# In class II cavity for inlay, the cavosurface margin of the gingival seat clears the adjacent tooth by:
A. 0.20 ± 0.05mm
B. 0.50 ± 0.20mm
C. 0.80 ± 0.35mm
D. 1.10 ± 0.45mm

# Cavities beginning in the proximal surfaces of bicuspids and molars are:
A. Class 1
B. Class 2
C. Class 4
D. Class 6

# Incipient caries consists of opaque, chalky white areas that appear when the tooth surface is dried, this is referred as:
A. white spot
B. hot spot
C. translucent zone
D. body of lesion

# Pit and fissure caries is seen in:
A. Class I
B. Class I compound
C. Class II
D. Class II compound

# Smear Layer consists of:
A. Enamel debris
B. Micro organisms
C. Dentinal chips
D. all of the above

# A butt joint is a:
A. 90° joint
B. 120° joint
C. 70° joint
D. 180° joint

# Enameloplasty is:
A. Filling of enamel fissures with amalgam
B. Elimination of shallow enamel fissures
C. Is same as prophylactic odontomy
D. All of the above

# A prepared cavity is best protected from moisture by:
A. Cotton rolls
B. Saliva ejector
C. Rubber dam
D. Paper napkin

# Retentive grooves in the proximal box of a class II amalgam cavity should be:
A. Sharp and elongated at the dentinoenamel junction
B. Round and elongated in the dentin
C. Round and short in the dentin
D. Sharp and elongated in the dentin

# The term ' Primary Prevention' means all of the following except:
A. Planning the patient's diet
B. Prophylactic odontomy
C. Topical application of fluoride
D. Extending cavity preparation to prevent Recurrence

# Infected dentine shows:
A. Both organic and inorganic components in reversible form
B. Both organic and inorganic components in irreversible form
C. Organic components in irreversible form and inorganic components in reversible form
D. Inorganic component in reversible form and organic component in irreversible form

# Deepening the pulpal floor during cavity preparation provides for:
A. Outline form
B. Retention form
C. Convenience form
D. Resistance form

# In which type of lesion 'eburnation' of the dentine is seen?
A. Acute caries
B. Chronic caries
C. Arrested caries
D. Root Caries

# In case of a deep carious lesion incomplete debridement is done to:
A. Allow secondary dentin formation first
B. To seal the cavity and create aseptic field
C. Prevent pulp exposure and allow a thin layer of a dentin to remain
D. Avoid microleakage

# Beveling of the pulpoaxial line angle of a class II cavity is done to:
A. Increase the strength of the restoration
B. Improved marginal adaptation
C. To prevent the fracture of enamel
D. To prevent the fracture of amalgam

# Restoration of a cusp using dental amalgam requires that:
A. All enamel be removed to provide bulk
B. Only the enamel be removed to conserve tooth structure
C. At least 2 mm of cusp be removed to provide retention form
D. At least 2mm of cusp be removed to provide resistance form

# What is common in class I cavity preparation for amalgam and gold inlay?
A. Buccolingually divergent walls
B. Mesiodistally divergent walls
C. Maximum depth is needed in both cases to provide sufficient thickness
D. All of the above

# In class 2 inlay preparation, How should the pulpal floor be placed in comparison with pulpal floor in amalgam class 2 preparation?
A. Deeper
B. Pulpal floor for amalgam should be placed deeper in dentin
C. Same as Amalgam
D. None of the above

# Class IV cavity:
A. Occurs on the proximal surface not involving the incisal edge of anterior teeth
B. Occurs on proximal surface involving the incisal edge of anterior teeth
C. Occurs on proximal surface involving the incisal edge of posterior teeth
D. Involves the buccal surface of Anterior and posterior teeth

# The retention for class 5 restoration are placed:
A. In mesial and distal areas
B. Occlusal and gingival area
C. In all except the axial wall
D. At expense of axial wall

# Extension for prevention is directly related to:
A. Removal of unsupported enamel on proximal surface of Class III cavity
B. Depth of the axial wall of a class III cavity preparation
C. Elimination of all carious dentin beyond average depth of pulpal wall
D. The outline form of the cavity preparation

# While preparing a Class II cavity on a maxillary first molar which of the pulp horns are likely to get exposed:
A. Mesiolingual and mesiobuccal
B. Distolingual and distobuccal
C. Mesiolingual and distobuccal
D. Distolingual and mesiobuccal

# In a class 1 cavity prepared for silver amalgam is extended to half the distance between the contact area and the fissures and the cusp tip, the direction of the buccal and lingual walls is:
A. Diverging
B. Converging
C. Parallel
D. Independent

# The reason for sealing caries during cavity preparation is:
A. To eliminate the need for eventual direct pulp capping
B. Produce an aseptic filed when pulp exposure is inevitable
C. To allow the formation of secondary dentin before excavation
D. To produce a hard surface as a foundation for subsequent restoration

