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AIIMS NOV 2012 MDS Past Entrance Exam MCQs - Dental MCQs


# Paralysis of cranial root of accessory nerve affects all except:
A. Cricopharyngeus
B. Salpingopharyngeus
C. Palatopharyngeus
D. Stylopharyngeus

# Direct and consensual light reflex is lost in which nerve palsy:
A. Trigeminal
B. Oculomotor
C. Optic
D. Trochlear

# The nerve supply of tenser-veli palatini is:
A. Pharyngeal plexus
B. IX Nerve
C. V Nerve
D. VII Nerve

# Anterior extension of Parotid fascia is known as:
A. Stylomandibular ligament
B. Masseteric fascia
C. Deep cervical fascia
D. Fascia lata




# Progressive bulbar palsy seen, with involvement of Nucleus Ambiguous, which will not be affected:
A. Cardiac ganglia
B. Parotid
C. Intrinsic muscles of larynx
D. Muscles of pharynx

# Cardiac dysrhythmia may be caused during dental extraction due to stimulation of Cranial Nerve:
A. III Nerve
B. IV Nerve
C. V Nerve
D. VII Nerve

# Excessive pressure at angle of mandible during establishment of patent airway damages the:
A. III Nerve
B. IV Nerve
C. V Nerve
D. VII Nerve

# Facial Nerve is located:
A. Above SMAS and below parotidomassetric fascia
B. Below SMAS and below parotidomassetric fascia
C. Above SMAS and above parotidomassetric fascia
D. Below SMAS and above parotidomassetric fascia

# Facial Nerve is located:
A. Above SMAS and below parotidomassetric fascia
B. below SMAS and below parotidomassetric fascia
C. above SMAS and above parotidomassetric fascia
D. between SMAS and buccal pad of fat

# Sublingual space is separated from submandibular space by:
A. Genioglossus and geniohyoid
B. Fibers of mylohyoid
C. Submandibular space
D. Body of mandible

# AIDS virus discovered in which year:
A. 1969
B. 1976
C. 1994
D. 1983

# With reference to bacteriodes fragalis the following statement are true except?
A. B. fragilis is the most frequent anaerobe isolated from clinical samples
B. B. fragilis is not uniformly sensitive to mertronidazole
C. The lipopolysaccharide formed by B. fragalis is structurally and functionally different from conventional endotoxin
D. Shock and DIC are common in bacteroides bacteremia

# Which part of bacteria are not destroyed by disinfection or antisepsis?
A. Spore
B. Prion
C. Mycobacterium
D. Coccidia

# NK-cells act against viral infected cells by?
A. Expression of MHC I on cell surface receptor
B. Non expression of MHC I on cell surface receptor
C. Expression of MHC II on cell surface receptor
D. Non Expression of MHC II on cell surface receptor

# Which of the following fatty acid should be present in breast milk for normal growth of the baby?
A. Palmitoleic acid
B. Arachidonic acid
C. Linolenic acid
D. Docasahexanoic acid

# Regarding the antibiotic Piperacillin all are true except
A. Given parenterally
B. Active against pseudomonas
C. Not effected or destroyed by beta-lactamases
D. Has effect on hemostasis

# Drug binds to substrate to produce Some effect directly or indirectly to activate, then it is?
A. Partial agonist
B. Agonist
C. Antagonist
D. Inverse agonist

# Drug which does not cross blood brain barrier?
A. Penicillin
B. Netilmicin
C. Clindamycin
D. Ceftazidime

# Drug most commonly associated to treat hypertensive crisis
A. Na Nitroprusside
B. Hydralazine
C. Diazoxide
D. Nitroglycerin

# Anti-Diabetic drug to be stopped prior to surgery under GA?
A. Metformin
B. Pioglitazone
C. Glibenclamide
D. Glicazide

# Not true abot Metformin:
A. Excreted unchanged in urine
B. Decrease hepatic glucose formation
C. Inhibits cellular respiration specially on mitochondria
D. Can be given in patients with decompensated heart disease

