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T:B lymphocyte ratio in GCF is:

# T:B lymphocyte ratio in GCF is:
A. 1:3
B. 2:1
C. 3:1
D. 1:1



The correct answer is A. 1:3

The ratio of T lymphocytes to B lymphocytes was found to be reversed from the normal ratio of about 3:1 found in peripheral blood to about 1:3 in GCF. 

Ref: Carranza's Clinical Periodontology, 12th Edition, Page no 216.

Posterior vibrating line is at the junction of:

#  Posterior vibrating line is at the junction of:
A. Levator palatini and tensor palatini
B. Levator palatini and muscular portion of the soft palate
C. Aponeurosis of levator palatini and muscular portion of the soft palate
D. Aponeurosis of tensor palatini and muscular portion of soft palate



The correct answer is D. Aponeurosis of tensor palatini and muscular portion of soft palate.

Posterior vibrating line It is an imaginary line located at the junction of the soft palate that shows limited movement and the soft palate that shows marked movement. It also represents the junction between the aponeurosis of the tensor veli palatini muscle and the muscular portion of the soft palate. It is recorded by asking the patient to say “ah’ in short but normal nonvigorous fashion. This line is usually straight.


Guiding planes in cast partial denture:

 # Guiding planes in cast partial denture:
A. Should be perpendicular to the path of insertions
B. They must always face each other
C. Should be prepared always on the proximal surface of the abutment teeth
D. Should be parallel to the path of insertion



The correct answer is D. Should be parallel to the path of insertion.

Guiding planes or guide planes are defined as “Two or more vertically parallel surfaces of abutment teeth so oriented as to direct the path of placement and removal of removable partial dentures” -GPT. They are prepared on the proximal and axial surfaces of primary and secondary abutment teeth.

Structure
Guide planes are usually 2-3 mm in occlusogingival height parallel to the path of insertion. The guide planes should be flat and contain no undercuts. Guide planes do not occur naturally on the abutment teeth, instead they should be prepared by the clinician during prosthetic mouth preparation. They are prepared by selective grinding of teeth (enameloplasty) or by appropriate shaping of wax patterns, crowns or cast restorations on the abutment teeth.

KATHMANDU UNIVERSITY, BDS Final Year, Conservative Dentistry and Endodontics 25th Aug 2021 Past Questions

 KATHMANDU UNIVERSITY
University Examination
August/ September 2021

Level: BDS                                                                         Subject: Conservative Dentistry and Endodontics
Exam: Final BDS (New course)

Time: 2 hrs. 30 minutes                                                                                              Full Marks: 50 marks
Date August 25, 2021

INSTRUCTION TO THE CANDIDATE
  • Answer each section in a separate answer book
  • Write brief, relevant and legible answers
  • Illustrate your answer with well labelled diagrams wherever required.
  • All questions are compulsory.
Section ' B' 
[25 marks]
1. Define dentin hypersensitivity. Explain in detail the causes and treatments of dentin hypersensitivity.[1+2+2=5]
2. A 27-years-old female patient reported to the Department of Conservative Dentistry with chief complaint of sensitivity of upper left back tooth. The teeth were free from caries. There was a sharp notch on the cervical region of 24. Further clinical examination revealed abnormal occlusal inter relation between the maxillary and mandibular teeth [1 + 2 + 3 = 6]
- What is the Diagnosis?
- Write the mechanisms of formation of such lesions.
- Write about considerations for restorative management of non-carious lesions.

