AIIMS MDS Entrance MCQs - November 2008


# Main component of bacterial plaque:
A. Bacteria and Food Product
B. Bacteria and Bacterial products
C. Food debris and salivary mucins
D. Degenerating epithelial cells and salivary mucins

# Inorganic component of plaque is formed of:
A. Calcium and fluoride
B. Calcium and sodium
C. Calcium and Phosphorous
D. Sodium and Calcium



# Dental plaque adhere to tooth surface by:
A. Bacteria
B. Epithelial cells
C. Dextran
D. Sucrose

# Radiolucent line between maxillary central incisors and lateral incisors is:
A. Artifacts
B. Fracture
C. Sinus tract and fistula
D. Nutrient canal

# Radiolucent line between mandibular central incisors and lateral incisors is:
A. Artifacts
B. Fracture
C. Sinus tract and fistula
D. Nutrient canal

# Radiographic features of maxillary sinusitis include:
A. Fluid level
B. Clouding of the antrum
C. Fluid level and clouding
D. Clouding and bony erosion

# Child of age 8 years with early exfoliation of teeth, anterior alveolar resorption, thin cementum with high phosphoethanolamine in renal excretion, familial predilection:
A. Vitamin D resistant rickets
B. Hypophosphatasia
C. Early onset periodontitis
D. Juvenile periodontitis

# Most accurate test of prediction of dental caries in 6 years old child:
A. Snyder's test
B. Previous caries experience
C. Mother's experience
D. Siblings' experience

# In treating a case with rampant caries:
A. restrict intake of sweets only
B. allow no sugar for 21 days
C. allow no sugar for 7 days
D. noe of the above

# Drug not requiring dose adjustment in renal failure is:
A. Aminoglycoside
B. Pancuronium
C. Calcium channel blocker
D. Vancomycin

# Dose adjustment of all of the following drugs will be required in patient with severe liver cirrhosis EXCEPT:
A. Lorazepam
B. Theophylline
C. Paracetamol
D. Metronidazole

# Test which is used when the number of observation are less, and used to determine whether the difference between observation is statistically significant or not is?
A. F test
B. Unpaired T test
C. Paired T test
D. Z test

# When the data is multinominal or binominal but the number of observation is less than 30, which test is used to analyze it?
A. F test
B. Unpaired T test
C. Paired T test
D. Chi square test

# When samples are quantitative randomly selected and sample size is large than 30 then which test should be used for test of significance?
A. Z test
B. Student test
C. ANOVA
D. Chi square test

# Test of significance to compare mean when sample is small and units are independent:
A. Z test
B. Unpaired T test
C. Paired T test
D. F test

# Mode is :
A. calculated by adding up the values of the group of items and dividing the sum by number of items
B. value that least frequently occurs in the set of observation
C. If the value are arranged in ascending or descending order, the middlemost value
D. Most frequent occurring value in set of observation

# Which of the following is used for long term maintenance of opioid withdrawal?
A. Pethidine
B. Methadone
C. Nalorphine
D. Fentanyl

# Which of the following is wrong about cardiac muscle?
A. Gap junction
B. Has multiple nuclei
C. Functional syncytium
D. Branching

# A radioopaque line is observed in the dentin underlying a 3 month old class I restoration, which of the following bases is used under this restoration?
A. Calcium hydroxide
B. Zinc phosphate cement
C. ZOE
D. ZOE and formocresol

# Which of the following resembles caries in the radiographs?
A. ZOE
B. Zinc phosphate
C. GIC
D. Polymethyl methacrylate

# AOT is:
A. Pindborg's tumor
B. Ameloblastic fibroma
C. Adeno-ameloblastoma
D. Adamantinoma

# Treatment of Adenoameloblastoma is:
A. En-bloc resection of maxilla
B. Marsupialization
C. Enucleation
D. No treatment

# Irregular radiolucent area related to apex of non vital teeth could be:
A. Chronic periapical abscess
B. Periapical cyst
C. Early osteomyelitis
D. Periapical granuloma

