasively. However, it may not provide an accurate estimation of oxygen supply in a free flap because it only measures the oxygen saturation of blood and does not directly assess tissue perfusion. While it can indicate overall oxygenation status, it may not reflect the oxygen supply to a specific tissue like a free flap.

b) Laser Doppler flowmetry: Laser Doppler flowmetry is a non-invasive technique used to measure tissue perfusion by detecting the movement of red blood cells. It can provide real-time information about blood flow in the microcirculation of tissues, including free flaps. Therefore, it is often used to monitor the perfusion of oxygen supply in free flaps during surgery and postoperative care. This option is correct because it directly assesses tissue perfusion, which is crucial for evaluating the viability of free flaps.

c) Prick test: A prick test, also known as a pinprick test, is typically used to assess sensory nerve function by evaluating the patient's ability to perceive pain or touch in a specific area. It is not a suitable method for estimating oxygen supply in a free flap. While changes in sensation may indicate compromised blood flow to the flap, the prick test itself does not directly measure tissue perfusion or oxygen supply.

d) Fluoroscopy: Fluoroscopy is a medical imaging technique that uses a continuous X-ray beam to create real-time moving images of the internal structures of a patient. While fluoroscopy can provide valuable information about blood flow and vascular anatomy, it is not commonly used to estimate oxygen supply in free flaps. Fluoroscopy is more often utilized for guiding interventional procedures or diagnosing vascular issues but is not specifically tailored for assessing tissue perfusion in free flaps.

Hence, Laser Doppler flowmetry is the correct choice for estimating the perfusion of oxygen supply in a free flap as it directly measures tissue perfusion and is commonly used in clinical practice for this purpose.

The teeth most likely to be transposed are:

 # The teeth most likely to be transposed are:

A. Mandibular Premolars and maxillary incisors

B. Maxillary premolars and mandibular incisors

C.  Maxillary molars and canines

D. Mandibular molars and canines

The correct answer is B. Maxillary premolars and mandibular incisors.

Transposition is a rare positional interchange of two adjacent teeth. It occurs with a prevalence of approximately 0.3% and equally affects males and females. The teeth most likely to be transposed

are mandibular incisors and maxillary premolars, and this usually occurs as a consequence of ectopic eruption. There appears to be a genetic component to this problem. In the early mixed dentition years, transposition can develop when distally directed eruption of the permanent mandibular lateral incisor leads to loss of the primary mandibular canine and primary first molar. If left untreated, this can result in a true transposition of the permanent lateral incisor and canine.

The first material used for orthodontic TADs was:

 # The first material used for orthodontic TADs was:

A. Titanium

B. Stainless Steel 

C. Vitallium

D. Nickel - Chromium

The correct answer is C. Vitallium.

To date, three types of materials have been used for orthodontic TADs: titanium alloy, stainless steel

and vitallium. Vitallium was the first material used for orthodontic TADs. However, due to undesirable biocompatibility and a higher failure rate, vitallium was gradually replaced by titanium alloy. Stainless steel is also used for orthodontic mini-implants and recent evidence indicates that the success rate is similar between titanium alloy and stainless steel mini-implants. Nowadays, due to high biocompatibility of titanium, orthodontic TADs made of titanium alloy are most frequently used in clinical practice.

Reference: Clinical Insertion Techniques of Orthodontic Temporary Anchorage Devices, Wiley Blackwell

Who first advocated the opening of mid palatal suture to expand the dental arch?

 # Who first advocated the opening of mid palatal suture to expand the dental arch?

Emerson C. Angell 

B. Pierre Fauchard

C. Edward H. Angle 

D. Raymond Begg

The correct answer is A. Emerson C. Angell.

In 1860 Emerson C. Angell was probably the first person to advocate opening of the midline suture to provide space in the maxillary arch, because he took a very strong stand against extraction.

Ref: Graber, 7th Edition

Double lip is a feature of:

 # Double lip is a feature of:

 A. Aschers syndrome

B. Parry Romberg syndrome

C. Pierre Robin Syndrome

D. Mieschers syndrome

The correct answer is A. Aschers syndrome.

Ascher syndrome was first described in 1920 by an ophthalmologist. This syndrome presents as blepharochalasis(swelling of the eyelids), double lip and nontoxic thyroid enlargement. The thyroid enlargement is not present in all cases of this syndrome. The syndrome is often undiagnosed because of its rarity.

Otocephaly is a developmental disorder of:

 # Otocephaly is a developmental disorder of:

 A. Zygoma

B. Jaw bone

C. Occipital bone

D. Parietal bone

The correct answer is B. Jaw bone.

Otocephaly, also known as agnathia–otocephaly complex, is a very rare and lethal cephalic disorder characterized by the absence of the mandible (agnathia), with the ears fused together just below the chin (synotia). It is caused by a disruption to the development of the first branchial arch. It occurs in every 1 in 70,000 embryos.  

