# Phrenic nerve mainly supplies:
A. Diaphragm
B. Stomach
C. Ileum
D. Esophagus

# Which of the followiing is not true about facial nerve?
A. It has small sensory and large motor root
B. It supplies anterior belly of digastric
C. It gives parasympathetic supply to nasal and lacrimal glands
D. It is secretomotor to submandibular salivary glands


# Palatine process begins to fuse at:
A. 12 weeks post fertilization
B. 10 weeks post fertilization
C. 8 weeks post fertilization
D. 6 weeks post fertilization

# Lymph nodes of tongue is drained by all EXCEPT:
A. Ventral vessels
B. Posterior vessels
C. Dorsal vessels
D. Central vessels

# Infection of lower lip first reaches the bloodstream through:
A. Inferior labial vein
B. Inferior labial artery
C. Brachiocephalic vein
D. Pterygoid plexus

# Medial movement of head of condyle is brought by:
A. Buccinators
B. Lateral Pterygoid
C. Masseter
D. Medial pterygoid

# Carbon monoxide transfusion in lung is diffusion limited as:
A. Carboxy hemoglobin has high avidity
B. Base of the lung is poorly ventilated
C. pCO2 rises in blood immediately on exposure
D. Diffusion of CO across blood gas barrier is slow

# Which is not a mechanism of heat loss?
A. Peripheral vasoconstriction
B. Posture
C. Sweating
D. Vasodilation

# Life span of RBC is:
A. 45 days
B. 120 days
C. 100 days
D. 60 days

# Color of bile is due to:
A. Bilirubin
B. Creatinine
C. Bile pigments
D. Mercaptopurine

# Excess ingested carbohydrates are stored in body as:
A. Glycogen
B. Glucose
C. Triglycerides
D. Mobilized fat

# Calorific value of fat is:
A. 7
B. 4
C. 7.5
D. 9

# Best investment for casting base metal crowns:
A. Phosphate bonded investment
B. Gypsum bonded investment
C. Ethyl silicate bonded investment
D. High grade silicone bonded

# Which of the following wires can be bent for maximum number of times before it gets fractured?
A. Stainless steel
B. Cr-Co-Ni
C. Ni-Ti
D. Beta-titanium

# Density of base metal alloys compared to gold alloys is:
A. Equal
B. 1/2 times
C. 2 times
D. 4 times

# Least modulus of elasticity:
B. NiTi
C. B Titanium
D. Co-Cr

# Ratio of polymer to monomer in cold cure resin is:
A. 3:1 by weight and 2:1 by volume
B. 3:1 by volume and 2:1 by weight
C. 2:1 by volume and 2:1 by weight
D. 3:1 by volume and 3:1 by weight

# Stiffness is the term used for:
A. Toughness
B. Internal strain
C. Elastic deformity
D. Resistance to elastic deformation

# Phosphate bonded investment should be completely carbon free otherwise:
A. Investment chips off when molten metal enters the mold space
B. Black castings occur
C. Carbon makes the casting brittle
D. Smooth casting

# Hardness of stone surface is affected by:
A. Impression wax
B. Impression compound
C. Hydrocolloid impression material
D. Rubber based material

# Ceramic has which of the following property?
A. High compressive strength
B. High tensile strength
C. Low compressive strength
D. Low compressive high tensile strength

# Hard tissue of tooth is formed by:
A. Ectoderm and mesoderm
B. Mesoderm
C. Ectoderm and endoderm
D. Ectoderm

# Dental arch form is ultimately determined by:
A. Balance between facial and intra oral musculature
B. Angle's classification
C. Facial type
D. Facial growth pattern

# Fungus with branching at right angle:
A. Rhizopus
B. Candida
C. Mucor
D. Aspergillus

# Some bacteria get encapsulated to:
A. Achieve protection from phagocytosis
B. To produce spores
C. To increase penetration capacity
D. To multiply

# Amoxicillin used with clavulanic acid has which of the following effect:
A. Antagonism
B. Displacement
C. Synergism
D. Cumulative action

# Patient with petechiae in oral cavity, associated with hepatosplenomegaly, ascites and on H/E round organism within macrophages are seen which are enlarged and identified by Giemsa stain. Diagnosis is:
A. Herpangina
B. Herpes Zoster
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Kala Azar

# Most common cause of pulmonary embolism:
A. Thrombophlebitis
B. End arteritis
C. Atherosclerosis
D. Lymphangitis

# Serum chemistry analysis in a patient reveals pCO2= 30 mm Hg, pO2= 105 mm Hg, pH=7.46. This profile indicates partially compensated:
A. Metabolic alkalosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Respiratory acidosis