3 What are the various methods of isolation? Write down the perceived advantages and disadvantages of Rubber dam in isolation. [2 + 3 = 5]

4 Write short notes on: [3*3=9]
a Role of Remaining Dentin thickness in restorative procedures
b. Tertiary dentin
c. Retraction cords

Section " C"
[25 marks]
5. A patient came with serve pain and mobility of his lower first molar since few days. The patient had a history of pain a few years back for which root canal treatment was initiated but discontinued after the first visit. IOPA radiograph shows coronal radiolucency continuous with pulp chamber and periapical radiolucency too. 
A. Classify periapical diseases. [3]
B. What is your periapical diagnosis for above condition? [1]
C. Write the treatment plan.[2]

6. Define and classify tooth luxation. Write in detail about extrusive luxation injuries. [1 + 1 + 3 = 5]

7. Classify obturation techniques. Write in detail about cold lateral compaction technique. Write its limitations.  [1 + 4 + 1 = 5]

8. Write short note on: [3x3 = 9] 
a. Internal Resorption.
b. Goals of access cavity preparation.
c. Root canal working width

THE END



Ethical principle that require health professionals to fully inform their patients and protect their confidentiality

 # Ethical principle that require health professionals to fully inform their patients and protect their confidentiality is the principle of:
A. Justice
B. Autonomy
C. Veracity
D. Beneficence



The correct answer is B. Autonomy. 

The 4 main ethical principles, that is beneficence, nonmaleficence, autonomy, and justice, are defined and explained. Informed consent, truth-telling, and confidentiality spring from the principle of autonomy. 

Oral hygiene was first practiced by:

 # Oral hygiene was first practiced by:
A. Chinese
B. Estruscans
C. Sumerians
D. Sushruta



The correct answer is C. Sumerians.

Sumerians practiced oral hygiene as early as 3000 B.C. using gold toothpicks. The chinese used chewstick as a tooth pick and toothbrush to clean and massage gingival tissues. 

Charaka Samhita stressed on tooth brushing- the stick for tooth brushing should be bitter, pungent or astringent. One of its end should be chewed in the form of a brush and should be used twice daily without injuring gums. Neem chewsticks are still used today The small wooden stick used by Arabs, the end of which was often chewed, the wood fibers being used as a brush - called Siwak or Miswak.


The term ‘secular trend’ implies:

 # The term ‘secular trend’ implies:
A. Being liberal minded in diagnosing
B. Cold professional attitude
C. Changes in occurrence over a long period of time
D. Migration from rural areas



The correct answer is C. Changes in occurrence over a long period of time.

Long term or secular trends refers to changes in disease frequency that occurs gradually over long periods of time. Oral cancer is an example of disease which has shown a consistent upward trend during the past years, whereas diseases like tuberculosis, typhoid, polio and diphtheria have shown a downward trend. 

Clinical wastes in hospitals are to be disposed of in which colored bags?

 # Clinical wastes in hospitals are to be disposed of in which colored bags?
A. Yellow
B. Black
C. Green
D. Red



The correct answer is A. Yellow.

Clinical wastes are disposed of in yellow bags and non clinical wastes are disposed of in black bags. Incinerators are used to burn all the combustibles at temperatures of 1300-1500 degree Centigrade. 

Temporary hardness of water is due to the presence of the following salts of calcium and magnesium:

 # Temporary hardness of water is due to the presence of the following salts of calcium and magnesium:
A. Bicarbonates
B. Sulphates
C. Chlorides
D. Nitrates



The correct answer is A. Bicarbonates.

Temporary hardness of water is due to calcium and magnesium bicarbonates while permanent hardness is due to calcium and magnesium sulphates, chlorides and nitrates. 


Waste water from kitchen is called:

 # Waste water from kitchen is called:
A. Sullage
B. Sewage
C. Garbage
D. Kitchen water



The correct answer is A. Sullage.

Garbage means discarded vegetable matter from the kitchen, canteens, etc.
Sullage refers to the fluid waste from a kitchen unmixed with excrements. 
Water sewage refers to waste water from household, industries, etc. containing human excreta. 
Refuse is all the solid and semisolid waste matters of a community EXCEPT excrements. 
 

The point at which the chlorine demand of water is met is termed:

 # The point at which the chlorine demand of water is met is termed:
A. Break point
B. Back wash
C. Loss of head
D. Chlorine demand



The correct answer is A. Break Point.

Chlorine demand of the water is the difference between the amount of chlorine added to the water and the amount of residual chlorine remaining at the end of a specific period of contact at a given temperature and pH of water.