Reference: WIKIPEDIA

MCQs on Pharmacology - Drugs acting on Autonomic Nervous System

# The highest seat of regulating autonomic functions is located in:
A. Hypothalamus
B. Medulla
C. Spinal cord
D. Midbrain

# Catecholamines are synthesized from which amino acid?
A. Histamine
B. Phenylalanine
C. Tryptophan
D. Glycine

MCQs in Pharmacology - Drugs acting on Central Nervous System

# CNS depressant drug which reduces excitement without much effect on sleep is (also called anti anxiety drug):
A. Anticholinergic
B. Antipsychotic
C. Sedative
D. Hypnotic

# CNS depressant drug which produces sleep but patient may be awakened by inducing pain. This type of drug is called:
A. Antileptic
B. Antisympathetic
C. Sedative
D. Hypnotic

MCQs in General Pathology - Cardiovascular Pathology

# All of the following are examples in which active hyperemia is seen EXCEPT:
A. Inflammation and high grade fever
B. Blushing of face following emotion
C. Muscular exercise
D. Cardiac congestive failure

# Which of the following is true of heart failure cells?
A. Hemosiderin pigment laden alveolar macrophages present in venous congestion of lungs
B. Also called as Aschoff nodules present in endocardium seen in rheumatic fever
C. Also called as Mallory bodies seen in alcoholic cirrhosis of liver
D. Cells responsible for cardiac failure in congestive cardiac failure

MCQs in General Pathology - Acute and Chronic Infections

# Adenopathy is clinically manifested by:
A. Hyposalivation
B. Swelling
C. High grade fever
D. All of the above

# Lepra cells are seen in abundance in:
A. Tuberculoid leprosy
B. Lepromatous leprosy
C. Histoid leprosy
D. Intermediate leprosy

Psammoma bodies are associated with:

 # Psammoma bodies are associated with:

 A. Metastatic calcification

B. Dystrophic calcification

C. Apoptosis

D. Necrosis

The correct answer is B. Dystrophic calcification.

Psammoma bodies are round microscopic calcific collections. It is a form of dystrophic calcification. They are the characteristic feature of papillary carcinomas. 

A young adult shows non fluctuant, tender and red swelling in the marginal gingival lesion. This is most likely to be a:

 # A young adult shows non fluctuant, tender and red swelling in the marginal gingival lesion. This is most likely to be a:

 A. Periodontal abscess

B. Periapical abscess

C. Gingival abscess

D. Periapical sinus

The correct answer is C. Gingival abscess.

Gingival abscess

■ Localized, painful rapidly expanding lesion of sudden onset. 

■ It is limited to marginal gingival or interdental papilla. 

■ It is due to foreign substances carried deep into the tissues such as a toothbrush bristle, a piece of apple core, or a lobster shell. 

■ Gingival abscess involves marginal and interdental gingiva, whereas periodontal abscess involves attached gingiva. 

Palmar and plantar hyperkeratosis is a feature of:

 # Palmar and plantar hyperkeratosis is a feature of:

 A. Down syndrome

B. Papillon Lefevre Syndrome

C. Chediak-Higashi Syndrome

D. Klinefelter syndrome

The correct answer is B. Papillon Lefevre Syndrome.

Papillon-Lefevre Syndrome 

1. This is characterized by hyperkeratotic skin lesions and severe destruction of the periodontium. 

2. These changes may appear before the age of 4 years. 

3. Skin lesions are—hyperkeratosis of localized areas on palms, soles, knees, and elbows. 

4. Periodontal involvement is early inflammatory changes that lead to bone loss and exfoliation of teeth. Primary teeth are lost by 5 or 6 years of age. The permanent dentition erupts normally but the permanent teeth are lost within a few years. 

Ions participating in clotting mechanism are:

 # Ions participating in clotting mechanism are:

 A. Iron

B. Copper

C. Calcium

D. Aluminium

The correct answer is C. Calcium.

In the presence of calcium ions and other clotting factors, factor X activates an enzyme called prothrombin activator. This enzyme then converts the plasma protein prothrombin into thrombin. Thrombin is an enzyme that, in turn, converts fibrinogen to fibrin which causes the blood to clot.

Side effects of Phenytoin do not include:

 # Side effects of Phenytoin do not include:

 A. Osteomalacia

B. Gum hypertrophy

C. Folate deficiency

D. Blindness

The correct answer is D. Blindness. 

Adverse effects:  After prolonged use numerous side effects are produced at therapeutic plasma concentration; others occur as a manifestation of toxicity due to overdose.

At therapeutic levels

• Gum hypertrophy is common (20% incidence), especially in younger patients. It is due to the overgrowth of gingival collagen fibers. This can be minimized by maintaining oral hygiene.

• Hirsutism, coarsening of facial features (troublesome in young girls), acne.

• Hypersensitivity reactions are—rashes, DLE, and lymphadenopathy; neutropenia is rare but requires discontinuation of therapy.

• Megaloblastic anemia: Phenytoin decreases folate absorption and increases its excretion.

• Osteomalacia: Phenytoin interferes with metabolic activation of vit D and with calcium

absorption/metabolism.

• It can inhibit insulin release and cause hyperglycemia.

• Used during pregnancy, phenytoin can produce ‘fetal hydantoin syndrome’ (hypoplastic phalanges, cleft palate, hare lip, microcephaly), which is probably caused by its areneoxide metabolite.

Reference: Essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi.

At what temperature is blood stored in blood banks?

 # At what temperature is blood stored?

 A. -4 degrees

B. 4 degrees

C. 6 degrees

D. 8 degrees

The correct answer is B. 4 degrees celsius.

With the modern surgical and medical procedures, the demand for blood has greatly increased. It is for this reason that blood banks were started where blood from voluntary donors could be stored, so that it was always available on demand. Most blood banks have lists of would-be donors so that they may be contacted when required.