# Silver stain tissue biopsy of uncontrolled diabetic patient with sequestrating alveolar segment and nasal pus discharge show large long non specific hyphae with right angle branching, what will be the diagnosis?
A. Rhizopus
B. Mucormycosis
C. Candidiasis
D. Aspergillosis

# Patient with oral bullae on H/E examination ballooning degeneration is present, Lipschutz bodies and nucleolus 5-8 microns is seen; what is the diagnosis?
A. Kala Azar
B. Oral Herpes
C. Herpangina
D. Herpes zoster

# An athlete has habit of chewing gums; develop asymptomatic swelling in pre auricular region, on palpation bony hard in nature associated with new bone formation and is confirmed using CT scan. On PA view, it is radioopaque, most probable diagnosis is:
A. Benign masseteric hypertrophy
B. Traumatic myositis ossificans
C. Osteosarcoma
D. Parotitis

# Final diagnosis of Sjogren syndrome is done by:
A. Absence of SS-A Antibody
B. Positive Rheumatoid factor
C. Lip biopsy
D. Biopsy of lymph node and salivary gland excision

# Chromosome number related to Dentinogenesis Imperfecta is:
A. Chromosome no. 4
B. Chromosome no. 6
C. Chromosome no. 10
D. Chromosome no. 14

# Streptococci causes caries due to:
A. They are acid resistant
B. Ferments carbohydrates
C. Produce acids
D. Produce extracellular polysaccharide

# Which is low grade malignancy of salivary gland?
A. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
B. Acinic cell carcinoma
C. Ductal adenocarcinoma
D. Pleomorphic adenoma

# House Brackmann test is used to evaluate the function of:
A. Hypoglossal nerve
B. Optic nerve
C. Facial nerve
D. Trochlear nerve

# Best graft for mandibular reconstruction is:
A. Vascularized tibia
B. Vascularized iliac
C. Vascularized fibula
D. Costochondral

# Oro antral fistula in the region of maxillary third molar is best treatd by:
A. Buccal mucoperiosteal flap
B. Palatal mucoperiosteal flap
C. Bridge flap
D. Palatal island flap

# Le Clerc procedure is done for the treatment of:
A. Maxillary disimpaction
B. Disc displacement
C. Recurrent disc dislocation / Condylar dislocation
D. Cleft lip

# Simplification of fracture is associated with:
A. Multiple fractures
B. Comminuted fractures
C. Single line fracture of mandible
D. Green stick fracture

# Blow out fracture of orbit involves fracture of which wall?
A. Floor
B. Lateral wall
C. Medial wall
D. Roof

# Bigonial flaring of symphysis fracture can be minimized by:
A. Reconstruction plate
B. Lingual plate reduction
C. Buccal plate reduction
D. Intermaxillary fixation

# Latency period for distraction osteogenesis in an 8 month old child is:
A. 1 week
B. 0-2 days
C. 5-7 days
D. 2 weeks

# Most common cause of CSF leakage in middle third of facial skeleton is due to:
A. Sphenoidal sinus
B. Cribriform plate
C. Tegmen tympani
D. Frontal sinus

# Trismus after inferior alveolar nerve block is caused due to:
A. Breakage of needle
B. Injection into the medial petrygoid muscle
C. Injection into the parotid gland
D. Needle injury to pterygomandibular ligament

# Caldwell-Luc antrostomy is done through:
A. Middle meatus
B. Superior meatus
C. Inferior meatus
D. Inferior and middle meatus

# Color of oxygen cylinder is:
A. Black with white line
B. White with black line
C. Blue with white line
D. White with blue line

# In a costochondral grafting the chondral part is taken using:
A. 701 bur
B. Rib cutter
C. No. 11 blade
D. Rib shearer

# Janetta surgical procedure involves:
A. Microvascular decompression
B. Gasserian ganglionectomy
C. Nerve sheathing procedure
D. Cutaneous ganglion glycerolysis

# In cricothyroidotomy, incision is given in relation to the:
A. Inferior to thyroid isthmus
B. Inferior to thyroid cartilage
C. Inferior to cricoid cartilage
D. Superior to cricoid cartilage

# Patient comes to your dental clinic with frequent fracture of maxillary denture. Occlusal records are made and no occlusal discrepancies are present. What is the most probable reason?
A. Inadequate extension of maxillary denture
B. Inadequate denture retention
C. Decreased flexural strength of denture base material
D. Decreased resilience of mucosa of anterior hard palate

# In a CT angiogram internal maxillary artery is close to ankylotic mass, which is the best instrument to do gap arthroplasty?
A. No. 701 bur
B. Chisel and mallet
C. Oscillating saw
D. Piezoelectric

# In edgewise appliance, first order bend are:
A. First horizontal and then vertical
B. Bends are not given at all
C. Vertical
D. Horizontal