The minimum recommended concentration of free chlorine is 0.5 mg per liter for one hour and it should be present for a contact period of at least one hour to kill bacteria and viruses. 

The point at which chlorine demand of water is met is called break point. If further chlorine is added beyond the break point, free chlorine begins to appear in the water. 

The sum of the chlorine demand of the water plus the free residual chlorine of 0.5 mg per liter constitutes the correct dose of chlorine to be applied. 

The health promotional phase in public health is between the years:

 # The health promotional phase in public health is between the years:
A. 1880-1920
B. 1920-1960
C. 1960-1980
D. 1980-2000



The correct answer is B. 1920-1960.

Four phases of public health have been recognized:
A. Phase one: Disease Control Phase (1880-1920)
The 19th century Public Health- matter of sanitary legislation and sanitary reform, safe water supply and waste disposal. 

B. Phase Two: Health promotional phase (1920-1960)
At the beginning of the 20th century, the concept of health promotion emerged. As a result, in addition to disease control activities, one more goal was initiated. e.g. Maternal and child health, School health, mental health, occupational health and rehabilitation services.

C. Phase Three: Social Engineering phase (1960-1980)
Chronic conditions such as cancer, Diabetes mellitus (DM), cardiovascular diseases (CVD), and alcoholism, drug addiction occurred. These chronic health problems could not be tackled by the traditional approaches to public health i.e. isolation, immunization, and disinfection) nor they can be explained on the basis of germ theory (biomedical) of disease. The concept of risk factors (social, environmental, genetic and lifestyle) came into action as determinants of disease. 

D. Phase four: Health for all phase (1980-2000)
Primary Health care, Health for all (HFA)- Health for all meant that every individual should have access to Primary Health Care 

Monomer in heat cure denture base acrylic resins

 # In heat cure denture base acrylic resins, the monomer is:
A. Methyl methacrylate
B. Ethyl methacrylate
C. Methyl ethyl methacrylate
D. Polymethyl methacrylate


The correct answer is A. Methyl methacrylate.

Most polymethyl methacrylate resin systems include powder and liquid components. The powder consists of prepolymerized spheres of polymethyl methacrylate and a small amount of benzoyl peroxide, termed the initiator, which is responsible for starting the polymerization process. The liquid is predominantly nonpolymerized methyl methacrylate monomer with small amounts of hydroquinone. Hydroquinone is added as an inhibitor, which prevents undesirable polymerization or “setting” of the liquid during storage. Inhibitors also retard the curing process and thereby increase working time.

Ref: Phillip’s Science of Dental Materials, 12th Edition, Page no. 475



Esthetic Appliances for Orthodontic Treatment

 # In adults seeking orthodontic treatment with esthetic appliances the following may be choices EXCEPT:
a) Lingual orthodontics 
b) Ceramic brackets
c) Clear aligner therapy
d) Titanium brackets



The correct answer is D. Titanium brackets.

All other options are considered esthetic orthodontic appliances because they are either not visible or highly perceptible. Titanium brackets display metal and are not esthetic. Clear aligner therapy can be used for minor orthodontic corrections and can be preferred by patients due to esthetics and ease of use. 


Rotated Maxillary Central Incisor

 # A child is brought to the clinic with complaint of irregular teeth. The maxillary central incisor is rotated in an otherwise normal occlusion. What should the next step be?
a) Check for supernumerary teeth
b) Resection of supracrestal fibers
c) Exert a couple on tooth
d) Fixed orthodontic appliances given  



The correct answer is a. Check for supernumerary teeth.

Unerupted mesiodens and the presence of thick labial frenum between the central incisors are common causes of midline diastema.

Before attempting to close midline diastema, radiographs should be taken to rule out supernumerary teeth as the cause of diastema.


Agent approved as an immersion sterilant

 # Which of the following agents is approved as an immersion sterilant?
A. Ethyl alcohol
B. Glutaraldehyde
C. Iodophors
D. Sodium Hypochlorite



The correct answer is B. Glutaraldehyde.