Storage of blood: After a donor has been screened for donation, one unit of blood (450 ml) is collected, under aseptic conditions, from the antecubital vein directly into a special plastic bag containing 63 ml of CPD-A (citrate-phosphate-dextrose-adenine) mixture. The blood bag is suitably sealed, labeled, and stored at 4 degree C, where it can be kept for about 20 days. (Faulty storage, i.e. overheating or freezing can lead to gross infection and hemolysis). The citrate prevents clotting of blood, sodium diphosphate acts as a buffer to control decrease in pH, dextrose supports ATP generation via glycolytic pathway and also provides energy for Na+- K+ pump that maintains the size and shape of red cells and increases their survival time, and adenine provides substrate for the synthesis of ATP, thus improving post-donation viability of red cells.

Blood is stored at low temperatures for 2 reasons: one, it decreases bacterial growth, and two, it decreases the rate of glycolysis and thus prevents a quick fall in pH.

Reference: A TEXTBOOK OF PRACTICAL PHYSIOLOGY Eighth Edition CL Ghai

Which mandibular plane is considered while calculating FMA (Frankfort mandibular plane angle) in cephalometry?

The mandibular plane used for FMA measurement is : A plane tangent to the lower border of mandible which connects with the menton anteriorly and posteriorly it bisects the distance between the right and left lower borders of the mandible in the region of the gonial angle. See Figure. 

The FMA angle is defined as the angle formed by the following two reference planes:

i. FH plane (Frankfort horizontal plane—A line between the most superior point of the external auditory meatus and inferior border of the orbit).

ii. Mandibular plane (A plane tangent to the lower border of mandible which connects with the menton anteriorly and posteriorly it bisects the distance between the right and left lower borders of the mandible in the region of the gonial angle). 

In most cephalometric analyses, the occlusal and mandibular planes are measured relative to the sella-nasion (SN) line, the basion-nasion (BaN) line, or the Frankfort horizontal plane. Ideally, according to Tweed, the incisor mandibular plane angle (IMPA) should be 90 degrees, the Frankfort mandibular angle (FMA) 25 degrees, and thus the Frankfort mandibular incisor angle (FMIA) 65 degrees. (The sum of three angles of a triangle equals 180 degrees.) Moreover, the IMPA angle also relates to creating additional space in the mandibular arch in that for each 3 degrees advancement of the lower incisor, 2.5 mm of space is gained in the mandibular dental arch. Conversely, reduction of the IMPA from 90 degrees, for example, to 87 degrees would decrease the available space for tooth alignment in the mandibular dental arch by 2.5 mm. 

Gangrene due to known infectious agent is:

 # Gangrene due to known infectious agent is:

 A. Wet gangrene

B. Dry gangrene

C. Pyoderma granulosum

D. Fournier gangrene

The correct answer is D. Fournier gangrene. 

Fournier gangrene, a relatively rare form of necrotizing fasciitis, is a rapidly progressive disease that affects the deep and superficial tissues of the perineal, anal, scrotal, and genital regions. Named after Dr. Alfred Fournier, the French dermatology and venereal specialist, it was initially described in 1883 as necrotizing fasciitis of the external genitalia, perineal, and perianal region in five of Dr. Fournier’s patients. Also known as necrotizing fasciitis, the disease involves the rapid spread of severe inflammatory and infectious processes along fascial planes affecting adjacent soft tissue; therefore, the disease may initially go unnoticed or unrecognized as there may be minimal or no skin manifestations in its early stages.

This disease process results from polymicrobial aerobic and anaerobic synergistic infection of the fascia and subcutaneous soft tissue. Gram-positive bacteria such as Group A Streptococci and Staphylococcus aureus and gram-negative bacteria such as E. Coli and Pseudomonas aeruginosa are organisms most commonly grown in wound cultures of Fournier gangrene patients as it is usually polymicrobial. These bacteria can be introduced through several sources, including urinary, bowel, or dermal. Urinary tract infections and other infectious processes of the perineum, such as perianal abscesses or even a simple pimple, may also provide a starting point for the infection. 

Surgical manipulation of the genital and perineal area similarly can provide the initial insult required to develop Fournier gangrene. Any traumatic insult or localized area of skin breakdown to the perineum or scrotum can lead to bacterial access to the subcutaneous tissues and begin the process, ultimately resulting in Fournier gangrene. About 25% of cases had no known or identifiable etiology.

Reference: Leslie SW, Rad J, Foreman J. Fournier Gangrene. [Updated 2023 Jun 5]. In: StatPearls [Internet]. Treasure Island (FL): StatPearls Publishing; 2024 Jan-. Available from: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK549821/

Biosafety level 4 (BSL-4) pathogen is:

 # Biosafety level 4 (BSL-4) pathogen is:

 A. XDR strain of Mycobacterium tuberculosis

B. SARS CoV-2

C. Ebola

D. Measles

The correct answer is C. Ebola.

Biological Safety Levels (BSL) are a series of protections relegated to the activities that take place in particular biological labs. They are individual safeguards designed to protect laboratory personnel, as well as the surrounding environment and community.

These levels, which are ranked from one to four, are selected based on the agents or organisms that are being researched or worked on in any given laboratory setting. For example, a basic lab setting specializing in the research of nonlethal agents that pose a minimal potential threat to lab workers and the environment are generally considered BSL-1—the lowest biosafety lab level. A specialized research laboratory that deals with potentially deadly infectious agents like Ebola would be designated as BSL-4—the highest and most stringent level.