# Antibiotic associated with colitis:
A. Neomycin
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Clindamycin
D. Vancomycin

# Hepatitis E is associated with:
A. Chronic liver failure
B. Cirrohis
C. Acute liver failure
D. Acute renal failure

# If you are to send a Blood sample to PHC for blood glucose estimation, which of the following you would use?
A. EDTA
B. Na citrate
C. K oxalate
D. K oxalate + NaF

# Which disease involves bone and intervertebral disc space radiographically:
A. Multiple myeloma
B. TB
C. Lymphoma
D. Metastases

# Injecting a dye and viewing TMJ capsule, this procedure is called as:
A. Arthroscopy
B. Arthrography
C. Orthopantomogram
D. Arthroplasty

# Patient was diagnosed with trench mouth, what will be antibiotic of choice?
A. Penicillin + metronidazole
B. Sulphamethoxazone
C. Clindamycin
D. Chloramphenicol

# Benzoyl peroxide gives reactive molecule at what temperature?
A. 37
B. 40
C. 60
D. 25

# Benzoyl peroxide decompose at which temp and leaks out free radical?
A. 37
B. 65
C. 60
D. 20

# Salts of Gontrez is a type of:
A. Flux
B. Denture adhesive
C. Etchant
D. Accelerator

# Which of the following is not an antiflux?
A. Graphite
B. Boric acid
C. Iron oxide
D. Calcium carbonate in alcohol

# Which of the following is the function of fluoride flux in soldering procedure?
A. It prevents formation of copper oxide
B. It prevents formation of chromium oxide or dissolve chromic oxide layer
C. It prevents flow of material in undesirable area
D. Increases strength of solder

# Use of GA on a dental chair outpatient surgical procedure, absolute contraindication are all except:
A. Childern
B. Trismus
C. Severe medical disease
D. Edema of floor of mouth

# Which of these is the best way to check the perfusion of free flap:
A. Prick test
B. Pulse oximetry
C. Laser doppler flowmetry
D. Fluroscopy

# Which is the best noninvasive method to check perfusion of free flap?
A.Prick test
B. Pulse oximetry
C. Laser doppler flowmetry
D. Fluroscopy

# Obstructive sleep apnea is seen in?
A. TMJ ankylosis
B. Orbital fracture
C. Mandibular ameloblastoma
D. Dentigerous cyst

# Laser uvulopalatopharyngeal plasty is associated with:
A. Snoring
B. Cleft palate
C. Stamerring
D. Laughing

# A patient aged 35 years old showed class III malocclusion with mandibular deviation, and enlargement of condyle with increased radioopacity is seen in direction towards lateral pterygoid muscle in OPG, most likely:
A. Osteoma
B. Osteoid osteoma
C. Osteochondroma
D. Condyler hyperplasia

# Patient presents with pan-facial fractures, what should be treated first:
A. Mandible
B. NOE complex
C. Zygomatic arch
D. Any of the above but Lefort I should be treated last

# CSF rhinorrhoea cannot be differentiated by:
A. High glucose content
B. High protein content
C. Tram line pattern
D. Increased level of beta-2 transferrin

# Latent period in distraction osteogenesis is:
A. 0-2 days
B. 4-7 days
C. 21 days
D. 4-6 weeks

# Patient with chronically infected tooth on steroid came for extraction, premedication required?
A. Antibiotics
B. Antihistamines to counter the allergic reaction
C. Atropine
D. Antihypertensive

# Blood loss in oral surgery can be lessen in which person?
A. Head up
B. Head down
C. Supine
D. Prone

# During oral surgery which is the intubation of choice:
A. Nasal RAE tube
B. Armoured endotracheal tube
C. PVC endotracheal tube
D. LMA