# In a cavity preparation in which the remaining thickness of dentin is more than 1.5mm, the ideal base is:
A. Ca(OH)2
B. Zinc Phosphate
C. Silicophosphate
D. Glass ionomer

# The function of proximal grooves in a class II cavity is:
A. Resistance form
B. Retention form
C. Increases strength
D. Resistance and retention form

# An incipient carious lesion on an inter proximal surface is usually located:
A. At the contact area
B. Facial to contact area
C. Gingival to contact area
D. Lingual to contact area

# In an ideal restoration, gingival margin should be:
A. Below contact point but 1mm occlusal to gingival crest
B. Below contact point but at level of gingival crest
C. Below gingival crest
D. At contact point

# Gingival extension for a restoration should be:
A. At the gingival crest
B. At least 1mm above the alveolar crest
C. At least 3mm above the alveolar crest
D. Doesn't have any relation with alveolar crest height

# Resistance form of cavity preparation is:
A. Flat pulp floor
B. enough depth of the cavity
C. Restricted size of the external walls
D. all of the above

# During M.O.D. preparation one of the cusps is undermined, indicated treatment is:
A. Reduction of cusp and include in the preparation for on lay
B. Reduction of all the cusps and crown is indicated
C. Strengthened by use of Amalgam core
D. Cusp is beveled and the patient is advised not to exert force on the cusp

# Resistance form is that shape of cavity which:
A. Prevents displacement of restoration
B. permits the restoration to withstand occlusal forces
C. Allows adequate instrumentation
D. Allows the restoration to withstand occlusal forces and prevent displacement

# A dental floss is applied to the distal bow of a clamp, its function is:
A. To facilitate the removal of the clamp
B. To prevent aspiration of clamp
C. To anchor the dam as cervically as possible
D. To stabilize the damp

# Which of the following is commonly recommended procedure for debridement?
A. Citric acid
B. Hydrogen peroxide - 10%
C. Air and water spray
D. Hydrochloric acid

# The axiopulpal depth of the proximal box in class II cavity is:
A. 0.2 to 0.8 mm
B. 0.5 to 1 mm
C. 1 to 2 mm
D. 2 to 3 mm

# Purpose of cavity preparation is:
A. To receive restorating material
B. To cleanse the caries
C. To remove bacteria
D. None

# First step in removing a rubber dam is to:
A. Remove the clamp
B. Release the holder
C. Apply a water soluble Lubricant
D. Cut the interseptal rubber with scissors

# To avoid pulpal irritation below a resistant metallic restoration, the minimum dentin thickness which should remain is:
A. 0.5 mm
B. 1.5 mm
C. 1.0 mm
D. 2.0 mm

# According to Black's classification caries on lingual pits of maxillary central incisors are:
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class IV

# In a class II cavity in an incisor the retentive points are placed:
A. At the DEJ
B. In the dentin
C. In the axial wall
D. Never on labial or Lingual walls

# Inappropriate margins in restorations are corrected primarily because:
A. They retain food debris
B. Inhibit proper plaque removal
C. Disturb occlusion
D. Create Sensitivity

# The most common cause of fracture at the isthmus of class II dental amalgam restoration is:
A. Delayed expansion
B. Inadequate depth at the isthmus area
C. Inadequate width at the isthmus area
D. Moisture contamination of the amalgam during placement.

# 'Saucering" out of small pits to improve self cleansing property is called:
A. Saucerisation
B. Enameloplasty
C. Odontotomy
D. None of the above

# Mesial and distal wall of class V cavity depends on:
A. Direction of enamel rods
B. Presence of carious Lesion
C. Contour of gingiva
D. Location of contact area

# The base of class III preparation is:
A. Axial wall
B. Gingival wall
C. Facial wall
D. Lingual wall

# While preparing occlusal cavity for amalgam in mandibular first premolar, the bur:
A. Is kept absolutely vertical
B. Is tilted slightly buccally
C. Is tilted slightly lingually
D. Can be kept in any direction

# Which of the following is not a consideration for obtaining a resistance form during cavity preparation?
A. Stress patterns of teeth
B. Direction of enamel rods
C. Designing outline form with minimal extension
D. Dovetail preparation of restoration to occlusal loading

# Gingivally the depth of a class V cavity is:
A. 0.5 - 1 mm
B. 0.75 - 1 mm
C. 1-1.25 mm
D. 2-3 mm

# For cast restorations the cavity wall should have a taper of:
A. 30-45
B. 5-10
C. 2-5
D. none of the above

# In modified class III cavity restoration retention is obtained mainly by:
A. Acid etching
B. Retentive groove/slot
C. Retentive point
D. Retentive pin

# During cavity preparation, more incidence of exposure is in:
A. Class V cavity in first premolar
B. Class II mesio occlusal cavity
C. Class II disto occlusal cavity
D. Class IV cavity