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) sets BSL lab levels as a way of exhibiting specific controls for the containment of microbes and biological agents. Each BSL lab level builds upon on the previous level—thereby creating layer upon layer of constraints and barriers. These lab levels are determined by the following:

• Risks related to containment
• Severity of infection
• Transmissibility
• Nature of the work conducted
• Origin of the microbe
• Agent in question
• Route of exposure

 Summary of Biological Agents and BSL levels

Reference: The University of Texas Rio Grande Valley

Once bone is formed, it grows by:

 # Once bone is formed, it grows by:

 A. Interstitial growth only

B. Appositional growth only

C. Both appositional and interstitial growth

D. Degenerative changes into bony structures

The correct answer is B. Appositional growth only.

Which is growth by the addition of new layers on those previously formed. Bone formation begins in the embryo where mesenchymal cells differentiate into either fibrous membrane or cartilage. 

This leads to two paths of bone development:

1. Intramembranous ossification is so called because it takes place in membranes of connective tissue. Osteoprogenitor cells in the membrane differentiate into osteoblasts: a collagen matrix is formed which undergoes ossification. Note: The maxilla and mandible as well as the cranial vault are forrmed this way.

2. Endochondral ossification is how the remainder of the skeleton forms and takes place within a hyaline cartilage model. Cartilage cells are replaced by bone cells (osteocytes replace chondrocytes), organic matrix is laid down and calcium and phosphate are deposited. This type of ossification is principally responsible for the formation of short and long bones. Note: The ethmoid, sphenoid, and occipital bones (bones of the cranial base) form this way.

The incisor overjet is increased for a class II case that is undergoing treatment. The reason is:

 # The incisor overjet is increased for a  class II case that is undergoing treatment. The reason is:

 A. Loss of anchorage

B. Arch collapse

C. Crowding in the lower arch

D. None of the above

The correct answer is A. Loss of anchorage.

Following are the features of anchorage loss in class II cases:

- Increase in overjet

- Molar relation  becoming more class II

- Normal canine relation without any change

Which of the following are typical and acceptable preventive and therapeutic measures for dealing with the periodontal problems during fixed appliance therapy?

 # Which of the following are typical and acceptable preventive and therapeutic measures for dealing with the periodontal problems during fixed appliance therapy?

 A. Elimination of gingivitis prior to placing orthodontic appliances

B. Home care instructions regarding the use of toothbrush and water pik during orthodontic treatment

C. Megavitamin therapy

D. Scaling and curettage immediately after appliance removal

The correct answer is A. Elimination of gingivitis prior to placing orthodontic appliances.

The mean value of visible plaque and visible inflammation showed significant increases during orthodontic treatment. Therefore, prior to orthodontic treatment, patients should have a high level of periodontal health and it should be maintained during the treatment period. Considering the relationship between orthodontic treatment and gingival health, patients, orthodontists and periodontists should cooperate during orthodontic treatment.

Reference: Boke F, Gazioglu C, Akkaya S, Akkaya M. Relationship between orthodontic treatment and gingival health: A retrospective study. Eur J Dent. 2014;8(3):373-380. doi:10.4103/1305-7456.137651

FDA approved locally delivered minocycline for subgingival placement is marketed under trade name:

 # FDA approved locally delivered minocycline for subgingival placement is marketed under trade name:

 A. Periochip

B. Atridox

C. Arestin

D. Elyzol

The correct answer is C. Arestin.

FDA has approved Arestin 2% Minocycline for subgingival placement as an adjunct to scaling and root planning.

Periochip: Chlorhexidine chip placed in the pocket for local drug delivery.

The recommended concentration of acidulated phosphate (APF) fluoride gel is:

 # The recommended concentration of acidulated phosphate (APF) fluoride gel is:

 A. 2%

B. 8%

C. 1.23%

D. 10%

The correct answer is C. 1.23%.

Brudevold's solution or APF solution is prepared by dissolving 20 gms of NaF in 1 Litre (2% NaF) of 0.1M phosphoric acid and to this 50% hydro fluoric acid is added to adjust the pH at 3.0 and fluoride ion concentration at 1.23% APF gel is prepared by adding gelling agents like methylcellulose and hydroxyl ethyl cellulose and the pH is adjusted between 4-5.

Duraphat is:

 # Duraphat is:

 A. Lacquer

B. Sodium Fluoride in varnish form

C. Stannous Fluoride

D. Sodium Fluoride 2%

The correct answer is B. Sodium fluoride in varnish form.

Duraphat 50 mg/mL Dental Suspension is to be applied by the dental professional and not for self medication by the patient. 1 mL suspension contains 50 mg sodium fluoride (5% w/v), equivalent to 22,600 ppm fluoride ion (22.6 mg of fluoride) in an alcoholic solution of natural resins.

Recommended dosage for single application:

For primary teeth: up to 0.25 mL (= 5.65 mg fluoride)

For mixed dentition: up to 0.40 mL (= 9.04 mg fluoride)

For permanent dentition: up to 0.75 mL (= 16.95 mg fluoride)

For caries prevention: the application is usually repeated every 6 months but more frequent

applications (every 3 months) may be made.

For hypersensitivity: 2 or 3 applications should be made within a few days.