# What is the term for radioopacity found at root apex of young permanent teeth involved with chronic pulpitis?
A. Apical condensing osteitis
B. Apical cyst
C. Stage I apicalosteofibrosis
D. Chronic apical periodontitis

# Floating multiple tooth in jaw:
A. Cherubism
B. Paget's disease
C. Fibrous dysplasia
D. Caffey disease

# Oral pigmentation is seen in:
A. Paget's disease
B. Weber's syndrome
C. Darier's disease
D. Addison's disease

# Pigmentation is caused by all of the following except:
A. Cushing syndrome
B. Addison's disease
C. Albright's disease
D. Peutz Jegher's syndrome

# Depth of sulcus is measured clinically from marginal gingiva to:
A. CEJ
B. Apical end of JE
C. Apical penetration of probe
D. Alveolar crest

# The soft tissue -tooth interface formed after flap surgery in place of a previously denuded root surface area is called?
A. Long junctional epithelium
B. Collagen adhesion
C. C.T. Attachment
D. Scar tissue attachment

# Pulp resembles :
A. Loose CT
B. Granulation tissue
C. Vascular tissue
D. Nerve tissue

# Which type of wound does not involve dermis?
A. Abrasion
B. Contusion
C. Laceration
D. Incision

# The following condition do not create gingival defects necessitating gingivoplasty EXCEPT:
A. Erosive lichen planus
B. Herpetic gingivostomatitis
C. Desquamative gingivitis
D. ANUG

# Greenish discoloration on anterior teeth cervical margin of 8 years old child is due to:
A. Turner tooth
B. Chromogenic bacteria
C. Neonatal line
D. Calculus

# Green stain on tooth surface is produced by:
A. Aspergillosis
B. Flavobacterium
C. Serratia
D. All of the above

# Orange stain on cervical third of tooth crown is commonly associated with which bacteria?
A. Aspergillosis
B. Penicillium
C. P. melaginogenicus
D. Serratia marcescens

# A patient has teeth with reduced amount of dentin, widening of predentin layer, prescence of large areas of interglobular dentin, and an irregular tubular pattern of dentin. The diagnosis is:
A. Dentin hypocalcification
B. Dentin dysplasia
C. Odontodysplasia
D. Dentinogenesis Imperfecta

# Thistle tube appearance of pulp chamber ia feature of:
A. Coronal dentin dysplasia
B. Regional odontodysplasia
C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
D. Amelogenesis imperfecta

# Radiograph of a 40 year old female revealed radiolucent areas around several of her mandibular teeth, all which tested vital on Electric pulp tester and are non carious. This areas represent:
A. Chronic periapical abscesses
B. Periapical osteofibrosis
C. Multiple granuloma
D. Bone hypoplasia associated with opalescent teeth

# Hair on end appearance is seen in:
A. Thalassemia
B. Aplastic anemia
C. Sickle cell anemia
D. Pernicious anemia

# In performing an elective tracheostomy, the trachea should be entered:
A. Below cricoid
B. Above cricoid
C. Through Cricothyroid membrane
D. laterally below the thyroid cartilage

# If an emergency tracheostomy should be performed, the incision should be given:
A. Vertical
B. Horizontal
C. Oblique
D. Paramedian

# Which of the following tracheal rings are incised during tracheostomy?
A. First, Second and Third
B. Second and third
C. Second, third and fourth
D. Third, fourth and often fifth

# Which muscle is not attached to oblique line of thyroid cartilage?
A. Thyrohyoid
B. Superior constrictor
C. Middle constrictor
D. Sternothyroid

# In absence of specific plasma type, plasma from all of the following blood group can be safely transfused in a patient except:
A. Patient with blood group AB can be given plasma from O blood group donor
B. Patient with blood group O can be given plasma from AB blood group donor
C. Patient with blood group A can be given plasma from AB blood group donor
D. Patient with blood group B can be given plasma from AB blood group donor