# ADA specification number for ortho wires is:
A. 30
B. 29
C. 31
D. 32

# According to archival analysis, facial type III, which is true?
A. Anterior cranial base does not pass through O
B. Occlusal plane does not pass through O
C. Mandibular plane does not pass through O
D. Palatal plane does not pass through O

# Decrease in collum angle is seen in:
A. Class III
B. Class II div 1
C. Class II div 2
D. Bimaxillary protrusion

# The ratio of Anterior upper facial height:lower facial height is:
A. 40:60
B. 45:55
C. 60:40
D. 55:45

# Length of base of cranium is measured by:
A. Sella to nasion
B. Nasion to menton
C. Nasion to Bolton
D. Sella to Bolton

# Centric holding cusp is:
A. Distolingual cusp of mandibular 1st molar
B. Mesiopalatal cusp of maxillary first molar
C. Mesiobuccal cusp of maxillary first molar
D. Mesiolingual cusp of mandibular first molar

# Mandibular arch completely enclosed in maxillary arch:
A. Scissor bite
B. Open bite
C. Reverse bite
D. Cross bite

# Facial plane angle is:
A. FHP to N-Pog
B. FHP to Sn-Go
C. N-Pog to Basion-Sella
D. Sn to N-Pog

# Anterior posterior curve passing along the teeth is:
A. Curve of Wilson
B. Curve of Monson
C. Curve of Spee
D. Caternary curve

# Hyperactive mentalis activity is seen in:
A. Class III
B. Class II
C. Class II div I
D. Class II div II

# A silver amalgam restoration is to be done in a posterior tooth with a proximal box extension with wide facio-lingual width. Which wedging technique should be used to well adapt the matrix band?
A. Single wedge
B. Double wedge
C. Wedge wedge
D. No wedge

# 90 degree activation of pendulum appliance creates hows much force for distalization of upper molar?
A. 200 gm
B. 300 gm
C. 250 gm
D. 350 gm

# Which of the following is the best retainer for orthodontic treatment of midline diastema?
A. No need for retainer
B. Hawley appliance for 6 months
C. Lingual bonded retainer
D. Hawley appliance for 12 months

# Prior to reimplantation, avulsed tooth is soaked in 3% citric acid. This is done to:
A. Disinfect the tooth
B. Remove the PDL
C. Etch the surface
D. Increase surface reactivity

# Pre carve burnishing, all are true EXCEPT:
A. Reduces voids in the surface of restoration
B. Improves marginal adaptation
C. Increases hardness of surface
D. Brings excess mercury to surface

# Acidity of plaque in proximal area remains below normal for:
A. 20 minutes
B. 120 minutes
C. 60 minutes
D. 180 minutes

# Most common transport media for carrying avulsed tooth is:
A. Saliva
B. Viaspan
C. Milk

# Incidence of a disease is high and prevalence is low in a specific duration of time:
A. Either disease is very fatal or easily curable
B. Disease is not cured easily
C. Incidence and prevalence are not dependent
D. None incidence and low prevaence

# Ratio of standard deviation to the mean of data is called:
A. Coefficient of skewness
B. Coefficient of variance
C. Standard variation
D. Standard error of mean

# Space maintainers are categorized into which level of health protection?
A. Health promotion
B. Specific protection
C. Tertiary protection
D. Disease limitation

# Infant mortality rate does not include:
A. Post neonatal death
B. Early neonatal death
C. Stillbirth
D. Late neonatal death

# Metallic taste after application of stannous fluoride varnish is due to:
A. Calcium trifluoro stannate
B. Stannic tri fluoro phosphate
C. Tin hydroxy phosphate
D. Stannous trifluoro phosphate

# Taking consideration of the systemic factors and displacement of gingiva, which is the best?
A. Aluminium chloride
B. Adrenaline
C. Ferric sulphate
D. Epinephrine

# True about Wilson curve is:
A. Antero-posterior curve
B. Helps in achieving compensating curve during arrangement of posteriors
C. Posterior teeth parallel to inward pull of masseter
D. Determine posterior plane of occlusion

# Wrought metal in cast RPD is used for:
A. Major connector
B. Retentive arm
C. Reciprocal arm
D. Minor connector

# Which is true about immediate denture?
A. All teeth extracted on the same day
B. Maxillary posterior teeth are extracted first and then on the day of denture insertion extract the remaining anterior teeth
C. Anteriors extracted first and on the day of denture insertion posterior teeth are extracted
D. None

# Patient is given new complete denture reports to your clinic with sore throat and pain on swallowing. probable reason is:
A. Maxillary overextension
B. Mandibular lingual border overextension
C. Maxillary overextension into pterygoid fovea
D. Mandibular overextension