The patient should not brush the teeth or chew food for 4 hours after treatment.

Method of administration: For dental use.

Contraindications

• Hypersensitivity to any ingredients of Duraphat.
• Ulcerative gingivitis.
• Stomatitis.
• Bronchial asthma.

Special warnings and precautions for use

Application of Duraphat 50 mg/mL Dental Suspension to the whole dentition should not be carried out on an empty stomach. On the day when Duraphat has been applied, no high dose fluoride preparations, such as fluoride gels, should be used. The administration of fluoride supplements should be suspended for several days after applying Duraphat. Prolonged daily ingestion of excessive fluoride may result in varying degrees of fluorosis.

Interaction with other medicines and other forms of interaction

The presence of alcohol (33.8% v/v) in the Duraphat formula should be considered.

Fertility, pregnancy and lactation

As this product contains 33.8% v/v of ethanol (each dose contains up to 0.2 g of alcohol), it is recommended to avoid its use in pregnant women and during lactation.

Undesirable effects

Gastrointestinal disorders: Very rare (<1/10,000): Stomatitis, gingivitis ulcerative, retching, oedema mouth and nausea may occur in sensitive (allergic) individuals

- if necessary, the dental suspension layer can easily be removed from the mouth by brushing and rinsing.

Skin and subcutaneous tissue disorders: Very rare (<1/10,000): Irritation in sensitive individuals, angioedema

Immune System Disorders: Not known (cannot be estimated from the available data)

Hypersensitivity. Respiratory, thoracic and mediastinal disorders: Very rare/Isolated report (<1/10,000): Asthma

Overdose: Accidental ingestion of large amounts of fluoride may result in acute burning in the mouth and sore tongue. Nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea may soon occur after ingestion (within 30 minutes) and are accompanied by salivation, haematemesis, and epigastric cramping abdominal pain. These symptoms may persist for 24 hours. If less than 5 mg fluoride/kg body weight has been ingested, give calcium (eg milk) orally to relieve gastrointestinal symptoms and observe for medical assistance. For accidental ingestion of more than 15 mg fluoride/kg body weight, admit immediately to a hospital facility. 

A malocclusion is characterized by protrusion of maxilla, labioversion of maxillary incisors deep overbite and overjet. These are typical characteristic of which malocclusion?

 # A malocclusion is characterized by protrusion of maxilla, labioversion of maxillary incisors deep overbite and overjet. These are typical characteristic of which malocclusion?

 A. Class I

B. Class II Div 1

C. Class II Div 2

D. Class III

The correct answer is B. Class II Div 1.

Class I Incisor Relationship

Lower incisal edges occlude with or lie immediately below the cingulum plateau of the upper incisors.

Class II Incisor Relationship

The lower incisal edge lies posterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper incisors.

Class II Division 1 Incisor Relationship : The upper central incisors are proclined or of average inclination. There is an increase in overjet.

Class II Division 2 Incisor Relationship : The upper central incisors are retroclined. The overjet is usually minimal but may be increased.

Class III Incisor Relationship: The lower incisal edges lies anterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper incisor.

MECEE MDS 2024 RESULT Medical Education Commission

 MECEE MDS 2024 RESULT Medical Education Commission

Government of Nepal

MEDICAL EDUCATION COMMISSION

Directorate of Examination

MEDICAL EDUCATION COMMON ENTRANCE EXAMINATION (PG 2024)