# During maxillofacial trauma when cervical spine is not ruled out what is done to intubate?
A. Normal laryngoscopy
B. Fiberoptic nasotracheal intubation
C. LMA
D. Combitube

# Patient with prosthetic valve is under surgery to avoid sub-acute endocarditis which regimen should be given?
A. 2mg amoxicillin 1hr before surgery
B. 2gm amoxicillin 1hr before surgery
C. 500gm amoxicillin 1hr before surgery
D. 1gm amoxicillin 2hr before surgery

# Gates control theory was proposed by?
A. Melzak and wall
B. Goldschiner
C. Descerler
D. Von fry

# In TMJ ankylosis, most common cause is:
A. Infection
B. Trauma
C. Hereditary
D. Unknown

# A patient comes to emergiency with Ludwig angina. Which of the following is done first?
A. Tracheostomy
B. Fibreoptic intubation or tracheostomy under LA
C. Incision and drainage under LA
D. Antibiotics and IV fluid infusion

# Sorting of patient of trauma of head injuiry on basisi of need of care and reliability of resources?
A. Triage
B. Emergiency care
C. Definitive care
D. Hospital care

# Which nerve may be blocked along with mandibular division of 5th Cranial Nerve:
A. IX Nerve
B. VII Nerve
C. IX Nerve
D. VII Nerve

# Most common site of zygomaic arch fracture is:
A. Anterior to zygomaticotemporal suture
B. Posterior to zygomaticotemporal sututre
C. Zygomaticotemporal sututre
D. No specific location

# Which of these is used to check degree of diplopia after orbital fracture?
A. Whitnalls's test
B. Visual acuity test
C. Hess Chart
D. Forced duction test

# The forced duction test is used to demonstrate the tethering of which of the following muscle ?
A. Inferior oblique
B. Inferior rectus
C. Superior rectus
D. Medial rectus

# Graft material which is homologous with the TMJ and used for treatment of TMJ ankylosis:
A. Sternoclavicular joint
. B. 5th costochondral rib
C. 3rd metacarpal
D.Distracted condyle

# Depth of impaction indicated by which Winter's line?
A. Red
B. White
C. Amber
D. Black

# Maximum familial tendency is seen in?
A. Class I
B. Class II div I
C. Class II div II
D. Functional class III

# Maximum familial tendency is seen in?
A. Class I
B. Class II div I
C. Deep bite
D. Functional class III

# The 37% hydrophosphoric acis typically dissolves about ..... micrometer of enamel surface and creates a zone of etched enamel rods for about 15-25 micrometer
A. 5-10 micrometer
B. 1-5 micrometer
C. 10-15 micrometer
D. >15 micrometer

# The lag phase in tooth movement in orthodontics:
A. 2-3 minutes
B. 2-3 hour
C. 2-3 days
D. 2-3 weeks

# With acid etching tech. what depth of microporosity seen in enamel?
A. 10-20 micrometer
B. 3-9 micrometer
C. 20-30 micrometer
D. 30-40 micrometer

# With acid etching tech. what depth of microporosity seen in enamel?
A. 10-20 micrometer
B. 3-9 micrometer
C. 5-10 micrometer
D. 30-40 micrometer

# Used for bonding of orthodontic brackets to amalgam:
A. UDMA
B. 4-META
C. Cyanoacrylate
D. TEGMA

# A child aged 5 years and 4 months is referred to orthodontist for unusually small chin. Distal step molar relation, SNA normal, SNB lowered & FMA decreased. What is the treatment of choice?
A. Wait and observe till 6 years
B. Head gear
C. Twin block
D. Functional regulator-2

# Increased critical surface tension is seen with which orthodontic bracket?
A. Ceramic
B. Polycarbonate
C. Stainless steel
D. Ni Ti

# Which contemporary orthodontic wire has maximum surface friction?
A. Stainless steel wire
B. AJW wire
C. TMA wire
D. NiTi wire