Immersion sterilants are agents used to sterilize instruments by dipping them in their solution. 

Glutaraldehydes are used as a disinfectant and in fixing biological tissues for light and electron microscopy. This is the most widely used immersion sterilant. 

Glutaraldehyde, sold under the brandname Cidex and Glutaral among others, is a disinfectant, medication, preservative, and fixative. As a disinfectant, it is used to sterilize surgical instruments and other areas of hospitals.  As a medication, it is used to treat warts on the bottom of the feet. Glutaraldehyde is applied as a liquid.

Endodontically treated teeth

 # Endodontically treated teeth:
A. Decay and breakdown rapidly
B. Require no special design or restoration
C. Are weak and can fracture due to occlusal forces
D. Are more stronger



The correct answer is C. Are weak and can fracture due to occlusal forces.

Routinely, teeth that have had endodontic treatment are weak and subject to fracture from occlusal forces. These teeth require restorations designed to provide protection from this injury. This particularly applies to posterior teeth, which are subjected to greater stress.

Ref: Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, 7th Edition, Page no e125



Abfraction is caused by

 # A patient had a non carious lesion on the lower premolar and was diagnosed as abfraction. Abfraction is caused by:
A. Excess intake of aerated drinks
B. Excessive forces during brushing
C. Flexure of the tooth from occlusal trauma
D. Leaching of 30% hydrogen peroxide during walking bleach



The correct answer is C. Flexure of the tooth from occlusal trauma.

The loss of tooth structure in the cervical areas (abrasion) is commonly seen as a rounded notch in the gingival portion of the facial aspects of teeth. In contrast to cervical lesions that develop from abrasion processes, idiopathic erosion lesions (“abfractions”) are cervical, wedge-shaped defects (angular as opposed to rounded) similar to the defects customarily associated with abrasion but in which one of the possible causative factors may include excessive flexure of the tooth as a result of heavy, eccentric occlusal forces.  

Ref: Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, 7th Edition, Page no 106


Over contouring of class II restoration:

 # Over contouring of class II restoration:
A. Leads to healing of periodontal tissues
B. Reduces the plaque in the subgingival area
C. Reduces food impaction by tight contacts
D. Leads to inflammation of the marginal gingiva


The correct answer is D. Leads to inflammation of the marginal gingiva.

Normal tooth contours must be recreated in the performance of operative dental procedures. Improper location and degree of facial or lingual convexities may result in iatrogenic injury in which the proper facial contour is disregarded in the design of the cervical area of a mandibular molar restoration. Overcontouring is the worst offender, usually resulting in increased plaque retention that leads to a chronic inflammatory state of the gingiva.

Ref: Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, 7th Edition, Page no 12


Retention form in class II cavity for amalgam

 # Retention form in class II cavity for amalgam is achieved from:
A. Reduction of cusps
B. Convergence of proximal and occlusal walls occlusally
C. Flat gingival seat
Parallel proximal and occlusal walls



The correct answer is B. Convergence of proximal and occlusal walls occlusally.

The design of preparation primary retention form is directly related to the retention needs of the anticipated restorative material. Amalgam restoration of a Class I or II preparation is retained by developing external tooth walls that converge occlusally. In this way, when the amalgam is placed in the preparation and hardens, it cannot be dislodged. However, excessive occlusal convergence of the external walls will result in unsupported enamel rods at the cavosurface margin and must be avoided.

Ref: Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, 7th Edition, Page no 128


Initiator/accelerator systems needed for a light activated composite

 # Which of the following initiator/accelerator systems is needed for a light activated composite?
A. Peroxide amine
B. Diketone amine
C. Organic acid –peroxide
D. Organic acid- metal ion





The correct answer is B. Diketone Amine.

The light-cure process is activated when a diketone photosensitizer such as camphorquinone (CQ) absorbs a quantum of blue light and forms an excited-state complex (exciplex) with an electron donor such as an amine (e.g., dimethylaminoethyl methacrylate [DMAEMA]).

