AIIMS MDS Entrance Examination MCQs - November 2004

# The primordia of the craniofacial complex develops from:
A. Hensen's node
B. Notochordal process
C. Both
D. None

# The maxillary nerve exits cranium through _________ foramen.
A. Ovale
B. Rotundum
C. Stylomastoid
D. Inferior orbital fissure

# A radioopaque line is observed in the dentin underlying a three month old class II amalgam restoration. Which of the following bases was used in this restoration?
A. Calcium hydroxide
B. Zinc phosphate cement
C. Zinc oxide eugenol
D. Zinc oxide eugenol and formocresol

# Which is not a branch of External Carotid Artery?
A. Superior thyroid
B. Anterior Ethmoidal Artery
C. Posterior Auricular Artery
D. Occipital artery

# The nerve supply of stapedius muscle is:
A. III cranial nerve
B. V cranial nerve
C. VII cranial nerve
D. XI cranial nerve

# The carotid artery may be palpated at the:
A. Hyoid bone
B. Thyroid cartilage
C. Transverse process of C5
D. Transverse process of C6

# Class specific antigenic determinants of an immunoglobulin is associated with:
A. L- Chain
B. H- Chain
C. J- Chain
D. Variable region

# The afferent fibers which are most sensitive to local anesthetic belong to group:
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

# Number of branches of the internal carotid artery in the neck is:
A. Zero
B. One
C. TWo
D. Three

# Carbonic Anhydrase in the kidney tubular cells is associated with the resorption of:
A. Urea
B. Chlorine
C. Bicarbonate
D. All of the above

# The blood glucose level in diabetes mellitus is decreased by the removal of:
A. Thyroid
B. Parathyroid
C. Anterior Pituitary
D. Posterior Pituitary

# The molecular weight of a protein can be determined by:
A. native polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis
B. Sodium dodecyl sulphate-h-PAGE
C. Isoelectric focusing
D. Ion exchange chromatography

# Decreased glycolytic activity impairs oxygen transport by hemoglobin due to:
A. Reduced energy production
B. Decreased production of 2,3 BPG
C. Reduced synthesis of Hb
D. Low levels of O2

# Peripheral membrane proteins are present:
A. Outside the cell membrane
B. Inside the cell membrane
C. Both
D. None

# ____________ is also an initiation code for protein.
A. Leucine
B. Lysine
C. Methionine
D. Isoleucine

# The main enzyme responsible for activation of Xenobiotics is:
A. Cytochrome P-450
B. NADPH Cytochrome P-450 reductase
C. Glucuronyl transferase
D. All of the above

# Cell organelle containing DNA is:
A. Mitochondria
B. Golgi body
C. ER
D. All

# In chronic viral hepatitis:
A. Hepatitis virus infection is a common cause in children
B. Morphological classification into chronic active hepatitis and chronic persistent hepatitis are important
C. Fatty change is pathognomic of Hepatitis C virus infection
D. Grading refers to the extent of necrosis and inflammation

# The maximum shrinkage during firing process in ceramics occurs in ______ stage.
A. High bisque stage
B. Fusion stage
C. Low bisque stage
D. No contraction

# Function of fluoride flux in soldering process of Co-Cr alloy is:
A. Reduces copper oxide
B. Reduces chromium oxide
C. Prevents flow of material in undesirable area
D. Increases strength of solder

# 2% potassium sulphate hardening solution is used in:
A. Impression compound
B. Alginate
C. Agar-agar
D. ZOE paste

# Condensation shrinkage of porcelain during firing depends upon:
A. rate of firing at firing temperature
B. uniformity of particle size
C. type of investment used
D. shape and size of particle

# Which one of the following micro-organisms uses antigenic variation as a major means of evading host defences?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Borrelia recurrentis
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Listeria monocytogenes

# Addition of 4% potassium sulphate and 0.4% Borax to impression plaster helps in:
A. regulate setting time and expansion
B. impairing color and taste
C. regulating strength and consistency
D. adhering to tray during impression

# Which of the following is caused by Amphotericin?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypermagnesemia
D. Hyponatremia