# Shape of minor connector designed to connect both sides of maxilla are:
A. Circular in cross section
B. Half round in cross section
C. Triangular in cross section
D. Round in cross section

# Patient with neuromuscular incoordination reports to your clinic. Best way to do occlusal discrepancy correction is:
A. Take interocclusal records using carborundum paste
B. Take interocclusal records and do occlusal correction in the articulator
C. Direct method on patients mouth as taking jaw relations is difficult
D. No need to correct occlusal discrepancy for neuromuscular patients

# Relationship between socioeconomic status of the population and incidence of caries is studied under:
A. Cohort study
B. Case control study
C. Descriptive epidemiology
D. Analytical epidemiology

# In a rheumatoid arthritis patient with TMJ ankylosis progressively exhibiting anterior open bite and decreasing mouth opening, what is indicated?

A. Gap arthroplasty
B. Titanium and plastic graft for TMJ reconstruction
C. Neocondyle distraction
D. Costochondral graft

# A 7 year old child reports to your clinic with trauma to maxillary permanent incisor associated with Ellis class III fracture with a small laceration on the upper lip 2 hours back. On clinical examination, the tooth is within normal physiological mobility. What is the best treatment?
A. Orthodontic extrusion
B. Splint with composite
C. Apexogenesis
D. Apexification and reimplantation

# In a stainless steel crown on a deciduous molar with overhanging margins, gingival pain and inflammation occurs due to:
A. Engaging undercut
B. Excess cement
C. Entrapment of plaque
D. Crown margin causing irritation

# A child suffers from trauma which causes lateral luxation of the primary central incisor. The incisor is not in occlusion and does not cause interference. What should be done?
A. The incisor should be allowed for passive and spontaneous repositioning itself
B. Be repositioned and splinted
C. Reduce the opposing teeth
D. Reduce both the affected and the opposing teeth

# Which of the following has little or no clinical significance?
A. Eruption of second premolar before first molar
B. Eruption of permanent mandibular incisor before mandibular first molar
C. Eruption of premolar before second molar
D. Eruption of canine and premolar before second molar

# Maximum bacteria accumulated during plaque formation at which tooth surface?
A. Occlusal
B. Interproximal
C. Lingual
D. Buccal

Best retainer for midline diastema

 # In  case of orthodontically treated midline diastema which retainer should be used?
A. No need for retainer
B. Hawley appliance for 6 months
C. Lingual bonded retainer
D. Hawley appliance for 12 months

The correct answer is C. Lingual bonded retainer.

Fixed (bonded) orthodontic retainers are normally used in situations where  intra-arch instability is anticipated and prolonged retention is planned. 

There are four major indications:
- Maintenance of lower incisor position during late growth
- Diastema closure maintenance
- Maintenance of pontic or implant space
- Keeping extraction spaces closed in adults

Best investment for casting base metal crowns is:

 # Best investment for casting base metal crowns is:
A. Phosphate bonded investment
B. Gypsum  bonded investment
C. Ethyl silicate 
D. High grade silicate bonded

The correct answer is: A. Phosphate bonded investment.

Gypsum bonded investments are used for casting gold alloys. These can withstand a temperature of 700 degree C.

Base metal alloys, high melting gold alloys, which are used for metal ceramic restorations, are invested by phosphate bonded investments.

Silica bonded investments are an alternative to the phosphate bonded investments, for high temperature casting. They are used in the casting of base metal alloy partial dentures. 

Stages of Anesthesia

 The different stages of anesthesia are:

Stage I: Analgesia and conscious sedation

Stage II: Stage of delirium

Stage III: Stage of Surgical Anesthesia
                Plane I: Pupils dilate progressively with the depth of anesthesia. Lid reflex, swallowing,                                            retching  and vomitting gets abolished. Corneal reflex is present. Conjunctival                                          reflex is absent. Pharyngeal reflex is lost.

                 Plane II: Eye balls fixed, laryngeal reflexes are also abolished.

                 Plane III: Asynchrony between thoracic and abdominal movements. Progressive paralysis of                                       intercostal muscles, Pupillary light reflex and corneal reflex are lost.

                 Plane IV: Complete intercostal muscle paralysis. Pupils are dilated. Muscles are flaccid.

Stage IV: Stage of respiratory paralysis

Minor surgeries like dental extractions are carried out in stage I or stage of analgesia. Major surgeries are carried out on Plane III of Stage III of General Anesthesia or the stage of Surgical Anesthesia. 

True about herpetic gingivostomatitis

 # Which of the following is true about herpetic gingivostomatitis?
A. Common in children
B. Affects the gingiva uniformly
C. Occurs only in adults
D. It occurs on labile mucosa

The correct answer is: A. Common in children.