# Which of the following metal shows the property of Twinning?
A. Cobalt chromium alloy
B. Ni-Ti alloy
C. Stainless steel alloy
D. All

# Maximum number of sharp bends can be given in which type of Cobalt-chromium wire:
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

# Plastic range is maximum with:
A. Cobalt chromium alloy
B. Nickel Titanium alloy
C. Titanium molybdenum alloy
D. Spinner straightened stainless steel alloy

# Hardening heat treatment is commonly used for:
A. Stainless steel wire
B. Cobalt chromium (Elgiloy) wire
C. TMA wire
D. Nickel Titanium wire

# Soldering/welding is not possible in:
A. Nitinol wire
B. TMA wire
C. Stainless steel wire
D. Elgilloy wire

# Baker's anchorage is also known as:
A. Intramaxillary anchorage
B. Intraoral anchorage
C. Extraoral anchorage
D. Intermaxillary anchorage

# Patient with vertical grower with increased lower anterior facial height which of the following is seen in maxilla of the patient as compensation for the increase:
A. Downward anteriorly
B. Upward posteriorly
C. Downward posteriorly
D. Palate will rotate posteriorly

# Remodelling theory of craniofacial growth was given by:
A. Vander clauf
B. Sicher
C. Brash
D. John hunter

# In Moyers' classification, Type D class II indicates:
A. Orthognathic mandible and maxilla
B. Prognathic maxilla, orthognathic mandible
C. Orthognathic maxilla, retrognathic mandible
D. Retrognathic maxilla, retrognathic mandible

# The undesirable side effect most commonly associated with the use of finger spring to tip the croown of the tooth is:
A. Pain
B. Gingival inflammation
C. Tendency for tooth to intrude
D. Tendency of the root apex to move in the direction opposite to the crown

# Lingually erupting permanent maxillary left central incisor having normal tooth relationship and normal bone formation, most probable cause is:
A. Facioversion of lower left central incisor
B. Prolong retention of maxillary left central incisor
C. Prolong retention of maxillary right central incisor
D. premature exfoliation of maxillary left central incisor

# White patch seen in buccal muscosa with least erosion of mucosa and pseudo mycelia seen under light microscopy. Most probably diagnosis is:
A. Candida albicans
B. Histoplasma
C. Sporothrix
D. Cryptococooidomycosis

# Most common malignant tumor arising in parotid gland:
A. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
B. Pleomorphic adenoma
C. Odontogenic myxoma
D. ACC

# Gingival lesion not found in:
A. Herpes
B. Recurrent apthae
C. Erythema Multiforme
D. Pyogenic granuloma

# Less than 2cm painful bony swelling responsive to salicylates is:
A. Osteoma
B. Osteochondroma
C. Osteoid osteoma
D. Osteoblastoma

# Primary herpes can be best diagnosed by:
A. Giemsa staining of smear
B. Basic cytologic studies
C. Wright staining of smear
D. Fluorescent staining

# a 40 year woman has ameloblastoma, the histopathological features will be
A. central loose stellate reticulum shows marked nuclear atypia and numerous mitotic figures
B. Peripherial palisading cellular strand with central loose stellate reticulum
C. Peripherial palisading with central stroma retracion artifact
D. Peripherial palisading cellular strand with peripherial loose stellate reticulum

# Bilateral mandibular involvement is seen in:
A. Cherubism
B. Osteoma
C. Central giant cell granuloma
D. Lichen planus

# Increased alkaline phosphatase level seen in al except:
A. Fibrous dysplasia
B. Pagets
C. Osteomyelitis
D. Hyperparathyroidism

# In case of brittle bone syndrome (Osteogenesis imperfecta), defect lies in:
A. Procollagen synthesis of collagen
B. Increase fibroblastic activity
C. Increase osteoclastic activity
D. Polymerization of collagen