Ref: Phillip’s science of Dental Materials, 12th Edition, Page no. 289

Most difficult teeth to anesthetize with irreversible pulpitis

 # What are the most difficult teeth to anesthetize with irreversible pulpitis?
a. maxillary molars
b. mandibular molars
c. maxillary anterior teeth
d. maxillary premolars


The correct answer is B. Mandibular molars.

With irreversible pulpitis, the teeth most difficult to anesthetize are the mandibular molars, followed by (in order) the mandibular and maxillary premolars, maxillary molars, mandibular anterior teeth, and maxillary anterior teeth.

Ref: Endodontics Principles and Practice, Torabinejad, Fifth Edition, Page e26


Which of the following is classified as a procedural accident?

 # Which of the following is classified as a procedural accident?
a. Extensive caries preventing adequate rubber dam isolation
b. Inability to obtain reliable pulp testing results
c. A separated instrument
d. Swelling after nonsurgical root canal treatment



The correct answer is C. A separated instrument.

Procedural accidents are one reason for referral and are a direct result of treatment rather than preoperative conditions, diagnostic testing, or postoperative symptoms. A separated instrument is one of the most difficult accidents to correct.

Ref: Endodontics Principles and Practice, Torabinejad, Fifth Edition, Page e17

Akhanda Smile Dental Clinic, Buddhachowk, Bharatpur Chitwan

 Name of Dental Clinic: Akhanda Smile Dental Clinic
Address: Buddhachowk, Bharatpur Chitwan (nearby BPKMCH)
Year of Establishment: 2018
Name of the chief Dental Surgeon: Dr. Laxman Poudel (21377), Dr. Shishir Poudel(20942)
CONTACT NUMBER: 9862448924

Arch length space for the eruption of permanent mandibular second and third molars is created by:

 # Arch length space for the eruption of permanent mandibular second and third molars is created by:
A. Apposition of the alveolar process
B. Apposition of the anterior border of ramus
C. Resorption of the anterior border of ramus
D. Resorption at the posterior border of ramus



The correct answer is C. Resorption of the anterior border of ramus.

Nowhere is there a better example of remodeling resorption than in the backward movement of the ramus of the mandible. The mandible grows longer by apposition of new bone on the posterior surface of the ramus. At the same time, large quantities of bone are removed from the anterior surface of the ramus. In essence, the body of the mandible grows longer as the ramus moves away from the chin, and this occurs by removal of bone from the anterior surface of the ramus and deposition of bone on the posterior surface. 

In infancy, the ramus is located at about the spot where the primary first molar will erupt. Progressive posterior remodeling creates space for the second primary molar and then for the sequential eruption of the permanent molar teeth. More often than not, however, this growth ceases before enough space has been created for the eruption of the third permanent molar, which becomes impacted in the ramus. 

Ref: Contemporary Orthodontics, Proffit, 4th Edition, Page no 47


Facial plane in Lateral Cephalogram:

 # In a lateral cephalogram, facial plane runs from:
A. Nasion to pogonion
B. Nasion to gnathion
C. Sella to gnathion
D. Nasion to ANS



The correct answer is A. Nasion to Pogonion. 

Facial plane: It is a line from the anterior point of the frontonasal suture (nasion) to the most anterior point of the mandible (pogonion). 

Condition always present in a class II div 2 malocclusion

 # Which of the following conditions is always present in a class II div 2 malocclusion?
A. Open bite
B. Crossbite
C. Deep bite
D. Closed bite



The correct answer is C. Deep Bite. 

Some children exhibit a skeletal vertical deficiency (short face), almost always in conjunction with an anterior deep bite and some degree of mandibular deficiency and often with a Class II, division 2 malocclusion. Skeletally, the condition often can be described as Class II rotated to Class I. The reduced face height is often accompanied by everted and prominent lips that would be appropriate if the face height were normal. Children with a vertical deficiency can be identified at an early age. 