# Myogenin is an immunohistochemical stain used for:
A. Rhabdomyosarcoma
B. Schwannoma
C. Retinoblastoma
D. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma

# Genes for sex determination is:
A. Shh
B. SRY
C. AZF
D. HOX

# True about acute primary amoebic meningo-encephalitis is:
A. Meningitis caused by acanthoamoeba species is acute in nature
B. Diagnosis is by demonstration of trophozoite in CSF
C. Both
D. None

# Which of the following is a true statement?
A. Hanta Virus Pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and feces
B. Kyanasaur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal
C. Both
D. None

# True about Mycobacterium other than tubercular bacilli:
A. Causes disseminated infection
B. Occurs in persons with normal immunity
C. Cause decreased efficacy of both due to cross immunity
D. All

# A maxillary right canine can be distinguished from a maxillary left canine because:
A. root curves to mesial in the apical
B. distal half shows more convexity than mesial half
C. facially the cusp tip is placed distal to bisecting line
D. lingually the cervical line slopes mesially

# A five year old child is given an extended course of tetracycline drug. Which teeth can be affected?
A. Canines, premolars and second molars
B. Canines and premolars
C. Central incisors and lateral incisors
D. First molars

# Centrineuraxial anaesthesia is not contraindicated in:
A. Platelets less than 80000
B. Patient is on aspirin
C. Patient is on oral anticoagulants
D. Raised intracranial pressure

# Drug not used in Helicobacter pylori infection is:
A. Metronidazole
B. Mosapride
C. Omeprazole
D. Amoxicillin

# Which drug is not acetylated?
A. INH
B. Hydralazine
C. Dapsone
D. Metoclopromide

# Which is a prodrug?
A. Enalapril
B. Salmeterol
C. Clonidine
D. Acetazolamide

# Teeth formation first seen in utero at:
A. 9 weeks
B. 2 weeks
C. 16 weeks
D. 20 weeks

# Relative to primary mandibular incisors, permanent incisors erupt:
A. Lingually
B. Facially
C. Distally
D. mesially

# What is the thickness of the layer of prismless enamel found in primary teeth?
A. 25 micrometer
B. 50 micrometer
C. 75 micrometer
D. 100 micrometer

# In which part of the oral cavity is the mucous membrane the thinnest?
A. Soft palate
B. Labial mucosa
C. Floor of mouth
D. Buccal mucosa

# Not seen in adrenal deficiency:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hypotension
D. None

# The most common type of epilepsy seen in children is:
A. Grand Mal
B. Myoclonic
C. Petit Mal
D. Atonic

# Single conical crown with single root is called as:
A. Polyphyodont
B. Diphyodont
C. Haplodont
D. Acrodont

# The Y shaped occlusal pattern is seen in :
A. Maxillary first premolar
B. Maxillary second premolar
C. Mandibular first premolar
D. Mandibular second premolar

# The disorder characterized by craniostosis, craniofacial anomalies, severe symmetrical syndactyly of the hands and feet along with preaxial polysyndactyly and variable soft tissue syndactyly is:
A. Carpenter's syndrome
B. Crouzon's syndrome
C. Apert's syndrome
D. Down's syndrome

# Unilateral vesicular eruption along the course of the nerve in oro-facial region is:
A. Herpes-Zoster
B. Herpes Simplex
C. Molloscum contagiosum
D. Infectious mononucleosis

# The cyst which is found within the bone at the junction of the globular process, the lateral nasal process and the maxillary process:
A. Nasoalveolar cyst
B. Globulomaxillary cyst
C. Nasopalatine cyst
D. Midpalatine cyst

# The cyst located at the junction of the medial nasal process, lateral nasal process and maxillary process is:
A. Nasoalveolar cyst
B. Globulomaxillary cyst
C. Nasopalatine cyst
D. Midpalatine cyst

# Radiographic appearance of ossifying fibroma:
A. Unilateral radioopacity
B. Multilocular radioopacity
C. Unilocular radiolucency
D. Multilocular radiolucency