ENTRANCE RESULT Wednesday, February 7, 2024

Program: Masters of Dental Surgery (MDS)  50th Percentile (Cut-off) Score: 71.25

SN ROLL NO FULL NAME FINAL SCORE RANK

1 31434 HIMAL DAHAL 132.5 1

2 31268 BISHAL CHAPAGAIN 128 2

3 31328 ROSHANI SUBEDI 125.75 3

4 31447 PRIYANKA DHAKAL 123 4

5 31438 MEGHA SHRIVASTVA 121.25 5

6 31485 SAMBRIDHI MATHEMA 120.5 6

7 31220 NIRAJAN BHANDARI 120.5 7

8 31056 KRISHNA DEV MAHATO 120.25 8

9 31413 RAMAN LAMA 119 9

10 31444 PRAVIN BHATTARAI 118.75 10

11 31402 ABHINAW SUBEDI 117.5 11

12 31528 PRATIMA KHADKA 117 12

13 31380 PRABESH BANSTOLA 116.25 13

14 31529 AASHISH KOIRALA 115.5 14

15 31197 VASKAR PRASAD PARAJULI 115 15

16 31354 ASMITA GYAWALI 113.25 16

17 31274 ROMIN SHRESTHA 112.5 17

18 31120 SUNAYAN SUBEDI 112.5 18

19 31192 MILAN KOIRALA 111.75 19

20 31490 SABHYATA PAUDEL 111.75 20

21 31470 ASMINA CHHETRI 111.25 21

22 31147 MINU MISHRA 111.25 22

23 31249 BHESH RAJ PARAJULI 110 23

24 31480 SAMIKSHA SHARMA 109.75 24

25 31180 RAJU PANDEY 109.25 25

26 31346 SUSMITA SHRESTHA 108.75 26

27 31323 RITESH THAPA 108.75 27

SN ROLL NO FULL NAME FINAL SCORE RANK

28 31062 PRIYANKA ROY 108.75 28

29 31125 TRIPURARI SHUKLA 108.5 29

30 31216 RIYA GUPTA 108 30

31 31365 PRAKRITI BASUKALA 108 31

32 31241 AYUSH GURAGAIN 107.75 32

33 31395 ELIJMA RANJIT 107.5 33

34 31494 ASMITA PARAJULI 107.5 34

35 31435 KISHOR SUBEDI 107 35

36 31079 SARANGA GHIMIRE 107 36

37 31068 SADICHHYA BAJRACHARYA 106.5 37

38 31133 SHOVA SAPKOTA 105.75 38

39 31526 DHARMA PRATAP BHARKHER 105.5 39

40 31390 DIPTI SHRESTHA 104.75 40

41 31181 BISHOW DEEP POUDEL 104.5 41

42 31057 NIROJ CHAUDHARY 104.5 42

43 31414 KRIPA LAMICHHANE 104.25 43

44 31031 KIRAN THAKUR 103.75 44

45 31355 LAXMI PARAJULI 103.75 45

46 31183 USHA SAPKOTA 103.75 46

47 31410 KAJAL MEHTA 103.75 47

48 31185 BIPLAV KUMAR CHAUDHARY 103.5 48

49 31460 SRISTI ADHIKARI 103.25 49

50 31399 RAKSHYA KC 103 50

51 31237 SANJITA PANDEY 103 51

52 31455 SNEHA SAPKOTA 102.5 52

53 31451 ROSHAN KUMAR YADAV 102.25 53

54 31030 JITENDRA RAY YADAV 101.75 54

SN ROLL NO FULL NAME FINAL SCORE RANK

55 31273 UJWAL MEHTA 101.75 55

56 31474 ICHHYA PRADHAN 101.5 56

57 31456 SUBANI PAUDEL 101.25 57

58 31143 NITESH ADHIKARI 101.25 58

59 31430 RICHA YADAV 100.75 59

60 31172 MELINA MULMI 100 60

61 31263 REETU SHARMA 99.75 61

62 31376 PRAKRITEE LIMBU 99.75 62

63 31433 DOLLY AGRAWAL 99.25 63

64 31525 BINAY KUMAR YADAV 99.25 64

65 31285 ASHRU SHRESTHA 99 65

66 31035 GYANENDRA SHARMA 98.75 66

67 31214 PARIKSIT TIMILSINA 98.5 67

68 31160 PRAKASH POUDYAL 97.75 68

69 31527 PUSHPA LAL SHAH 97.5 69

70 31338 UJJWAL SHRESTHA 97 70

71 31271 KUSUM K.C. 97 71

72 31397 ANIL KUMAR 96.75 72

73 31491 RENU MEHTA 96.5 73

74 31467 KERISHNA KANSAKAR 96.25 74

75 31221 SAROJ MAHARJAN 96.25 75

76 31092 BIBEK SUNAR 95.25 76

77 31209 PRIKSHA KHANAL 95 77

78 31176 JYOTI KHAREL 95 78

79 31389 PRAKASH SUWAL 95 79

80 31109 SRIJANA JAIRU 94.75 80

81 31530 SLESHA GURUNG 94.75 81

SN ROLL NO FULL NAME FINAL SCORE RANK

82 31211 SMRITI CHAUDHARY 94.75 82

83 31496 ANAMOL DUMARU 94.5 83

84 31315 SUMAN PUDASAINI 94 84

85 31327 RAKSHAK MANANDHAR 93.75 85

86 31052 RAJ KUMAR SHRESTHA 93.75 86

87 31006 AJIT KUMAR YADAV 93.75 87

88 31275 PRIYANKA SHAH 93.75 88

89 31326 SUBASH MEHTA 93.5 89

90 31303 REBIKA SHRESTHA 93.25 90

91 31359 RITI GUPTA 93 91

92 31409 SAGAR PARIYAR 92.5 92

93 31477 PRAKRITI KAFLE 92.5 93

94 31110 MANISH KUMAR DEV 92 94

95 31311 SAUJANYA PANT 92 95

96 31093 BIMAL POUDEL 91.75 96

97 31314 SABYA MANANDHAR 91.75 97

98 31381 SABIN GWACHHA 91.75 98

99 31046 SUNITA PUN 91.75 99

100 31305 DIVYA JHA 91.5 100

101 31505 KRITISHA ACHARYA 91.25 101

102 31324 SUSHANT KUMAR THAKUR 91.25 102

103 31367 SURESH DAHAL 91.25 103

104 31281 ASMITA KUMARI SAH 91 104

105 31158 AKASH NHEMAPHUKI 91 105

106 31145 PINKY AGRAWAL 90.75 106

107 31335 MANISHA KHARBUJA 90.75 107

108 31522 RAJMEE SHRESTHA 90.75 108

SN ROLL NO FULL NAME FINAL SCORE RANK

109 31516 INCHUNA BARAL 90.5 109