# A patient who is on regimen of steroid therapy and has need for extraction of chronically infected tooth requires premedication with:
A. Atropine to reduce the hazard for vagal stimulation
B. Antihypertensive to combat tendency towards shock
C. Antihistamine to prevent allergic reaction
D. Antibiotics

# What will be reaction with a patient given IV horse serum and after 3 weeks, it was again injected at skin, what would be immediate reaction?
A. Atopy
B. Arthus phenomenon
C. Anaphylaxis
D. Serum sickness

# In a culture of Staphylococcus aureus, methicillin resistant Stapylococcus, which antibiotic should not be used?
A. Clotrimazole
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Cefaclor
D. Vancomycin

# Drug which cannot be acetylated:
A. Dapson
B. Metronidazole
C. Isoniazide
D. Procainamide

# If a bacteria were susceptible to both erythromycin and penicillin, then it would not be appropriate to treat the patients with both antibiotics at the same time because:
A. Penicillin is inactivated by eryhthromycin
B. Erythromycin exerts its effects extracellularly
C. Erythromycin enhances the lactamase activity
D. Penicillin is only effective against growing cells

# Nitrous oxide alone is not used as general anesthetic agent because of:
A. Difficulty in maintaining adequate oxygen concentration
B. Expense of agent and its explosive hazard
C. Adverse effect on liver
D. Poor analgesic agent

# IV sedation with quick recovery, light headedness is brought about by:
A. Diazepam
B. Propofol
C. Droperidol
D. Fentanyl

# A patient has an infectious process associated with maxillary right lateral incisor. The tooth is deeply carious and non restorable. His temperature is 102 degree F.The patient has not been able to chew for past 24 hours. The right side of face is swollen. The patient cannot open the right eye. On palpation, the area is soft, painful to touch and the tissue rebounds when palpated. Treatment for this is:
A. Antibiotics and heat only
B. Incision and drainage
C. Antibiotics, heat and fluids
D. Injection of sclerosing agents

# A 9 year old child mother comes to dental clinic with the complaint of oral ulceration, fever and shedding of skin of palm and soles. She is giving history of premature exfoliation of teeth, increased sweating and teething.Also, she gave history of using new teething gel for past 1 month. The child is suffering from:
A. Epidermolysis bullosa
B. Lichen planus
C. Acrodynia
D. Hyperphosphatemia

# Why the acid etchant is supplied in gel form?
A. To have better control over flow
B. To get higher concentration of etchant
C. To act more rapidly on enamel surface
D. To get good taste in patient's mouth

# Objective pain can be detected by:
A. Facial pain scale
. B. H reflex
C. R III reflex
D. Knee jerk reflex

# Most common site of abrasion due to tooth brush is:
A. Maxillary left
B. Mandibular left
C. Maxillary right
D. Mandibular right

# In periodontal problem, which of the following is used?
A. Less abrasive paste
B. High abrasive paste
C. More abrasive paste
D. All

# If a small sample size is taken and in that standard deviation for that sample is small, then for population:
A. Standard error will be high
B. Sample will not be a representative of the population
C. It will give precise results
D. Standard deviation will increase

# Dentin conditioner leads to:
A. removes smear layer
B. dentine surface energy increases
C. covers tubules with resin
D. forms layer over collagen fibers

# To prevent sensitivity caused by acid etching and to protect pulp in deep cavities, which of the following should be used?
A. Calcium hydroxide liner
B. ZnO liner
C. Light cure GIC liner
D. Lining with varnish

# Benzodiazepine antagonist is:
A. Flumazenil
B. Naloxone
C. Furazolidone
D. Dapsone

# All of the following are associated with periodontitis EXCEPT:
A. Actinomyces actinomycetemcomitans
B. Porphyromonas gingivalis
C. Capnocytophaga
D. Mycoplasma

# Advantage of chromic gut over plain gut is:
A. Delayd resorption
B. Increased strength
C. Less irritation
D. Less tissue reaction

# Eutectic mixture - 2.5 Lidocaine+ 2.5 Prilocaine is used for:
A. Topical anesthesia
B. Gow Gates
C. Intrapulpal
D. Gasserian ganglion block in Trigeminal neuralgia

