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MCQs on Periodontal Ligament - Oral Histology part 2


# Width of PDL is :
A. O.10 mm
B. 0.50 mm
C. 0.25 mm
D. 0.75 mm

# Intermediate Plexus is seen in the:
A. Cementum
B. PDL
C. Pulp
D. Dentin

# In mammals independent and tough suspension for teeth is provided by:
A. Alveolar sockets
B. Cementum
C. Gubernacular cords
D. Periodontal membrane

# Bone adjacent to periodontal ligament that contains a great number of Sharpey's fibers is known as :
A. Lamina dura
B. Bundle bone
C. Lamina propria
D. Lamina densa

# The most abundant principal fiber group in periodontal ligament is :
A. Horizontal
B. Transseptal
C. Apical
D. Oblique

# Collagen biosynthesis occurs inside the :
A. Chondroblasts
B. Odontoblasts
C. Osteoblasts
D. Fibroblasts

# Which of the following groups of fibers are not attached to alveolar bone ?
A. Apical
B. Horizontal
C. Oblique
D. Transseptal
# Principal fibers of PDL are attached to :
A. Alveolar bone proper
B. Bundle bone
C. Lamellar bone
D. Cortical bone

# Periodontal ligament has predominantly:
A. Type II collagen fibers
B. Oxytalan fibers
C. Elastic fibers
D. Type I collagen fibers

# The calcified mass found in PDL are:
A. Cementicles
B. Osteoblasts
C. Cementoclasts
D. Osteoclasts

# Sharpey's fibers are derived from:
A. Hertwig's root sheath
B. Epithelial rest cells of Malassez
C. Alveolar bone
D. Dental follicle

# Intermediate plexus is absent in which of the following principal fibers:
A. Gingival
B. Oblique
C. Horizontal
D. Transseptal

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MCQs on Periodontal Ligament - Oral Histology Part 1


# Which of the following cells are the predominant connective tissue cells of the periodontal ligament?
A. Cementoblasts
B. Fibroblasts
C. Osteoblasts
D. Cell rests of Malassez

# The periodontal ligament:
A. Derives its blood primarily from the branches of vessels entering the pulp
B. Has a slow rate of turn over
C. Contains epithelial cells
D. Comprises primarily of type II collagen

# Which of the following is not the principal fiber group of the periodontal ligament ?
A. Horizontal
B. Oblique
C. Alveolar crest
D. Trans septal

# Anchoring fibrils are composed of:
A. Type V and VII collagen
B. Type I and III collagen
C. Type IV collagen
D. Type IV and III collagen

# Collagen molecule exhibits all of the following features EXCEPT :
A. Triple plated sheath
B. Mostly contains glycine residues
C. Exhibit cross striations at 64 micrometer
D. Intracellular in nature

# Remnants of Hertwig's root sheath are found in :
A. Gingiva
B. Alveolar bone
C. Cementum
D. Periodontal Ligament
# Age changes in the periodontal ligament include which of the following ?
A. Increased fibroplasia
B. Increased vascularity
C. Increased thickness
D. Decrease in the number of cementicles

# All of the following cells of periodontal ligament are of mesenchymal origin EXCEPT:
A. Fibroblasts
B. Multi totipotent cells
C. Cementoblasts
D. Cell rests of Malassez

# The attachment apparatus of tooth is composed of:
A. Gingiva,cementum and alveolar bone
B. Gingiva and cementum
C. Cementum and periodontal ligament
D. Periodontal ligament, cementum and alveolar bone

# The vascular supply of the periodontal ligament is :
A. Greatest in the middle third of a single rooted tooth
B. Greatest in the middle third of a multirooted tooth
C. A net-likee plexus that runs closer to the cementum than to the bone
D. A net-like plexus that runs closer to the bone than to the cementum

# Fibers of the periodontal ligament embedded in the bone are:
A. Sharpey's fibers
B. Tome's fibers
C. Elastic fibers
D. Ray's fibers

# Group of fibers, which resist the masticatory forces are:
A. Dentogingival
B. Transseptal
C. Oblique
D. Horizontal

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MCQs on Diseases of Salivary Glands - Oral Pathology Part 3


# Spindle cell carcinoma is a variant of :
A. Pleomorphic adenoma
B. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
C. Basal cell carcinoma
D. Squamous cell carcinoma

# Commonest site for ectopic salivary gland tumor is :
A. Tongue
B. Cheek
C. Palate
D. Neck

# Chemical Mumps is synonymous with:
A. Epidemic parotitis
B. Iodine mumps
C. Nutritional mumps
D. Nonspecific mumps

# Break up time (BUT) test is done in :
A. Sjogren's syndrome
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. SLE
D. Myasthenia gravis