110 31146 PABITRA REGMI 90.5 110

111 31306 REGINA DAHAIT 89.75 111

112 31067 ELINA SHRESTHA 89.75 112

113 31207 AISHWARYA JOSHI 89.25 113

114 31471 SRISHTI POUDEL 89.25 114

115 31195 SRIJA JOSHI 89.25 115

116 31426 RIJU SHRESTHA 89 116

117 31144 BENUJA BHANDARI 89 117

118 31104 NITU CHAUDHARY 89 118

119 31074 SAMJHANA GAUTAM 88.75 119

120 31234 ANUJA RUWALI 88.75 120

121 31009 PRANAV KUMAR JHA 88.75 121

122 31497 BISHEK DAHAL 88.5 122

123 31362 KRITI SHRESTHA 88.5 123

124 31071 ROSHAN KUMAR SHAH 88.5 124

125 31349 ANUKA DANGOL 88.25 125

126 31422 SIDDHARTHA SHAKYA 88.25 126

127 31012 PALLAVA KUMAR UPADHAYAYA 88.25 127

128 31464 SHIKHA ADHIKARI 88.25 128

129 31429 ASMITA BHATTARAI 87.5 129

130 31204 RABINA CHAUDHARY THARU 87.25 130

131 31396 ANU PARAJULI 87.25 131

132 31400 SUSHMITA CHHETRI 87 132

133 31345 SRISTI NAPIT 86.75 133

134 31233 RADHA SHAH 86.5 134

135 31022 RIJA MANANDHAR 86.5 135

SN ROLL NO FULL NAME FINAL SCORE RANK

136 31073 AAKRITI JHA 86.5 136

137 31507 SUJANA THAPA 86.25 137

138 31416 BAMINA MAHARJAN 86.25 138

139 31217 SUBHEKSHYA GYAWALI 85.5 139

140 31436 RAMITA LAMA 85.5 140

141 31357 SHRISTI GAUTAM 85.25 141

142 31091 APPU YADAV 85 142

143 31026 SANJAYA PANDEY 85 143

144 31111 ASMITA KUMARI BHANDARI 84.75 144

145 31025 AMRITA KUMARI YADAV 84.75 145

146 31283 RADHA JAISWAL 83.75 146

147 31521 SANJU PANDIT 83.25 147

148 31128 BINAYA BHANDARI 82.75 148

149 31475 ANISHA KHADKA 82.5 149

150 31517 PRAKRITI SHARMA 82.5 150

151 31301 PAYAL JHA 82.5 151

152 31224 RASHILA MANANDHAR 82.5 152

153 31510 ASMITA KATUWAL CHHETRI 82.5 153

154 31325 BIMALA KHATRI 82.5 154

155 31280 SADIKSHA GAUTAM 82 155

156 31378 SUJAN TIMSINA 82 156

157 31299 PRAMILA KHANAL 81.5 157

158 31193 ARABINDA SHRESTHA 81.5 158

159 31236 DURGA PANTHA 81 159

160 31107 ASHWIN KUMAR GUPTA 81 160

161 31123 SARITA KUMARI YADAV 80.75 161

162 31288 SAMPADA POKHREL 80.75 162

SN ROLL NO FULL NAME FINAL SCORE RANK

163 31219 MONICA JHA 80.5 163

164 31350 ANUP OJHA 80.5 164

165 31502 KRISHA SUWAL 80.5 165

166 31452 ASTHA RAJBHANDARI 80.25 166

167 31450 DIPAK RAUT 80.25 167

168 31164 SAHIRA RAJBHANDARI 80.25 168

169 31203 ROMARIYA MAHARJAN 80.25 169

170 31113 PRATIMA PATHAK 80.25 170

171 31514 PRAKRITI RUPAKHETY 80 171

172 31302 PUJA BHAGAT 80 172

173 31166 SHEKHAR KUMAR MANDAL 79.75 173

174 31230 SONU THAPA MAGAR 79.5 174

175 31334 SONAM MISHRA 79.5 175

176 31262 PRANISHA BHANDARI 79.25 176

177 31394 MANIKA SHRESTHA 79 177

178 31238 KRISTINA SAPKOTA 79 178

179 31053 DEEPENDRA POKHAREL 79 179

180 31351 AGYA TIMSINA 78.75 180

181 31267 TANUJA G.C. 78.5 181

182 31235 MANOJ SHRESTHA 78.25 182

183 31072 RAVI RANJIT SHAH 78.25 183

184 31342 POONAM SHRESTHA 78.25 184

185 31033 AVINESH SHRESTHA 78.25 185

186 31332 RACHITA BHATTARAI 78.25 186

187 31518 ASMITA PAUDYAL 78 187

188 31190 RANJANA SHAH 78 188

189 31353 ROJINA POUDEL 78 189

SN ROLL NO FULL NAME FINAL SCORE RANK

190 31244 AATISH PANGENI 77.75 190

191 31403 REKHA YADAV 77.75 191

192 31382 PRERANA ARYAL 77.5 192

193 31284 SABINA KARKI 77.5 193

194 31425 ANISHA SHRESTHA 77.5 194

195 31375 PRIYA BAJRACHARYA 77.5 195

196 31431 AYUSHI ADHIKARI 77.25 196

197 31377 SMRITI PANDIT 77 197

198 31508 RANJANA KHANAL 76.75 198

199 31503 KAJAL THAKUR 76.75 199

200 31228 PUNAM RAI 76.75 200

201 31242 ASTHA UPADHYAYA 76.5 201

202 31050 RANJANA SHAH 76.25 202

203 31229 ANUPA TIWARI 76.25 203

204 31511 SAYANA ACHARYA 76.25 204

205 31369 DILASHMA THAPA 76.25 205

206 31366 BIRAT THAPA 76 206

207 31515 SUNIRA KARKI 76 207

208 31487 SUSMITA ADHIKARI 76 208

209 31095 VIJAY RAI 76 209

210 31463 PRATIMA PANTA 75.75 210

211 31252 SAGAR PANTHI 75.75 211

212 31440 SIMPHONI SHRESTHA 75.75 212

213 31005 SARITA SHAH 75.75 213

214 31188 SUSMITA THAPA 75.5 214

215 31404 KIRTI KUMARI WASTI 75.25 215

216 31358 SIMA KUMARI VERMA 75.25 216

SN ROLL NO FULL NAME FINAL SCORE RANK

217 31100 BHUWAN CHAUHAN 75 217

218 31446 SWORUPA WAGLE 75 218

219 31013 SITA KUMARI DAS 75 219