# Hypodontia is associated with?
A. Ectodermal dysplasia
B. Gardner's syndrome
C. Brown tumor
D. Pagets disease

# Bacteria which adhere to tooth and cause caries is due to?
A. They produce extracellular polysachharides or dextrans
B. Ferment carbohydrates and release proteolytic enzymes
C. Produce acids
D. Increase pH of saliva

# Which of the following is associated with the division of tooth germ into single crown or two crowns
A. Gemination
B. Dens in dente
C. Concrescence
D. Fusion

# An attempt to division of a sinle tooth germ resulting in one normal and one supplementary tooth is:
A. Fusion
B. Gemination
C. Concrescence
D. Twinning

# Fusion of roots of two adjacent teeth is known as:
A. Fusion
B. Concrescence
C. Gemination
D. Dilaceration

# Gemination of a tooth bud occurs by invagination in the tooth germ during:
A. Initiation stage
B. Proliferation stage
C. Histo differentiation and morphodifferentiation stage
D. None of these

# Hypogonadism, growth retardation, impaired smell and taste due to deficiency of:
A. Zinc
B. Copper
C. Potassium
D. Chromium

# India annual health expenditure on health/medical care is .....% of it's total national GDP is:
A. 15%
B. 10%
C. 1.2%
D. 2%

# Which of the following technique is not used in cleft lip repair:
A. Tennison- Randall flap
B. Le- Mesurier flap
C. Millard's technique
D. Von Langenback flap technique

# Tooth starts erupting at which Nolla stage?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8

# In Nolla's stage of tooth development, crown completion occurs by:
A. Stage 5
B. Stage 6
C. Stage 4
D. Stage 3

# Stage 6 of Nolla's indicate:
A. Beginning of crown calcification
B. Two third completion of formation
C. Completion of crown formation
D. Almost completion of crown formation

# While recording final impression in CD, the impression tray should be placed first:
A. Anteriorly
B. Posteriorly
C. Anteriorly and posteriorly simultaneously
D. Either anterior or posterior depending upon operator's choice

# In mandibular class II with Kennedy modification I, with oposing maxillary dentition, which occlusion ispreferred:
A. Bilateral balanced occlusion
B. Canine guidance
C. Unilateral group function
D. Either canine guided or unilateral group function depending on number of missing teeeth

# Which of the following teeth are preferred in Parkinson's patient:
A. Anatomic teeth
B. Semi anatomic
C. Non anatomic teeth
D. Seizure teeth

# Hinge transfer is compulasry required in:
A. partially edentulous
B. Completely edentulous
C. When increase in vertical dimension to be done
D. Orthodontics

# Curve passing through buccal and lingual cusps of mandibular buccal teeth is:
A. Wilson curve
B. Monsoon curve
C. Curve of spee
D. Catenary curve

# Which of the following statement is true about "Curve of Spee" in decidious dentition?
A. is not present in complete decidious dentition
B. is present in complete decidious dentition
C. is partially present in the decidious dentition
D. None of the above

# Frequency curve or probability curve resembles:
A. Curve of Monsoon
B. Anti Monsoon
C. Curve of Spee
D. Curve of Wilson

# A patient was diagnosed with Badly Resorbed mandibular ridge, prominent genial tubercles, what treatment would you consider:
A. Denture with relief on intaglio surface
B. Denture without relief on intaglio surface
C. Denture with or without relief on intaglio surface
D. Surgical intervention

# If a complete denture patient has genial tubercle at the level of the crest of mandibular ridge, then denture base:
A. can cover them
B. should not cover them
C. should cover them but relief is not necessary
D. should cover them but relief is must

# A 3 unit FPD was cemented, immediate sensitivity occurs de to:
A. Cervical caries
B. Cervical abrasion
C. Exposed cementum
D. Inadequate margin thickness

# Prolonged sensitivity to heat, cold and pressure after cementation of a crown or fixed denture is usually related to?
A. Occlusal trauma
B. Improper cementum
C. Impingement on the marginal gingiva
D. Failure to desensitize the abutment tooth


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