Ref: Contemporary Orthodontics, Proffit, 4th Edition, page no. 534


Center of rotation in simple tipping

 # When a simple tipping force is applied to the crown of an incisor, the center of rotation is usually located:
A. At the apex
B. At the incisal edge
C. At the cervical line
D. One third the root length from the apex


The correct answer is D. One third the root length from the apex.

Center of rotation-the point around which rotation actually occurs when an object is being moved. If a force and a couple are applied to an object, the center of rotation can be controlled and made to have any desired location. 

The center of resistance( Cp)f or any tooth is at the approximate midpoint of the embedded portion of the root. lf a single force is applied to the crown of a tooth, the tooth will not only translate but also rotate around Cp (i.e., the center of rotation and center of resistance are identical), because a moment is created by applying a forcea t a distance from Cn. The perpendiculadr istancef rom the point of force application to the center of resistance is the moment arm. Pressure in the periodontal ligament will be greatest at the alveolar crest and opposite the root apex. 

Ref: Contemporary Orthodontics, Proffit, 4th Edition, Page no. 373





The ‘ugly duckling stage’ is characterized by:

 # The ‘ugly duckling stage’ is characterized by:
A. Distoangular axial inclination of the crown of maxillary incisors
B. Deep overbite
C. Mandibular lateral incisors erupting lingual to mandibular central incisors
D. Maxillary lateral incisors erupting lingual to maxillary central incisors



The correct answer is A. Distoangular axial inclination of the crown of maxillary incisors.

In some children, the maxillary incisors flare laterally and are widely spaced when they first erupt, a condition often called the "ugly duckling" stage. The position of the incisors tends to improve when the permanent canines erupt, but this condition increases the possibility that the canines will become
impacted.

Ref: Contemporary Orthodontics, Proffit, Fourth Edition, Page no. 101


Orthodontic correction of which of the following is most easily retained?

 # Orthodontic correction of which of the following is most easily retained?
A. Anterior crossbite
B. Spacing
C. Diastema
D. Crowding



The correct answer is A. Anterior Crossbite.

Earliest radiographic sign of osteomyelitis

 # The earliest radiographic sign of osteomyelitis is:
A. Solitary or multiple small radiolucent areas
B. Increased granular radiopacity
C. Blurring of trabecular outlines
D. Formation of sequestrum appearing as radiopaque patches


The correct answer is C. Blurring of Trabecular outlines.

Radiographic Features
Radiodensity—about 10 days after acute infection, the density of trabeculae will be decreased, with blurred and fuzzy. For the radiographs to reveal any changes, there must be a loss of from 30 to 60% in the calcium content.

Trabecular pattern—the earliest radiographic change is that trabeculae in the involved area are thin, of poor density and slightly unsharp or blurred. The trabeculae soon lose their continuity as well as the little density present. Individual trabeculae become fuzzy and indistinct.

Ref: Textbook of Oral Medicine, 2nd Edition, Anil Govindrao Ghom





Treatment of Fordyce's granule

 # If one of your patient is having Fordyce’s granules in his buccal mucosa, what will be your line of treatment?
A. Excision
B. No treatment needed
C. Topical application of steroids
D. Surgery followed by radiotherapy



The correct answer is B. No treatment needed. 

Ref: Shafer's Textbook of Oral Pathology, page no. 25. These glands are innocuous, have no clinical or functional significance, and require no treatment. However, very rarely a benign sebaceous gland adenoma may develop from these intraoral structures.



Anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia affects:

 # A known case of anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia is brought to hospital for treatment. Which area of the body do you find mostly affected in this case?
A. Spleen
B. Skin or ectoderm
C. Kidney
D. Thyroid gland



The correct answer is B. Skin or Ectoderm. 

The most commonly occurring ectodermal dysplasia is called as ‘hereditary hypohidrotic
(anhidrotic) ectodermal dysplasia’. This shows X-linked inheritance. 

Sex—males are affected more frequently than females.
Appearance—it is characterized by hypotrichosis, hypohydrosis and anhidrosis with saddle nose appearance.
Hairs—the hair of scalp and eyebrows tend to be fine, scanty and blond.