# Salivary duct calculi :
A. Produce pain on eating
B. Are commonest in the parotid ducts
C. Are common cause of acute parotitis
D. Are associated with hypercalcemic states

# Sialoliths are stones found in the salivary duct and gland and are primarily composed of:
A. Hydroxyapatite
B. Potassium chloride
C. Unknown compounds of phosphates
D. Calcium chloride

# In Xerostomia, the salivary pH is:
A. Unaffected
B. Low
C. High
D. Increased in morning and decreased in day

# Pleomorphic adenoma is :
A. a teratomatous tumour of the salivary gland
B. a neuroendocrine cell tumour
C. multiple ectopic tissue proliferating in the salivary gland
D. myoepithelial or ductal reserve cell origin

# Which of the following statements about Sjogren's Syndrome is incorrect ?
A. MRI shows salt and pepper appearance
B. Lacrimal gland enlargement is common
C. Minor salivary gland biopsy is a diagnostic test
D. Pilocarpine is the most useful and convenient drug in its treatment


# Chocolate colored fluid is seen in the cystic space of:
A. Dentigerous cyst
B. Odontogenic keratocyst
C. Unicystic ameloblastoma
D. Papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum

# Intra oral pleomorphic adenoma usually occurs in:
A. Buccal mucosa
B. Upper lip
C. Floor of the mouth
D. Palate

# A salivary gland tumor, which histologically shows a double layer of epithelial cells based on a reactive lymphoid stroma is:
A. Pleomorphic adenoma
B. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
C. Acinic cell tumor
D. Warthin tumor

# Sjogren's syndrome affects :
A. Exocrine glands
B. Paracrine glands
C. Endocrine glands
D. Autocrine glands

# In which of the following salivary gland tumors, the tumor is composed of "intermediate cells" histologically ?
A. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
B. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
C. Pleomorphic adenoma
D. Warthin's tumor

# Which of the following salivary gland tumors has highest rate of malignant transformation ?
A. Parotid
B. Submandibular
C. Sublingual
D. Minor

# The following are the high grade salivary malignancies , EXCEPT :
A. Basal cell adenocarcinoma
B. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
C. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
D. Salivary duct carcinoma

# Treatment for recurrent ranula is :
A. Incision
B. Excision
C. Excision with adjacent glands
D. Marsupialization

# Sialography of normal salivary gland reveals the ductal architecture as having an appearance of :
A. Sausage string
B. Fruit-laden tree
C. Leafless tree
D. Ball in hand

# Microscopically, epimyoepithelial islands are typically seen in :
A. Sjogren's syndrome
B. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
C. Epithelial-myoepithelial carcinoma
D. Myoepithelioma

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MCQs on Diseases of Salivary Glands - Oral Pathology Part 2


# The most common complication of mumps is :
A. Myocarditis
B. Orchitis
C. Uveitis
D. Conjunctivitis

# Adenoid cystic carcinoma is also known as :
A. Cylindroma
B. Pindborg tumor
C. Warthin's tumor
D. Pleomorphic adenoma

# Sialolith in the excretory duct will result in:
A. Chronic sialadenitis
B. Mucous retention cyst
C. Pleomorphic adenoma
D. Rupture of the cyst

# Parotid fatty change is a sign of :
A. Aging
B. Alcoholism
C. Malnutrition
D. None of the above

# Which tumor does not occur in minor salivary gland ?
A. Pleomorphic adenoma
B. Adenocarcinoma
C. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
D. Warthin's tumor

# Leafless fruit laden tree or cherry-blossom appearance on a sialogram indicates :
A. Mucoepidermoid cell carcinoma
B. Acinar cell carcinoma
C. Sjogren's syndrome
D. Pleomorphic adenoma

# Sjogren's syndrome includes all except :
A. Xerostomia
B. Keratoconjunctivitis
C. Arthritis
D. Lymphoma

# Tender submandibular swelling is mostly due to:
A. Ludwig's angina
B. Stone or Sialolithiasis
C. Enlarged lymph nodes
D. All of the above

# Dilation of the salivary duct secondary to epithelial atrophy as a result of repeated inflammatory or infectious process is :
A. Sialodochitis
B. Sialadenitis
C. Sialolithiasis
D. Mucocele

# Saliva is increased by:
A. Cholinergic drugs
B. Anticholinergic drugs
C. Adrenergic drugs
D. None of the above


# The recurrence of pleomorphic adenoma is attributed to:
A. Presence of an incomplete capsule
B. Mixed origin
C. Absence of capsule
D. Perineural spread