- Herpetic gingivostomatitis is common in  preschool children. 
- Initially focal areas of the marginal gingiva are red and swollen.
- Labile mucosa is commonly involved in recurrent aphthous ulcers.

Color matching for composites

 # The color matching for composites when done in a dry state, would make the tooth appear:
A. Darker than the adjacent teeth
B. Lighter than the adjacent teeth
C. Same as that of the adjacent teeth
D. Does not have any effect

The correct answer is B. Lighter than the adjacent teeth.

Dehydrated or dry tooth appear whiter in shade.

Removal of interproximal plaque

 # The method of choice for removal of interproximal plaque is:
A. Unitufted waxed floss
B. Multitufted unwaxed floss
C. Multitufted waxed floss
D. Unitufted unwaxed floss

The correct answer is C. Multitufted waxed floss.

For  areas of tight interproximal contacts, it is usually easier to use waxed than unwaxed floss.

Buttressing bone formation is:

# Buttressing bone formation is:
A. Congenital abnormality
B. Occurs endosteally
C. Occurs periosteally
D. Due to trauma from occlusion

The correct answer is D. Due to trauma from occlusion. 

- When excessive occlusal forces resorb bone, the bone attempts to reinforced the thinned bony trabeculae with new bone. This attempt to compensate for lost bone is called buttressing bone formation - may be central or peripheral. Peripheral butteressing boine formation is also called lipping. 

Treatment of odontogenic keratocyst extending into the mandibular ramus is:

 # Treatment of odontogenic keratocyst extending into the mandibular ramus is:
A. Enucleation without curettage
B. Marsupialization without curettage
C. Enucleation with peripheral osteotomy
D. Enbloc dissection

The correct answer is C. Enucleation with peripheral osteotomy.

Enucleation with curettage: Enucleation with curettage means that after enucleation, a curette or bur is used to remove 1 or 2 mm of bone around the entire periphery of the cystic cavity. This is done to remove any remaining epithelial cells that may be present in the periphery of the cystic wall or bony cavity.

Peripheral nerve block - Longest duration of action

 # In peripheral nerve block, which of the following local anesthetics has the longest duration of action?
A. Bupivacaine
B. Cocaine
C. Lignocaine
D. Prilocaine

The correct answer is A. Bupivacaine.

Bupivacaine and Etidocaine are long acting anesthetics with a duration of action about 180 minutes or even longer and this is due to their increased protein binding property. 

Bupivacaine is a potent agent capable of producing prolonged anesthesia. Its long duration of action and its tendency to provide more sensory than motor block has made it a popular drug for providing prolonged analgesia during  labor or the postoperative period. 

Bupivacaine and etidocaine are more cardiotoxic than equieffective doses of lidocaine. 

Bisecting angle technique is based upon:

 # Bisecting angle technique is based upon:
A. ALARA Principle
B. SLOB Rule
C. Rule of Isometry
D. Convergence

The correct answer is C. Rule of Isometry.

Cieszynski's Rule of Isometry
- Used in bisecting angle techniqiue of radiograph
- Two traingles are equal when they share one complete side and have two equal angles.
- An imaginary line that bisects the angle made by the film and the long axis of the teeth is constructed and central ray of the beam is directed at right angles to this bisector which forms two triangles with two equal angles and a common side (the imaginary bisector)

- To correctly reproduce the length of each root of a multirooted tooth, the central beam must be angled differently for each root.
- The alveolar ridge often projects more coronally than its true position.

Nucleus in Reed-Sternberg cell is also described as:

 # Nucleus in Reed-Sternberg cell is also described as ?
A. “Owl’s eyes” appearance
B. “Spectacle” appearance
C. “Ghost” appearance
D. “Moon” appearance

The correct answer is A. Owl's eyes appearance.

A Reed-Sternberg cell is  a large cell with a bilobed nucleus and prominent nucleoli giving an “owl’s eyes” appearance.

Tetracycline cause tooth discoloration due to formation of:

 # Tetracycline cause tooth discoloration due to formation of:
A. Calcium oxalate
B. Orthophosphate
C. Tetracalcium phosphate
D. Calcium oxide

The correct answer is B. Orthophosphate.

- Presence of tetracycline in the bloodstream promotes deposition of the drug in the developing enamel and dentin of teeth and bones by binding to calcium to form tetracycline-calcium-orthophosphate.

- The minimum amount required for tooth discoloration is 21 mg/kg body weight. 
- The complex causes discoloration upon eruption and exposure to sun (UV light).
# The discoloration appears as:
a) Oxytetracycline (Terramycin)  = Light yellow
b) Tetracycline (Achromycin), Demeclocycline = Yellow
c) Synthetic tetracycline (Minocycline) = Green to dark gray
d) Chlortetracycline (Aureomycin) = Gray - brown (Worst staining)
e) Doxycycline and Oxytetracycline = Light Yellow (least staining)

How much is your worth?

