Dentosphere : World of Dentistry

  # All of the following lesions may be classified as Odontogenic Tumors EXCEPT A. Acanthomatous ameloblastoma B. Branchial cleft cyst C. Myxoma D. Simple ameloblastoma # Fish n et pattern is pemphigus vulgaris is seen in which of the following tests? A. Direct immunofluorescence B. Tzanck smear C. FNAC D. Histopathology # All of the following are inherited disorders of connective tissue EXCEPT: A. Alport syndrome B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Marfan syndrome D. McArdle’s disease

 # Which of the following is correct: A. Non-keratinized epithelium is characterized by absence of stratum granulosum and stratum corneum, The surface cells are nucleated B. Para-keratinized epithelium is characterized by superficial cells with pyknotic nuclei and absence of stratum granulosum C. In ortho keratinization the superficial cells lose their nuclei, but stratum granulosum is present D. All of the above # Long connective tissue papillae and keratinized epithelia are a feature of these parts of oral mucosa: A. gingiva and alveolar mucosa B. Hard palate and gingiva C. Buccal and alveolar mucosa D. Hard and soft palate # All of the following is lined by stratified squamous epithelium, except: A. Lips B. Tongue C. Roof of the soft palate D. Oropharynx

  # Enameloplasty is: A. is same as prophylactic odontomy B. filling of enamel fissures with amalgam C. elimination of shallow enamel fissures D. All of the above The correct answer is C. Elimination of shallow enamel fissures. Historically, enameloplasty was utilized as an ultraconservative procedure on the occlusal surfaces, which were deemed to be at risk of the development of a pit or issure caries lesion. Extreme prudence was exercised in the selection of these areas and in the depth of enamel removed. This procedure was never used unless the area could be transformed into a cleansable groove (or fossa) by a minimal reduction of enamel, and unless occlusal contacts could be maintained. This procedure technically included a preparation stage but no restoration stage. Currently, clinical situations such as these (ICDAS 1 or 2) are managed by treatment with luoride or placement of sealants. Research studies support the filling of issures/pits and narrow grooves/fossae (i.e., “sea...

 # Spontaneous bleeding usually occurs with a platelet count of: A. Less than 50000/mm3 B. 50000-75000/ mm3 C. 75000-100000/ mm3 D. 100000-150000/mm3 The correct answer is: A. Less than 50000/mm3. Spontaneous bleeding does not usually occur until the platelet count falls below 20 × 109/L, unless their function is also compromised. Purpura and spontaneous bruising are characteristic but there may also be oral, nasal, gastrointestinal or genitourinary bleeding. Severe thrombocytopenia (< 10 × 109/L) may result in retinal haemorrhage and potentially fatal intracranial bleeding, but this is rare. Reference: Davidson's Principles and Practice of Medicine, 22nd Edition, Page No. 1008. CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQs

 # Chancre most commonly occurs on: A. Genitals B. Tonsils C. Tongue D. Floor of the mouth The correct answer is A. Genitals. A chancre is a painless genital ulcer most commonly formed during the primary stage of syphilis. This infectious lesion forms approximately 21 days after the initial exposure to Treponema pallidum, the gram-negative spirochaete bacterium yielding syphilis. Chancres transmit the sexually transmissible disease of syphilis through direct physical contact. These ulcers usually form on or around the anus, mouth, penis and vagina. Chancres may diminish between four and eight weeks without the application of medication. Chancres, as well as being painless ulcerations formed during the primary stage of syphilis, are associated with the African trypanosomiasis sleeping sickness, surrounding the area of the tsetse fly bite. Reference:  https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chancre CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQs

 # Which one of the following can be used in the management of a hemophilic patient? A. Ascorbic acid B. Tranexamic acid C. Acetic acid D. Palmitic acid The correct answer is B. Tranexamic Acid. Tranexamic acid may be useful in mucosal bleeding. For more serious or persistent bleeds, haemostasis can be achieved with selected factor VIII concentrates which contain considerable quantities of vWF in addition to factor VIII. Young children and patients with severe arterial disease should not receive DDAVP, and patients with type 2B disease develop thrombocytopenia which may be troublesome following DDAVP. Bleeding in type 3 patients responds to nothing apart from concentrate. Reference: Davidson's Principles and Practice of Medicine, 22nd Edition, Page no: 1054 CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQs

 # What are the main laboratory findings in Rheumatoid arthritis? A. Elevated ESR and RA factor positive B. Decreased ESR and RA factor negative C. Increased level of uric acid in blood D. Decreased level of calcium in blood The correct answer is A. Elevated ESR and RA factor positive. The diagnosis of RA is based on clinical grounds but investigations are useful in confirming the diagnosis and assessing disease activity. The ESR and CRP are usually raised but normal results do not exclude the diagnosis. ACPA are positive in about 70% of cases and are highly specific for RA, occurring in many patients before clinical onset of the disease. Similarly RF is positive in about 70% of cases, many of whom also test positive for ACPA. Low titres of RF are found in about 10% of the normal population and in other diseases.  Reference: Davidson's Principles and Practice of  Medicine, 22nd Edition, Page no 1100 CLICK HERE FOR MORE MCQs