# Xerostomia, enlargement of salivary and lacrimal glands is seen in:
A. Sicca syndrome
B. Sjogren's syndrome
C. Mickulicz's disease
D. None of the above

# Salivary gland aplasia is seen in:
A. Hemifacial microstomia
B. LADD syndrome
C. Mandibulo-facial dysostosis (Treacher Collins)
D. All of the above

# Acinic cell carcinomas of the salivary gland arise most often in the:
A. Parotid salivary gland
B. Minor salivary glands
C. Submandibular salivary glands
D. Sublingual salivary glands

# All of the following is the extraglandular manifestation of primary Sjogren's syndrome except:
A. Raynaud's phenomenon
B. Arthritis
C. Lymphoma
D. Thrombocytopenia

# Mixed tumors of the salivary glands are:
A. Most common in submandibular gland
B. Usually malignant
C. Most common in the parotid gland
D. Associated with calculi

# "Xerostomia" is seen in all of the following except :
A. Anticholinergic drugs
B. Dehydration
C. Sjogren's syndrome
D. Oral sepsis

# Cribriform, honeycomb or swiss cheese histology pattern is seen in:
A. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
B. Pleomorphic adenoma
C. Acinic cell carcinoma
D. Clear cell carcinoma

# Commonest salivary gland tumor in children :
A. Lymphoma
B. Pleomorphic adenoma
C. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
D. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

# Adenolymphoma refers to:
A. Adenocarcinoma
B. Adenocystic lymphoma
C. Warthin's tumor
D. Pleomorphic adenoma

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MCQs on Diseases of Salivary Glands - Oral Pathology Part 1


# Salivary gland stone most commonly involves:
A. Submandibular gland
B. Parotid gland
C. Sublingual glands
D. Lingual glands

# In the clinical evaluation, the most significant finding of the parotid mass may be accompanying:
A. Rapid progressive painless enlargement
B. Nodular consistency
C. Supramental and preauricular lymphadenopathy
D. Facial paralysis

# Which of the following statements is false?
A. A salivary duct obstruction can cause a unilateral swelling in the floor of the mouth that is largest before a meal and smallest after a meal
B. A lesion termed as ranula is associated with the sublingual salivary gland
C. The sublingual salivary gland is the most common site of salivary gland neoplasia
D. A pleomorphic adenoma is the most common salivary gland neoplasm

# Warthin's tumor is :
A. An adenolymphoma of the parotid gland
B. A pleomorphic adenoma of the salivary gland
C. Carcinoma of the parotid gland
D. None of the above

# The common site for necrotising sialometaplasia is :
A. Cheeks
B. Dorsum of tongue
C. Palate
D. Gingiva

# Pleomorphic adenoma arises from:
A. Myoepithelial cells
B. Acinar cells
C. Connective tissue
D. Stem cells

# Most common salivary gland malignant neoplasm in bones is :
A. Pleomorphic adenoma
B. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
C. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
D. Adenolymphoma

# Mikulicz's disease is :
A. An inflammatory disease
B. Neoplastic disease
C. An autoimmune disease
D. Viral infection

# Bimanual palpation technique is carried out for:
A. Submandibular gland
B. Sublingual gland
C. Ranula
D. Cervical lymph nodes when they are enlarged due to inflammation

# Non inflammatory , non neoplastic enlargement of the salivary gland is termed as:
A. Sialadenitis
B. Sialosis
C. Ptyalism
D. Sialorrhoea

# Most common tumor of salivary gland is :
A. Pleomorphic adenoma
B. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
C. Cylindrioma
D. Epidermoid carcinoma

# A painful crater-like 1.5 cm ulcer develops within one week on the hard palate mucosa of a 40 year old female. The most likely diagnosis is :
A. Actinomycosis
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Pleomorphic adenoma
D. Necrotizing sialometaplaisa

# A condition of the mouth which increases the caries activity in the oral cavity is :
A. Xerostomia
B. Malignancy
C. Hairy tongue
D. Watery saliva

# Which of the following parotid malignancy shows perineuronal spread ?
A. Pleomorphic adenoma
B. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
C. Warthin's tumor
D. Ductal papilloma

# Which of the following is of salivary gland origin ?
A. Acinic cell carcinoma
B. Granular cell myoblastoma
C. Chondrosarcoma
D. All of the above

# Reduction in flow of saliva is not generally seen in :
A. Elderly diabetics
B. Patient undergoing radiation therapy
C. Patients suffering from parkinsonism
D. Patients on phenothiazine drugs

# Sialography is used to detect anomaly of:
A. Salivary duct only
B. Salivary gland
C. Salivary gland and duct
D. Salivary gland tumors

# Acute non suppurative sialadenitis is seen in:
A. Acute bacterial sialadenitis
B. Mumps
C. Chronic bacterial sialadenitis
D. Necrotizing sialometaplasia

# A cyst occurs under the tongue, caused by obstruction of a salivary gland. Such a cyst is called :
A. Mucocele
B. Ranula
C. Dermoid cyst
D. Dentigerous cyst

# Mucocele most commonly arise as a result of :
A. Rupture of a salivary gland
B. Partial or complete compression of the salivary acini
C. Inflammatory changes in the glandular interstitial tissue
D. Partial or complete obstruction of the salivary duct by calculus

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MCQs on Dental Materials : Amalgams Part 3


# A true eutectic alloy has melting point:
A. Above that of the low fusing metal
B. above the melting point of either metal
C. Below that of the high fusing metal
D. Below the melting point of either metal

# Creep value of which of the following is the highest ?
A. Low copper amalgam alloy
B. Admix alloy
C. Single composition alloys
D. Creep value of all the above mentioned alloys is same

# Advantages of minimum mercury technique or Eames technique is all except:
A. High strength
B. Sets quickly
C. Needs no squeezing of excess mercury
D. Greater plasticity and adapts well to cavity walls

# Amalgam achieves 70% of the strength by:
A. 2 hours
B. 4 hours
C. 8 hours
D. 16 hours

# The solid solution of silver and mercury is called:
A. gamma 1
B. gamma 2
C. beta 1
D. gamma

# Mercury is toxic because it:
A. complexes hemoglobin to form methemoglobin
B. inhibits hemoglobin synthesis, producing anemia
C. inhibits aerobic glycolysis
D. binds to sulfhydryl groups

# Once triturated, the dentqal amalgam should be condensed within:
A. 5 minutes
B. 6 minutes
C. 3 minutes
D. 15 minutes

# What fraction of inhaled mercury vapors is retained in the body?
A. 45-55%
B. 55-65%
C. 65-85%
D. More than 85%

# High strength amalgam is achieved by:
A. Maximum matrix amd minimum alloy phase
B. Minimum matrix and maximum alloy phase
C. Maximum matrix phase
D. Minimum alloy phase

# The effect of trituration on strength in an amalgam restoration depends on:
A. Amalgam alloy
B. Trituration time
C. Speed of amalgamator
D. All of the above




# Which of the following does not occur in high copper amalgam ?
A. Electrochemical corrosion
B. Chemical corrosion
C. Penetrating corrosion
D. Corrosion does not occur at all

# Decrease in creep occurs in:
A. Under trituration or over trituration of amalgam
B. Decrease with condensation pressure
C. Increase with condensation pressure
D. Cannot be predictable

# For dental amalgam, the elastic modulus and tensile strength is:
A. 40 Gpa and 60-100 Mpa
B. 21 Gpa and 27-55 Mpa
C. 350 Gpa and 10-120 Mpa
D. 360 Gpa and 125-130 Mpa

# Cavo surface angle for amlagam restoration is butt joint as:
A. it increases compressive and tensile strengths
B. it decreases compressive and increases tensile strength
C. it decreases both compressive and tensile strength
D. it increases compressive and decreases tensile strength

# Adequete mixing of mercury is indicated by :
A. Dry mix
B. Shiny mix
C. Short mixing time
D. None

# Which of the following are characteristic feature of high copper amalgam alloy?
A. Low compressive strength
B. High marginal breakdown
C. Less marginal breakdown
D. High creep

# Which is true regarding lathe cut silver alloy?
A. Requires least amount of mercury
B. Achieves lowest compressive strength at 1 hour
C. Has tensile strength both at 15 min and 7 days comparable to high copper unicompositional alloy
D. has low creep

# Coefficient of thermal expansion of amalgam is :
A. 6.6 ppm/K
B. 11.4 ppm/K
C. 14.0 ppm/K
D. 25.0 ppm/K

# Gallium and Indium added to amalgam replace:
A. Silver
B. Tin
C. Mercury
D. Zinc

# A patient who has had a recent amalgam filling in the upper teeth has a gold filling in the lower teeth, the patient complains of pain. The reason for this can be mainly:
A. Improper amalgam filling
B. Pulp exposure
C. Galvanism
D. None of the above

# Which one of the following is not an objective of trituration?
A. Remove oxides from powder particle surface
B. Keep the amount of gamma 1 or gamma 2 matrix crystals to maximum
C. Pulverize pellets into particles to aid in attack by mercury
D. Achieve a workable mass of amalgam in minimum time

# Outstanding clinical performance of dental amalgam restoration is related to its:
A. Compressive strength
B. Tensile strength
C. Corrosion resistance
D. High Creep

# Eames technique is ptherwise known as:
A. No squeeze cloth technique
B. Increasing dryness technique
C. Bloting mix
D. Mortar and pestle mix

# Discoloration of Ag containing alloy is due to : (Two answers correct)
A. Wet corrosion
B. Dry corrosion
C. Tarnish
D. Both Tarnish and corrosion

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MCQs on Dental Materials : Amalgams Part 2


# Advantage of zinc containing amalgam is :
A. Better handling property
B. Dimensional stability
C. Resistance to creep
D. Toxicity to pulp and dentin

# Cause of expansion in zinc containing amalgam is :
A. Zinc and water
B. Water
C. Hydrogen
D. Nascent oxygen

# What is the working time of amalgam ?
A. One to two minutes
B. Three to four minutes
C. Five to six minutes
D. Seven to eight minutes

# Which of the following amalgam alloys is least susceptible to creep ?
A. Lathe cut
B. Spherical
C. Microfine
D. Dispersion with high copper

# The percentage of copper in high copper alloy is :
A. 10-12%
B. 0-6%
C. 13-30%
D. 20-30%

# How soon after a moisture contamination does a zinc containing amalgam alloy start expanding ?
A. 24 hrs
B. 1-2 days
C. 3-5 days
D. 7 days

# What is common in amalgam and ceramics?
A. More compressive strength but less tensile strength
B. More compressive strength and tensile strength
C. Less compressive strength but more tensile strength
D. Less compressive strength and tensile strength

# What is the most frequeently used restorative material?
A. Silicate
B. Amalgam
C. Composite
D. Gold

# Which of the following constituents of amalgam alloy decreases expansion?
A. Copper
B. Zinc
C. Silver
D. Tin

# Which of the following silver amalgam alloys have the maximum strength ?
A. Lathe cut
B. Spherical
C. Admixed
D. Single composition

# The higher the Hg alloy ratio in dental amalgam:
A. Higher the strength
B. Lower the creep value
C. More matrix material formed
D. More gamma 1 phase formed





# Copper content in low copper amalgams is :
A. 6%
B. 12-30%
C. 29%
D. 19%

# Ag-Cu eutectic alloy has a characteristic property of that fusion temperature of :
A. the resultant alloy is greater
B. the resultant alloy is lesser
C. the resultant alloy varies according to the content of Ag and Cu
D. None

# Which phase provides maximum strength in hardened mercury/silver alloy ?
A. Silver/Mercury phase
B. Silver/Tin phase
C. Tin/Mercury phase
D. Zinc/Mercury phase

# Absorption of mercury in the human body occurs least from:
A. Lungs
B. Gastrointestinal tract
C. Skin
D. Kidneys

# The tarnished layer of silver amalgam consists of :
A. Sulphides of silver
B. Oxides of tin
C. Chlorides of tin
D. All of the above

# Which is not true about high copper amalgam alloys ?
A. Low tensile and compressive strength
B. Low Hg:alloy ratio
C. High tensile strength
D. Low creep

# The threshold limit value of mercury exposures is :
A. 0.01 mg/m3
B. 0.05 mg/m3
C. 0.1 mg/m3
D. 0.001 mg/m3

# "Amalgam" means :
A. A metallic powder composed of silver, tin, copper and zinc
B. An alloy of two or more metals, one of which is mercury
C. An alloy of two or more metals that have been dissolved in each other in the molten state
D. A metallic substance in powder or tablet form that is mixed with mercury

# Mercury intoxication in dental office mainly results from :
A. Direct contact with mercury
B. Inhalation of mercury vapours
C. Ingestion of mercury
D. None of the above

# In amalgam alloy, which of following acts as oxygen scavenger?
A. Cu
B. Zn
C. Pd
D. Ag

# Over-trituration of silver alloy and mercury:
A. reduces contraction
B. increases the strength of lathe-cut alloy but reduces the strength of spherical alloy amalgam
C. decreases creep
D. gives a dull and crumbly amalgam

# By increasing the percentage of which metal, the strength and hardness of amalgam increases?
A. Ag
B. Zn
C. Cu
D. Hg

# Mercury rich condition in a slow setting amalgam alloy system inn a restoration results in :
A. Accelerated corrosion
B. Fracture of the restoration
C. Marginal damage
D. All of the above

# Which of the following statements is true regarding lathe cut copper silver alloy ?
A. requires least amount of mercury
B. achieves high compressive strength at 1 hr.
C. has tensile strength, both at 15 minutes and 7 days is comparable to high copper, unicompositional alloys
D. has lower creep value

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