# In cleft palate, alveolar bone grafting should be done:
A. After maxillary expansion and correction of cross bite, before canine eruption
B. Before maxillary expansion and correction of cross bite, but after canine eruption
C. Before maxillary expansion and correction of cross bite, before canine eruption
D. After maxillary expansion and correction of cross bite, after canine eruption

# Most common developmental cyst of maxilla:
A. Globulomaxillary
B. Mid palatal cyst
C. Cyst of newborn
D. Median anterior palatine cyst

# A male patient with hypogonadism and having at least two X chromosomes and one or more Y chromosome is suffering from:
A. Nursing bottle syndrome
B. Turner's syndrome
C. Down syndrome
D. Klinefelter's syndrome

# Following bilateral mandibular fracture in the canine region, the following muscles will tend to pull the mandibular back:
A. Genioglossus and anterior belly of digastric
B. Genioglossus and mylohyoid
C. Genioglossus and thyrohyoid
D. Genioglossus and Masseter

# Loadig dose depend upon:
A. Volume of distribution
B. T1/2
C. Clearance value
D. None of the above

# Which of the following is not a Koch's postulate?
A. The bacteria should be able to be isolated from a diseased tissue.
B. When inoculated in experimental animals, bacteria may or may not cause disease
C. Pure cultures can be obtained
D. Bacteria should be able to be isolated from diseased tissue in the experimental animals.

# Koch's postulates were modified for periodontitis by:
A. Socransky
B. Glickman
C. Carranza
D. Orban

# T lymphocyte activate:
A. Anaphylaxis
B. Delayed hypersensitivity and lymphokine production
C. Immediate hypersensitivity
D. Activation of complement system

# In gingival sulcus semipermeable membrane represent:
A. Seepage of bacterial product
B. GCF into sulcus
C. Both
D. None

# Immediate response to tissue injury is:
A. Neutrophilia
B. Neutropenia
C. Monocytosis
D. Lymphocytosis

# In root fracture of apical one-third of permanent anterior teeth, the teeth usually:
A. Discolor rapidly
B. Remain in function and are vital
C. Undergo pulpal necroses and becomes ankylosed
D. Are indicated for extraction and prosthetic replacement

# Deciduous teeth are lighter in color than permanent teeth due to:
A. There is difference in enamel crystalline structure and difference in refractive index
B. Thin dentinal layer
C. Adjacent tooth contact reflect
D. Due to contrast of colour with surrounding tissues

# Most common type of caries in primary first molar is:
A. Proximal surface and above point of contact
B. Occlusal pits and fissures
C. Buccal surface below the cervical ride
D. Proximal surface below the contact point

# Most common type of caries in primary second molar is:
A. Proximal surface and above point of contact
B. Occlusal pits and fissures
C. Buccal surface below the cervical ride
D. Proximal surface below the contact point

# Most commonly affected by caries in a 9 year old child is:
A. Occlusal surface of first molar
B. Occlusal surface of second molar
C. Lingual surface of anteriors
D. Interproximal surface of anteriors

# DiFOTI detect:
A. Proximal caries
B. Occlusal caries
C. Loss bone
D. Calcium content of enamel

# Which of the following is used in diagnodent?
A. Visible light
B. Laser light
C. Sound waves
D. Nanotechnology for detection

# Diagnodent detect:
A. Proximal caries
B. Occlusal caries
C. Loss bone
D. Calcium content of enamel

# High compressive strength, low tensile strength is:
A. Brittleness
B. Resiliency
C. Ductility
D. Malleable

# A patient complains of foul smelling purulent discharge from site of mandibular first molar extracted three days back. The gingival margins around the socket are extremely sensitive to touch. The appropriate treatment of choice is:
A. Irrigation of the socket with sedative placement along with analgesic
B. Curettage of socket and induce bleeding
C. Left untreated and observed for few days
D. Start antibiotics followed by curettage of socket