# Transverse section of Class V through the axial wall is:
A. Convex
B. Concave
C. Kidney shaped
D. Straight

# The cavosurface angle for inlay cavity preparation:
A. 90 degree
B. 150 degree
C. Less than 90 degree
D. 180 degree

# Caries detection dye can stain the following except:
A. Granular necrotic tissue
B. Dry, leathery dentin
C. Reversibly denatured collagen
D. lrreversibly denatured collagen

# The modified class III preparation uses a dovetail on the lingual side in:
A. Maxillary canine
B. Mandibular canine
C. Mandibular central incisor
D. Mandibular lateral incisor

# Preparation of class I cavities for dental amalgam, direct filling gold or gold in lays have in common:
A. Occlusally diverging facial and lingual walls
B. Occlusally diverging mesial and distal
C. Occlusally converging facial and lingual walls
D. Occlusally converging mesial and distal walls

# Which of the following prevents fracture of MO amalgam:
A. Beveling of axiopulpal line angle
B. Occlusal dovetails
C. Pin retained amalgam
D. Removal of unsupported enamel rods

# The non-active carious lesion is distinguished by all except:
A. Covered by a layer of plaque
B. Soft and leathery in consistency
C. Brown or black discolouration
D. Severe pain during caries removal

# In a class III cavity in an incisor tooth the retentive points are placed:
A. At the expense of facial and lingual walls and not in dentin
B. Entirely in dentin
C. In axial wall
D. By placing a groove in the lingual surfaces

# All enamel walls of a cavity preparation must consist of full length enamel rods on
A. Affected enamel
B. Affected dentin
C. Sound enamel
D. Sound dentin

# In air-abrasive technology the abrasive particles used are:
A. Iron oxide
B. Tin oxide
C. Aluminium oxide
D. Silicon oxide

# In an early carious lesion, the first structure to show evidence of destruction is the:
A. Enamel prism
B. Cuticle
C. Interprismatic substance
D. Lamellae

# Which of the following principles of the cavity preparation is not considered much in modern methods of restorative Dentistry?
A. Extension for prevention
B. Convenient form
C. removal of the undermined enamel
D. Removal of the carious dentine

# The wall absent in class V lesion:
A. Axial wall
B. Mesial
C. Distal
D. Pulpal wall

# It is essential to lubricate dam before applying it. Which of these is NOT a suitable lubricant?
A. Shaving cream
B. Liquid soap
C. Scrub gel
D. Vaseline

# Which is the WRONG way to apply dam using a wingless clamp?
A. Put the clamp on the tooth
B. Place the dam on the tooth with fingers, and then position the clamp over it
C. Attach the dam over the clamp and frame outside the mouth, then put the assembly over the tooth using clamp holders OVER THE dam
D. Attach the dam over the clamp and frame outside the mouth, and then put the assembly over the tooth using clamp holders UNDER the dam

# When composites are given, exposed dentin should be covered with:
A. Varnish
B. Calcium hydroxide
C. Phosphoric acid
D. ZnO eugenol cements

# Dental Pulp under any restoration is best protected by:
A. Cavity liner
B. Cavity base
C. 2 mm thick dentin
D. All of the above

# Which one of the following provides most conservative approach while restoring the tooth?
A. Cast gold
B. Dental amalgam
C. Glass ionomer cement
D. Composite resin

# In cavity preparation, line angle is:
A. Union of three surfaces
B. Union of four surfaces
C. The junction of two plane surfaces of different orientation along a line
D. Internal boundary of a cavity

# The tip diameter of a 245 bur used for conventional amalgam preparation is:
A. 2 mm
B. 0.8 mm
C. 0.3 mm
D. 0.4 mm

# The total number of point angles present for Class II amalgam restorations is:
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 11

# Whenever the caries cone in enamel is larger or at least the same size as that in dentin, it is called as:
A. Residual caries
B. Recurrent caries
C. Forward caries
D. Backward caries

# What is the major difference between a class V cavity preparation for amalgam and one for composite resin by the acid-etch technique?
A. Depth
B. Convenience form
C. Position of retentive points
D. Angulation of enamel cavosurface margins

# Cervical restorations fail mostly due to:
A. Inadequate moisture control
B. Marginal gingivitis
C. Cuspal flexure
D. All of the above

# Proximal walls in a class I tooth preparation for amalgam should:
A. Converge occlusally
B. Diverge occlusally
C. Remain straight
D. Rounded

# The configuration factor ["C" factor] for an occlusal class I cavity is:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

# Preventive resin restorations are indicated in ?
A. Non-cavitated pit and fissures
B. Deep caries to prevent progress of lesion
C. Cavitated fissures which require restoration
D. Wide cavity to prevent cusp fracture

# In diagnosing the carious lesions, the tooth surface is examined visually and tactilely. Which of the following is NOT considered as visual examination?
A. Cavitations
B. Surface roughness
C. Opacification
D. Softness of the tooth surface

# For gold inlays gingival margin finish line should be:
A. Shoulder preparation
B. Chamfer preparation
C. Bevel
D. Knife edge

# The base of class III preparation is:
A. Axial wall
B. Lingual wall
C. Gingival wall
D. Facial wall

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