220 31476 RADHA MANDAL 75 220

221 31361 PRAMISHA KARKI 75 221

222 31388 SANDEEP DHOJU 75 222

223 31202 PREETI SHAH 75 223

224 31401 SALINA MAHARJAN 75 224

225 31078 DINESH KUMAR SHRESTHA 74.5 225

226 31298 MANISHA MEHTA 74.5 226

227 31173 PAMI KARNA 74.5 227

228 31162 SUSHIL POKHAREL 74.25 228

229 31265 PRAGYA TULSI 74.25 229

230 31290 SRISHTI POKHREL 74.25 230

231 31500 MANITA SITAULA 74.25 231

232 31254 ARZOO KHATRI 74 232

233 31523 UDIKSHYA MAHARJAN 74 233

234 31008 AJAY KUMAR ROY AMATYA 74 234

235 31223 NEHA SHAH 73.75 235

236 31150 SHIVANI BHANDARI 73.75 236

237 31154 MILAN RAI 73.75 237

238 31509 LAXMI KARKI 73.75 238

239 31347 ASMINA SHRESTHA 73.5 239

240 31119 BIMAL CHAND 73 240

241 31519 SANGITA PANTHI 73 241

242 31124 ROJEENA ADHIKARI 73 242

243 31139 NIROJ CHHETRI 73 243

SN ROLL NO FULL NAME FINAL SCORE RANK

244 31106 MONA BASNET 72.75 244

245 31077 MADHU SUDAN SHARMA 72.75 245

246 31393 MELINA SURYABANSHI 72.5 246

247 31090 PAWAN KUMAR GUPTA 72.5 247

248 31034 SANJIV PRASAI 72.5 248

249 31392 SUSMITA TIMILSINA 72.25 249

250 31304 JAY PRAKASH YADAV 72.25 250

251 31089 SAGAR REGMI 72 251

252 31058 RAZIYA MIYA 71.75 252

253 31473 NISCHALA CHAULAGAIN 71.5 253

254 31075 ANANDA JYOTI OLI 71.5 254

255 31226 JYOTI MAHATO 71.25 255

256 31448 PINKY JHANG 71.25 256

257 31182 AAYUSHA THAPA 71.25 257

258 31086 BIMAL DEO 71.25 258

259 31445 SHRESTA GHIMIRE 71.25 259

260 31189 SANDHYA ADHIKARI NEUPANE 71.25 260

Length of junctional epithelium is:

 # Length of junctional epithelium is:

A. 0.25-1.35 mm

B. 0.5-0.75 mm

C. 1.0-2.0 mm

D. 1.0-1.5 mm

The correct answer is A. 0.25-1.35 mm.

Junctional Epithelium: The epithelium that attaches the gingiva to the tooth's surface, it consists of stratified squamous non-keratinizing epithelium. It is 3-4 layers thick in early life but the number of

layers increases with age to 10-20. It is thicker in the coronal portion but becomes thinner toward the cemento-enamel junction only a few cell layers. The length of the JE ranges from 0.25 to 1.35mm. 

Chronic atrophic candidiasis is commonly referred to as:

 # Chronic atrophic candidiasis is commonly referred to as:

 A. Oral Thrush

B. Denture stomatitis

C. Angular cheilitis

D. Erythema multiforme

The correct answer is B. Denture stomatitis.

Denture stomatitis should be mentioned because it is often classified as a form of erythematous candidiasis, and some authors may use the term chronic atrophic candidiasis synonymously. This condition is characterized by varying degrees of erythema, sometimes accompanied by petechial

hemorrhage, localized to the denture-bearing areas of a maxillary removable dental prosthesis. 

Although the clinical appearance can be striking, the process is rarely symptomatic. Usually, the patient admits to wearing the denture continuously, removing it only periodically to clean it. Whether this represents actual infection by C. albicans or is simply a tissue response by the host to the various microorganisms living beneath the denture remains controversial.

Stress shielding effect is seen in:

 # Stress shielding effect is seen in:

 A. Miniplates

B. Compression bone plating

C. Lag screw

D. Transosseous wiring

The correct answer is B. Compression bone plating.

Stress shielding is the reduction in bone density (osteopenia) as a result of removal of typical stress from the bone by an implant. This is because by Wolff's law, bone in a healthy person or animal remodels in response to the loads it is placed under. 

The most obvious postoperative complications of internal fixation using compression plates are misplaced bone segments or fixation devices. These complications are readily identified by clinical examination (e.g. malocclusion) or postoperative radiographic examinations. A second surgical procedure will correct such complications. Other complications related to rigid internal fixation include palpability, infection, extrusion or exposure, translocation, stress shielding, cortical osteopenia, and nonunion.