# An 8years old child got trauma and got his central incisor avulsed 20 minutes back,which got contaminated with debris the child rushes to dental clinic with avulsed tooth,the treatment is?
A. Clean root surface with saline and reimplant
B. Clean and curettage the root surface and reimplant
C. Clean the root,do RCT and reimplant
D. Scrubbing of surface and reimplant

#TFO least affect?
A. Epithelial attachment
B. Enamel
C. Cementum
D. PDL

# Infectious mononucleosis,caused by
A. E.B virus
B. Herps zoster
C. CMV
D. Cox sackie virus

# Radicular cyst is associated with:
A. Non vital tooth
B. Vital tooth
C. Deep cavity
D. Pericoronal Infection

# A periodontal pocket of 8 mm deep having the junctional epithelium coronal to CE junction is:
A. An infrabony pocket
B. A pseudopocket
C. A true periodontal pocket
D. A furcation involvement

# After periodontal disease patient is advised:
A. Tooth powder with increased abrasive content
B. Tooth paste with increased abrasive content
C. Tooth paste with minimum abrasive content
D. All of the above

# X ray feature seen in clinical gingivitis:
A. Horizontal bone loss
B. Normal bone loss
C. Vertical bone loss
D. Increase density of bone

# All of the following are true about penicillin G EXCEPT:
A. Highly active against sensitive strains of gram positive cocci
B. Destroyed by gastric acid
C. More concentrated in prostatic secretions and intraocular fluid
D. Used in treatment of meningococcal meningitis

# In amalgam class V, mesial and distal walls direction is determined by:
A. Extent of caries
B. Retention required
C. Enamel rod direction
D. Axiogingival and occlusogingival lines

# Extracellular polysaccharide most commonly formed by bacteria in plaque is:
A. Sucrose
B. Fructose
C. Glucose
D. Maltose

# Shape of access cavity preparation in mandibular molar with 4 canals:
A. Trapezoidal
B. Round
C. Rectangular
D. Oval

# Bacterial enzyme capable of altering ground substance in Periodontal ligament:
A. Hyaluronidase
B. Dextranase
C. Mucinase
D. Amylase

# Dopa and 5HT are clinically relevant:
A. Product of amine metabolism
B. Can cross BBB easily
C. Act as neuromodulator
D. Acid precursors of amine

# Acid etching is done to:
A. Decrease microleakage
B. Decrease polymerization shrinkage
C. Decrease coefficient of thermal expansion
D. Decrease porosity in restorative material

# In GIC, F- which leaches out is replaced by:
A. Al
B. Hydroxyl
C. Silicate
D. Carboxyl

# Bond found in GIC is:
A. Covalent bond
B. Ionic bond
C. Hydrogen bond
D. Metallic bond

# Bonding of GIC to tooth structure is brought about by:
A. Micromechanical bonding
B. Carboxyl groups
C. Chelates with metal ions
D. Hydroxyl group

# Which of the following is not used as an abrasive in dentifrices?
A. CaCO3
B. Amylose
C. Silicate
D. Sodium chloride

# A two day old developing plaque consists mostly of:
A. Filamentous organisms
B. Gram positive cocci and rods
C. Gram negative organisms
D. Spirochetes

# The bacterial flora associated with juvenile periodontitis:
A. Gram Positive Aerobic Cocci
B. Gram Negative Aerobic cocci
C. Gram positive aerobic cocci
D. Gram negative anaerobic rods

# Highest malignant potential:
A. Junctional nevus
B. Intradermal nevus
C. Blue nevus
D. Compound nevus

# Sorting out trauma patients based on the need for treatment and the available resources to provide the treatment is known as:
A. Triage
B. Definitive treatment
C. Emergency treatment
D. Hospital care

# Polishing of Amalgam done, top flat surface is:
A. Beilby layer
B. Debby layer
C. Tilbbey layer
D. Whiteby layer

CLICK HERE TO PRACTICE MORE MCQS

No comments:

Post a Comment

Add Your Comments or Feedback Here

See All Posts / Archives: