AIIMS MDS Entrance Examination MCQs - November 2005

# The laser used in pit and fissure sealants is:
A. Nd-Yag
B. CO2
C. Tungsten
D. Ultraviolet

# Moderate crowding is considered when space loss is:
A. 3-5 mm
B. 5-7 mm
C. 2-3 mm
D. 10 mm

# The easiest method of brushing in children is:
A. Bass
B. Fone's
C. Modified Bass
D. Scrub

# The most appropriate method of conserving space is:
A. Restoration of proximal caries
B. Lingual arch
C. Nance bar
D. Distal shoe

# All are contraindications for pulpotomy, EXCEPT:
A. Mobility
B. Absence of coronal pus
C. Pain on percussion
D. Periodontitis involving pulp

# All are true regarding deep bite, EXCEPT:
A. Show horizontal growth tendency
B. Decreased anterior growth
C. Decreased interocclusal space
D. Decreased posterior facial height

# True class III can be differentiated from Pseudo class III by:
A. Length of jaw
B. Cephalometrics
C. Path of closure
D. Arch analysis

# The average period of latency in distraction osteogenesis is:
A. 2-4 months
B. 5-7 days
C. 10-14 days
D. 2-3 years

# Pyle and Greulich human atlas is used for determining:
A. Biologic age
B. Skeletal age
C. Dental age
D. None of the above

# If the diameter of the wire of palatal canine retractor is doubled, the range decreases by:
A. 2 times
B. 4 times
C. 6 times
D. 8 times

# The point of rotation which is at infinity and the line passing through never meet, such a type of movement is called:
A. Translation
B. Controlled tipping
C. Uncontrolled tipping
D. Intrusion

# The permeability of dentin is affected by all EXCEPT:
A. Smear layer
B. Length of dentinal tubules
C. Fluid convection
D. Pressure of coefficient of water

# Crowding is seen due to all EXCEPT:
A. Soft food and diet
B. Epigenetic factors
C. Outbreeding
D. Increased tooth size

# The growth of the jaw is influenced by:
A. Muscular features
B. Neural features
C. General body features
D. Purely genetic

# The inclination of the bite plane used on mandible is:
A. 30 degrees
B. 45 degrees
C. 60 degrees
D. 15 degrees

# The margin of steel crown in pedodontics should be:
A. gingival
B. supragingival
C. 1 mm below the marginal gingiva
D. 2 mm below the marginal gingiva

# The angle between the occlusal plane and F-H plane is:
A. 7 degree
B. 15 degree
C. 20 degree
D. 0 degree

# In a normal person, fascial spaces are covered by:
A. Loose connective tissue
B. Elastic fibers
C. Loose adipose tissue
D. Dead space

# The treatment of ankylosis in a 8 year old child is:
A. Condylectomy
B. Gap arthroplasty
C. Early mouth opening exercise
D. Gap arthroplasty with costochondral grafting

# The incidence of osteoradionecrosis is increased in case of:
A. Extraction following radiotherapy
B. Leukemia
C. Undergoing chemotherapy
D. Xerostomia

# Cases that do not respond to adequate therapy or reoccur for unknown reasons:
A. Acute periodontitis
B. Chronic periodontitis
C. Refractory periodontitis
D. Sub acute periodontitis

# The drug used in Atridox local delivery system is:
A. Penicillin
B. Metronidazole
C. Doxycycline
D. Chlorhexidine

# The direction in which Naber's probe is used:
A. Lateral
B. Horizontal
C. Vertical
D. Vertical and Horizontal

# The following feature is observed in aging periodontal ligament:
A. Increase in cell size
B. Increase in cell number
C. Scalloping between alveolar bone and cementum
D. Increase in cellular content

# The shape of the dentinal caries in spread of caries is:
A. always V shaped with base towards DEJ
B. always V shaped with base towards pulp
C. depends on type of lesion
D. None of the above

# The most definite diagnosis of acute pulpal degeneration is given by:
A. Electric pulp testing
B. History of unprovoked spontaneous pain
C. Thermal testing
D. Radiograph

# True regarding energy required during polymerization of composite in complete thickness is:
A. 600mW/cm2
B. 175mW/cm2
C. 150mW/cm2
D. 100mW/cm2

# All are true regarding the polymerization of composite using tungsten halogen light, except:
A. Wavelength less than 500nm
B. Difficult to polymerize inaccessible areas like porcelain inlays
C. Efficiency of light decreases with use
D. Irradiance range from 400 to 800mW/cm2

# The following is true about Glass ionomer cement:
A. There is no cross linkage between sodium and fluoride ions
B. The liquid should not be refrigerated
C. It is strongly contraindicated in mouth breathers
D. Its strength is more than that of silicate

# The following is true about lathe cut amalgam:
A. is available only as spherical alloys
B. 1 hour strength as compared to that of admix and unicompositional alloy is highest
C. Expansion is increased
D. Creep is less

# For Reciprocal arm,true is:
A. rigid and is placed in middle third
B. flexible and is placed in middle third
C. rigid and is placed in occlusal third
D. flexible and is placed in occlusal third

# The arrangement of artifical teeth:
A. is symmetrical to the right
B. is symmetrical to the left
C. is symmetrical to the both sides
D. is asymmetrically symmetrical

# The principal indication for lingual plate is:
A. when additional indirect retention is rquired
B. when there are no posterior teeth present
C. lingual sulcus is deep
D. none of the above

# The following material is used for taking impression of flabby ridge:
A. Alginate
B. Impression plaster
C. Putty silicone
D. Heavy body silicone

# The average distance in sulcus of edentulous jaws in anterior region is:
A. 38 cm
B. 40 cm
C. 42 cm
D. 44 cm

# The use of intensifying screen is:
A. to decrease patient exposure
B. to increase patient exposure
C. to prevent backscatter radiation
D. to increase contrast

# The latent time of radiographic appearance of acute abscess is:
A. 3-7 days
B. 7-10 days
C. 10-15 days
D. 15-19 days

# The three features of a radiograph are:
A. Definition, density, distortion
B. Definition, density, detail
C. Density, Distortion, detail
D. Contrast, density, definition

# Myositis ossificans involves all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Zygomaticus major
B. Levator palpebrae
C. Orbicularis oris
D. Genioglossus

# The buffering capacity of saliva is against which kind of bacteria?
A. Acidogenic
B. Polymorphic
C. Intercellular
D. Anaerobic

# Auspitz sign is seen in:
A. Psoriasis
B. Pemphigus
C. Herpes
D. Varicella

# The bacteria most commonly found in deep lesion rather than incipient one is:
A. Streptococcus
B. Lactobacillus
C. Velionella
D. Bacteroides

# The part of greatest demineralization in enamel caries is:
A. Translucent zone
B. Body of lesion
C. Dark zone
D. Surface zone

# The microorganisms are present in the following region of carious dentin:
A. Demineralized dentin
B. Demineralized but intact dentin
C. Tomes fatty layer
D. None of the above

# Ghost teeth are seen in:
A. Regional odontodysplasia
B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta type I
C. Dentinogenesis inperfecta type II
D. Amelogenesis imperfecta

# Pear shaped radiolucency between vital maxillary lateral and canine teeth is:
A. Globulomaxillary cyst
B. Nasopalatine cyst
C. Periapical cyst
D. Dentigerous cyst

# Which is true regarding Eagle's syndrome?
A. It is due to elongation of sphenoid bone
B. It is due to calcification of sphenomandibular ligament
C. Pain in TMJ region is a constant feature
D. It is due to elongation of styloid process

# The following is a feature of Gardner's syndrome:
A. Multiple osteomas
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. Lacrimal cysts
D. Leiomyoma

# Bronze pigmentation of oral mucosa is seen in:
A. Addison's disease
B. Haemochromatosis
C. Amalgam tattoo
D. Blue nevus

# Black hairy tongue appearance is due to:
A. Filiform papilla
B. Fungiform papilla
C. Filiforma nd fungiform papilla
D. Melanoma

# Ectopic sebaceous glands are present as:
A. Fordyce granules
B. Papillary outgrowths
C. Melasma
D. Melanoma

# All are features of dysplasia EXCEPT:
A. Individual cell keratinization
B. Dyskeratosis
C. Basilar hypoplasia
D. Loss of polarity

# The theory most accepted for dentinal hypersensitivity is:
A. Hydrodynamic
B. Neural
C. Transduction
D. None of the above

# The final secretion of ameloblasts is:
A. Enamel matrix
B. Enamel cuticle
C. Tomes layer
D. Enamel pellicle

# Von Korff fibers are present in:
A. Circumpulpal dentin
B. Mantle dentin
C. Peritubular dentin
D. Interglobular dentin

# The width of enamel over incisors is:
A. 2 mm
B. 2.5 mm
C. 2.3 mm
D. 3 mm

# A known HIV positive patient is admitted in a isolated ward after an abdominal surgery following an accident. The resident doctor who changed her dressing the next day found it to be soaked in blood. Which of the following would be the right method of choice of discarding the dressings?
A. Pour 1% hypochlorite on the dressing material and send it for incineration in an appropriate bag
B. Pour 5% hypochlorite on the dressing material and send it for incineration in an appropriate bag
C. Put the dressing material directly in an appropriate bag and send it for incineration
D. Pour 2% Lysal on the dressing material and send it for incineration in a appropriate bag

# For right sided skewed deviation, true statement would be:
A. Median is smaller than mean
B. More outlying observation are smaller than rest of the values
C. Tall to the left
D. Not affected at all

# Deficit in weight for height for a 3 year old child indicates:
A. Acute malnutrition
B. Chronic malnutrition
C. Concomitant acute and chronic malnutrition
D. Under-weight

# When an intervention is applied to community to evaluate its usefulness, it is termed as a trial for:
A. Efficacy
B. Effectiveness
C. Efficiency
D. Effect modification

# The process of inhibition of fluorine during mineralizationn of tooth is:
A. Accretion
B. Hydrolysis
C. Ionization
D. Syneresis

# The goal of dental health education is all, EXCEPT:
A. Specific Preventionn and promotion
B. Adopting healthy life styles
C. Modifying habits to lead healthy life
D. Reaching out to community

# The ppm of 1.23% APF is:
A. 1230 ppm
B. 12300 ppm
C. 12 ppm
D. 1.23 ppm

# What is the feature of primary prevention?
A. Disease limitation and Rehabilitation
B. Early diagnosis and Prompt treatment
C. State of complete physical, mental and social well being and not merely the absence of disease
D. Action taken prior to the onset of disease which removes the possibility that a disease will ever occur

# The most common cause of peripheral limb ischemia in India is:
A. Trauma
B. Atherosclerosis
C. Buerger's disease
D. Takayasu's disease

# The most common retrobulbar orbital mass in adults is:
A. Neurofibroma
B. Meningioma
C. Cavernous hemangioma
D. Schwannoma

# The blood culture from a patient of febrile neutropenia has frown Pseudomonas aeruginosa.When tested antimicrobial susceptibility, it was found to be a producer of extended spectrum B lactamase enzyme. The choice of antimicrobial therapy should be:
A. Ceftazidime + Amikacin
B. Azetronam + Amikacin
C. Cefpirome + Amikacin
D. Imipenem + Amikacin

# Which of the following is not a cardiovascular monitoring technique?
A. Transoesophageal echocardiography
B. Central venous pressure monitoring
C. Pulmonary artery catheterization
D. Capnography

# An anterolateral cordotomy relieving the pain in right leg is effective because it interrupts the:
A. Left dorsal column
B. Left ventral spinothalamic tract
C. Left lateral spinithalamic tract
D. Right lateral spinothalamic tract

# A 2 year old boy presents with fever for 3 days which responded to administration of paracetamol. Three days later, he developed acute renal failure, marked acidosis and encephalopathy. His urine showed plenty of oxalate crystals. The blood anion gap and osmolol gap were increased. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Paracetamol poisoning
B. Diethyl glycol poisioning
C. Severe malaria
D. Hanta Virus Infection

# A 50 year old man presented with multiple pathological fractures. His serum calcium is 11.5 mg/dL and phosphate is 2.5 mg/dL. Alkaline phosphate is 940 IU/dL. the most probable diagnosis is:
A. Osteoporosis
B. Osteopenia
C. Multiple Myeloma
D. Hyperparathyroidism

# A 25 year old male presented with pigmentation of nose and pinna. After voiding, his urine becomes dark. His spine is most likely to show:
A. Atlantoaxial subluxation
B. Spondyloptosis
C. Basilar invagination
D. Calcification of the disc

# All properties of conscious sedation are followed by:
A. Nitrous oxide
B. Thiopental
C. Sevoflurane
D. Ketamine

# Side effects of the drug arise due to the interactions of the drug to molecules other than the target. These effects of drugs can be minimized by its high:
A. Specificity
B. Affinity
C. Solubility
D. Hydrophobicity

# In treatment of Papillary carcinoma thyroid, radioiodine destroys the neoplastic cells predominantly by:
A. X rays
B. B rays
C. Alpha rays
D. None of the above

# Which of the following properties of a drug will enable it to be used in low concentration?
A. High affinity
B. High specificity
C. Low specificity
D. High stability

# Tetracycline inhibits protein synthesis by:
A. Inhibiting initiation and causing mmisreading of mRNA
B. Binding to 30s subunit and inhibits binding of aminoacyl RNA
C. Inhibiting peptidyl transferase activity
D. Inhibiting translocation

# During which phase of the cell cycle, the cellular content of DNA is doubled?
A. Mitotic phase
B. G1 phase
C. G2 phase
D. S phase

# The tumor suppressor gene p53 induces cell cycle arrest at:
A. G2-M phase
B. S-G2 phase
C. G1-S Phase
D. G0 phase

# Inter nucleosomal cleavage of DNA is characteristic of:
A. Reversible cell injury
B. Irreversible cell injury
C. Necrosis
D. Apoptosis

# The inheritance pattern of familial Retinoblastoma is:
A. Autosomal recessive
B. Autosomal dominant
C. X linked dominant
D. X linked recessive

# Interleukin is:
A. Cytokines
B. Lipoxin
C. Enzyme
D. Hormone

# Transformation of cell from one type to another is called:
A. Dysplasia
B. Anaplasia
C. Metaplasia
D. Hyperplasia

# The lingual artery passes:
A. deep to the hyoglossus muscle
B. superficial to the mylohyoid muscle
C. superficial to the digastric muscle
D. between digastric and mylohyoid muscles

# RNA is stained by the following dyes EXCEPT:
A. Pyronine
B. Azure A
C. Perchloric acid
D. Toludine blue

# The most potent stimulator of native T cells is:
A. B cell
B. Mature dendritic cells
C. Epithelial cells
D. Macrophages

# The following is not a method of isolation of Chlamydia from clinical specimens:
A. Yolk sac inoculation
B. Enzyme immunoassay
C. Tissue culture using irradiated McCoy cells
D. Tissue culturing irradiated BHK cells

# The following statements are true with reference to Mycoplasma EXCEPT:
A. They are the smallest prokaryotic organisms that can grow in cell free culture media
B. They are obligate intracellular organisms
C. They lack a cell wall
D. They are resistant to B lactam drugs

# All of the following statements about the vagus nerve are true EXCEPT that it:
A. supplies heart and lung
B. Carries post ganglionic parasympathetic fibers
C. Innervates right two third of transverse colon
D. Stimulates peristalsis and relaxes sphincters

# The floor of mouth and suprahyoid muscles are supplied by which artery?
A. Lingual
B. Inferior alveolar
C. Maxillary
D. Facial

No comments:

Post a Comment

Add Your Comments or Feedback Here