 A bar of iron costs $5, made into horse-shoes its worth is $12, made into needles its worth is $3500, made into balance springs for watches its worth is $300,000. Your own value is determined also by what you are able to make of yourself. 

Taste buds are predominantly located in:

# Taste buds are predominantly located in:
A. Circumvallate papilla
B. Filiform papilla
C. Foliate papilla
D. Fungiform papilla

The correct answer is A. Circumvallate papilla.

# Circumvallate papilla - Present in front of the V shaped sulcus terminalis
- Large in size and 8-12 in number
- Contain many taste buds
- Von Ebner's salivary gland ducts open into its trough

# Filiform papilla/ conical papilla 
- Keratinized threadlike and give the tongue a characteristic velvety appearance
- Smallest and most numerous papillae
- Contain no taste buds

# Fungiform papillae
- Mushroom shaped, numerous near the tip and margins of the tongue
- contain few taste buds
- Distinguished by their bright red color

# Foliate papilla
- Present on the lateral border of posterior parts of the tongue
- Contain taste buds

Passavant’s muscle is formed by:

 # Passavant’s muscle is formed by:
A. Palatoglossus
B. Palatopharyngeus
C. Styloglossus
D. Superior constrictor

The correct answer is B. Palatopharyngeus.

The upper fibres of palatopharyngeus form a sphincter internal to superior constrictor. These fibres constitute Passavant's muscle, which on contraction raises Passavant's ridge on the posterior wall of nasopharynx, but Passavant's ridge is present within Superior constrictor. 

Sensory supply of soft palate

 # The sensory supply of soft palate is from:
A. Glossopharyngeal and vagus nerve
B. Maxillary nerve and mandibular nerve
C. Glossopharyngeal nerve and maxillary nerve
D. None of the above

The correct answer is C. Glossopharyngeal nerve and maxillary nerve.

General sensory nerves are derived from: a) The middle and posterior lesser palatine nerves, which are branches of the maxillary nerve through the pterygopalatine ganglion and b) from pharyngeal branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve. 

Which muscles make up the pterygomandibular raphe:

 # Which muscles make up the pterygomandibular raphe?
A. Masseter anteriorly and palatopharyngeus posteriorly
B. Masseter anteriorly and middle pterygoid posteriorly
C. Buccinator anteriorly and superior constrictor posteriorly
D. Buccinator anteriorly and middle constrictor posteriorly

The correct answer is C. Buccinator anteriorly and superior constrictor posteriorly.

The pterygomandibular raphe is made up of interlacing tendinous fibres. It is attached above to the pterygoid hamulus (at the lower end of the medial pterygoid plate) and below to the posterior end of the mylohyoid line of the mandible. The raphe gives attachment anteriorly to fibres of the buccinator, and posteriorly to fibres of the superior constrictor of the pharynx. 




Floor of nasal cavity is formed by:

 # Floor of nasal cavity is formed by:
A. Palatine process of maxilla and horizontal part of palatine bone
B. Palatine process of maxilla and vertical part of palatine bone
C. Maxillary process of palatine and horizontal part of maxilla
D. Maxillary process of palatine and vertical part of maxilla

The correct answer is A. Palatine process of maxilla and horizontal part of palatine bone.

The nasal cavities contain: 
Respiratory area: 
The respiratory area is lined by a pseudostratified , ciliated, columnar epithelium. The epithelium contains goblet cells and a subjacent fibrous lamina propria with mixed mucous and serous glands. The Lateral walls contain conchae, which increase the surface area and promote warming of the inspired air. 

Olfactory area:
The olfactory area is located in the posterosuperior nasal cavity and is lined by a pseudostratified epithelium composed of bipolar neurons (olfactory cells), supporting cells, brush cells, and basal cells. The basal cells are stem cells that continuously turn over to replace the olfactory receptor cells. This is the only example in the adult human where neurons are replaced. Under the epithelium, Bowman glands produce serous fluid which dissolves odorous substances. 

Oral diaphragm is formed by:

 # Oral diaphragm is formed by:
A. Mylohyoid muscle
B. Genioglossus muscle
C. Buccinator muscle
D. Orbicularis oris muscle

The correct answer is A. Mylohyoid muscle.

The mylohyoid muscle or diaphragma oris is a paired muscle running from the mandible to the hyoid bone, forming the floor of the oral cavity of the mouth.

The mylohyoid muscle is flat and triangular, and is situated immediately superior to the anterior belly of the digastric muscle. It is a pharyngeal muscle (derived from the first pharyngeal arch) and classified as one of the suprahyoid muscles. Together, the paired mylohyoid muscles form a muscular floor for the oral cavity of the mouth.