Frontal bosses- supraorbital and frontal bosses are pronounced.

Heat intolerance—skin is often dry, soft, smooth and scaly with partial or complete absence of sweat glands. Such patient cannot perspire and they usually suffer from hyperpyrexia and inability to endure warm temperature. 

Sibling appearance—facial appearance of these individual resemble to each other, enough to be mistaken for siblings.


Nikolsky’s sign is a feature of:

 # Nikolsky’s sign is a feature of:
A. Lichen planus
B. Pemphigus
C. Herpes simplex
D. Lupus erythematosus



The correct answer is B. Pemphigus.

Nikolsky’s sign: It was named after Pytor Vasilyenich Nikolsky who was the first to describe this finding. On applying gentle mechanical pressure (e.g. blowing air or applying pressure with a mirror handle) on affected tissue will result in the formation of a lesion. Nikolsky’s sign is seen both in the skin and oral mucosa. It is seen in pemphigus, paraneoplastic pemphigus, mucous membrane pemphigoid, epidermolysis bullosa, linear IgA bullous disease, lupus erythematosus, graft-versus-host disease and toxic epidermal necrolysis.

Ref: Textbook of Oral Medicine, Oral Diagnosis and Oral Radiology,Ongole and Praveen, 2nd Edition, Page no. 235


All are risk factors EXCEPT:

 # All are risk factors EXCEPT:
A. Tobacco smoking
B. Microbial tooth deposit
C. Diabetes
D. Bleeding on probing




The correct answer is D. Bleeding on Probing.

Categories of Risk Elements for Periodontal Disease

Risk Factors
Tobacco smoking
Diabetes
Pathogenic bacteria
Microbial tooth deposits

Risk Determinants/Background Characteristics
Genetic factors
Age
Gender
Socioeconomic status
Stress

Risk Indicators
HIV/AIDS
Osteoporosis
Infrequent dental visits

Risk Markers/Predictors
Previous history of periodontal disease
Bleeding on probing

Ref: Carranza's Clinical Periodontology, 12th Edition, page 392



Pain on swallowing or turning the head

 # The pain on swallowing or turning the head associated with elongated styloid process is known as:
A. Tic douloureux
B. Gorham syndrome
C. Costen syndrome
D. Eagle’s syndrome



The correct answer is D. Eagle's syndrome.

Eagle’s syndrome. This syndrome consists of either elongation of the styloid process or ossification of the stylohyoid ligament causing dysphagia, sore throat, otalgia, glossodynia, headache, vague orofacial pain or pain along the distribution of the internal and external carotid arteries. Probably the most consistent symptom is pharyngeal pain. It is common for the difficulty to arise following tonsillectomy, presumably from fibrous tissue that forms and is stretched and rubbed over the elongated styloid process.

Ref: Shafer's Textbook of Oral pathology, 7th Edition, Page no. 862

Which of the following is also known as trench mouth?

 # Which of the following is also known as trench mouth?
A. Noma
B. ANUG
C. Herpes gingivostomatitis
D. Herpes zoster



The correct answer is B. ANUG

Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis frequently occurs in an epidemic pattern, sweeping through groups of
persons in close contact, especially those living under similar conditions. This was especially apparent during World War I, when the Allied troops suffered severely from the disease. It was here that the term ‘trench mouth’ originated, since the disease was especially prevalent among the troops in the trenches. Similar sporadic outbreaks also occurred during World War II.

Ref: Shafer's Textbook of Oral Pathology, 7th Edition, Page No. 396


Cheilitis granulomatosa, facial paralysis and scrotal tongue is seen in:

 # Cheilitis granulomatosa, facial paralysis and scrotal tongue is seen in:
A. Miescher syndrome
B. Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome
C. Apert syndrome
D. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome


The correct answer is B. Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome.

Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome is a rare condition consisting of a triad of persistent or recurring lip or facial swelling, intermittent seventh (facial) nerve paralysis (Bell’s palsy), and a fissured tongue.


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