The action of digastric muscle is:

 # The action of digastric muscle is:
A. Depression of mandible
B. Protrusion of mandible
C. Side to side movement of the mandible
D. Depressing the floor of the mouth

The correct answer is A. Depression of mandible.

The digastric muscle is involved in any complex jaw action such as speaking, swallowing, chewing and breathing.

When the digastric muscle contracts, it acts to elevate the hyoid bone.

If the hyoid is being held in place (by the infrahyoid muscles), it will tend to depress the mandible (open the mouth).

Nasopharynx is connected to:

 # Nasopharynx is connected to ______________ through pharyngotympanic tube.
A. Middle ear
B. Outer ear
C. Middle meatus
D. Semilunar canals

The correct answer is A. Middle ear.

The middle ear lies in the temporal bone, where the chain of three ear ossicles connect the tympanic membrane to the oval window. The middle ear cavity communicates with the nasopharynx via the eustachian tube, which allows air pressure to be equalized on both sides the tympanic membrane. 

Nasal cavity receives blood supply from:

 # Nasal cavity receives blood supply from:
A. Facial artery
B. Maxillary artery
C. Ophthalmic artery
D. All of the above

The correct answer is D. All of the above

Nasal cavity receives blood supply from superior labial, a branch of facial artery; anterior posterior ethmoidal , a branch of ophthalmic artery; Sphenopalatine and greater palatine, a branch of maxillary artery. So, the correct answer is D. All of the above.

Superior meatus of nose has opening of:

 # Superior meatus of nose has opening of:
A. Middle ethmoidal sinus
B. Anterior ethmoidal sinus
C. Posterior ethmoidal sinus
D. Middle ethmoidal sinus and Anterior ethmoidal sinus

The correct answer is C. Posterior ethmoidal sinus. 

Meatuses are passages behind the overhanging conchae. 

- Largest of all three
- Nasolacrimal duct opens into it. This opening is guarded by lacrimal fold or Hassner valve.
- Lies underneath inferior concha

- Lies underneath middle concha
- Most air sinuses open into it: Frontal air sinus, Maxillary Sinus, Middle ethmoidal sinus and anterior ethmoidal sinus

- Below superior concha
- Shallowest of all the three
- Posterior ethmoidal sinus opens into it

# Nasolacrimal Duct opens into Inferior meatus of nasal cavity.
# The frontal paranasal sinus drains into the middle meatus of the nasal cavity.

Superior sagittal sinus continues as:

 # Superior sagittal sinus continues as:
A. Inferior sagittal sinus
B. Straight sinus
C. Right transverse sinus
D. Left transverse sinus

The correct answer is C. Right transverse sinus.

Superior sagittal sinus continues as right transverse sinus. Inferior sagittal sinus ---> Straight sinus. 
Straight sinus ---> Left transverse sinus. 
Transverse sinus -----> Sigmoid sinus

Cricothyroid muscle is supplied by:

 # Cricothyroid muscle is supplied by:
A. External laryngeal nerve
B. Internal laryngeal nerve
C. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
D. A direct branch from vagus nerve

The correct answer is A. External laryngeal nerve. 

All the muscles of  larynx are supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve EXCEPT Cricothyroid. Cricothyroid is supplied by External laryngeal nerve. Recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies:
a) All intrinsic muscles of larynx EXCEPT Cricothyroid
b) Sensory nerves to the larynx below the level of the vocal cords.
c) Cardiac branches to the deep cardiac plexus.
d) Branches to the trachea and oesophagus.
e) Inferior constrictor

The space between the vocal folds is called:

 # The space between the vocal folds is called as:
A. Rima vestibuli
B. Rima glottidis
C. Rima laryngeus
D. Rima arytenoid

The correct answer is B. Rima glottidis.

Within the cavity of larynx there are two folds of the mucus membrane on each side. The upper fold is the vestibular fold and the lower fold is the vocal fold. 

The space between the right and left vestibular folds is the rima vestibuli; and the space between the vocal folds is the rima glottidis. 

The vestibular and vocal folds divide the cavity of the larynx into three parts: 
1. The part above the vestibular fold is called the vestibule of the larynx.
2. The part between the vestibular and vocal folds is called the sinus or ventricle of the larynx. 
3. The part below the vocal folds is called the infraglottic part. 

The sinus of Morgagni or ventricle of the larynx is a narrow fusiform cleft between the vestibular and vocal folds. The anterior part of the sinus is prolonged upwards as a diverticulum between the vestibular fold and the lamina of the thyroid cartilage. This extension is known as the saccule of the larynx. The saccule contains mucous glands which help to lubricate the vocal folds. 

The tympanic membrane is supplied by the following nerves EXCEPT:

 # The tympanic membrane is supplied by the following nerves EXCEPT :
A. Auriculotemporal
B. Vagus
C. Glossopharyngeal
D. Chorda tympani

The correct answer is D. Chorda tympani.

The tympanic membrane is a thin, translucent partition between external acoustic meatus and the middle ear. It forms an obtuse angle with the floor of the external auditory meatus. It is oval in shape and measures 9*10 mm. It is placed obliquely at an angle of 55 degrees with the floor of the meatus. It faces downwards, forwards and laterally. The inner surface is convex. Its outer surface is concave. The inner surface provides attachment to handle of the malleus which extends upto its center. The point of maximum convexity lies at the tip of the handle of the malleus and is called the umbo. 

The outer surface of the tympanic membrane is supplied by the auriculotemporal nerve and the auricular branch of the vagus. The inner surface is supplied by the glossopharyngeal nerve through the tympanic plexus. 

External acoustic meatus - Bony or Cartilaginous

 # Which of the following about external acoustic meatus is correct?
A. External acoustic meatus is purely cartilaginous in nature
B. External acoustic meatus is totally bony in nature
C. Medial side is bony in nature, whereas lateral side is cartilaginous in nature
D. Medial side is cartilaginous in nature, whereas lateral side is bony in nature

The correct answer is C. Medial side is bony in nature, whereas lateral side is cartilaginous in nature

External ear consists of auricle and the external acoustic meatus. 

External acoustic meatus is 24 mm long, of which medial two thirds (16 mm) are bony and lateral one third (8 mm) is cartilaginous. It can be examined by pulling the pinna upwards, backwards and outwards. The skin  lining the anterior half of the meatus is supplied by the auriculotemporal nerve and lining the posterior half by the auricular branch of the vagus. External auditory meatus contains modified sebaceous glands. Its floor is longer than its roof. It is narrowest near the tympanic membrane. 

Auricle is made of elastic cartilage. Nerve supply is from facial, vagus and mandibular nerve. Inflammation of the external ear is extremely painful  because its skin is highly vascular and firmly adherent to the underlying tissue. 

In detachment of retina, the separation is between the:

# In detachment of retina, the separation is between the:
A. Choroid and retina
B. Pigmented layer and layer of rods and cornea
C. Layer of rods and cones and external limiting membrane
D. Layer of nerve fibres and internal limiting membrane


The correct answer is B. Pigmented layer and layer of rods and cones.

In detachment of the retina, the outer pigmented layer remains attached to the choroid, but the remaining layers of the retina separate from the pigmented layer and are displaced inwards. 

Most of the eye's interior is filled with vitreous. There are millions of fine fibres intertwined within the vitreous that are attached to the surface of the retina. As we age, the vitreous slowly shrinks or liquifies, and these fibres pull on the retinal surface. Usually the fibres break, allowing the vitreous to separate and shrink from the retina. This is a vitreous detachment which occurs towards inside. 

Snyder's test tell us the:

 # Snyder's test tell us the: (AIPG-96)
a) Exact nature of microorganisms
b) Combined acidogenic nature of microorganisms
c) Enamel dissolving capacity of saliva
d) All of the above

The correct answer is B. Combined acidogenic nature of microorganisms

Snyder test measures the ability of the salivary microorganisms to form organic acids from a carbohydrate medium. In this test the glucose agar medium contains an indicator dye "Bromocresol green" which changes color from green to yellow in the range of PH 5.4 to 3.8


Colour observations in snyder test:- 

24 hrs48 hrs72 hrs

If yellow

marked caries susceptibility

If yellow 

definate caries susceptibility

If yellow 

limited caries susceptibility

If green

continue to incubate and observe at 48 hrs

If green

continue to incubate and observe at 72 hrs

If green

caries inactive

Caries activity in very young children is evaluated by:

 # The valuable test for evaluating caries activity in very young children: (KCET-10)
a) Lactobacillus colony count test
b) Swab test
c) Alban test
d) Colorimetric Snyder test

The correct answer is B. Swab Test.

Swab test was developed by Grainger et al. It has an advantage over the other tests in that no collection of saliva is necessary. So it is valuable in evaluating caries activity in very young children.


The oral flora is sampled by swabbing the buccal surfacesof the teeth with a cotton applicator, and the sample is subsequently incubated in the medium. The change in pH following a 48-hour incubation period is either read on a pH meter or read by the use of a color indicator.


Same as Snyder test

pHCaries activity
 <= 4.1 Marked caries activity
4.2 to 4.4 Active
4.5 to 4.6 Slightly active
> 4.6 Caries inactive

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