# Which of the following is the correct glass transition temperature of impression compound?
A. 43.5 degree celsius
B. 39 degree celsius
C. 65 degree celsius
D. 100 degree celsius

# Which of the following are characteristic feature of high copper amalgam?
A. Low compression strength
B. High marginal breakdown
C. Less marginal fracture
D. High creep

# Which of the following acts as accelerator in ZOE impression paste?
A. Zinc acetate and Calcium chloride
B. Zinc chloride and Eugenol
C. Zinc sulfate and Eugenol
D. Glycerin

# All of the following nuclei belongs to the general visceral efferent column except?
A. Facial nerve nucleus
B. Trigeminal nerve nucleus
C. Dorsal nucleus of vagus
D. Nucleus ambiguous

# The sudden appearance of dumbbell shape swelling immediately after third molar nerve block is:
A. Injection in pterygoid plexuses
B. Injection in parotid gland
C. Injection into the internal maxillary artery
D. Injection into the nasal cavity

# Dontrix gauze is used for:
A. Measurement of wire strength
B. Measurement of force
C. Measurement of wire distortion
D. Measurement of wire deformation

# In class III composite restoration, retention should be placed in:
A. Axial wall
B. Entirely in dentin
C. At dentinoenamel junction
D. At the expense of facial and lingual walls, but not the axial walls

# Which is the most triggering factor for bruxism?
A. TMJ dysfunction
B. Pericoronitis
C. Discrepancy between centric relation and centric occlusion
D. Acute periodontal disease

# 'Intrinsic factor of Castle' is secreted by which of the following cells in gastric glands?
A. Chief cells
B. Parietal cells
C. Mucus cells
D. B cells

# All of the following are true about therapy for tuberculosis except:
A. 'Flu like syndrome' is usually seen in people taking Rifampicin on a daily basis
B. Ethambutol accumulates in renal failure
C. Hyperuricemia is a recognized side effect of Pyrazinamide
D. Red green color impairment is an early sign of ethambutol induced optic neuritis

# It is essential to lubricate dam before applying it. Which of the following is not a suitable lubricant?
A. Soapy water
B. Vaseline
C. Shaving cream
D. Scrubb gel

# Which of the following is wrong method to apply rubber dam with wingless clamp on the tooth?
A. Place clamp on tooth and insert the dam over it
B. Place dam on tooth with fingers then place clamp over it
C. Place dam and frame outside the oral cavity and then on tooth using forcep over the dam
D. Place dam and frame outside the oral cavity and then on tooth using forcep under the dam

# Paralleling technique is used to:
A. Minimize superimposition of anatomic structures
B. Prevent shortening of image
C. Minimize distortion
D. Prevent elongation of image

# Hand-wrist radiograph is used in the assesment of:
A. Skeletal maturity
B. Chronologic age
C. Skeletal and chronologic age
D. None of the above

# With a flush terminal plane, the permanent first molar will
A. initially be class II
B. initially be clasS III
C. immediately assume a normal relationship
D. erupt immediately into an end to end relationship

# In a class V cavity preparation, mesiodistal walls depends upon:
A. direction of enamel rods
B. contours of gingiva
C. size of carious lesion
D. location of contact area

# In treating a lateral incisor with periapical abscess and draining sinus, the treatment of choice for draining sinus is:
A. No treatment
B. Curettage the sinus tract
C. Cauterization
D. Irrigation with sodium hypochlorite

# Which stage of Plasmodium Vivax is infectious to mosquito?
A. Gametocyte
B. Trophozoite
C. Merozoite
D. Sporozoite

# A dental surgeon has recovered from Hepatitis B by 3 months rest. His lab findings are normal but he is not allowed to attend the patients as per medical board as he is:
A. healthy carrier
B. active carrier
C. convalescent carrier
D. paradoxical carrier

# Which is associated with defect in DNA repair?
A. Xeroderma pigmentosum
B. Icthyosis
C. Albinism
D. Sickle cell anemia

# Slidenafil is inhibitor of:
A. cAMP
B. cGMP
C. PDE-5
D. PGI2

# Cooley's anemia is commonly known as:
A. Beta thalassemia major
B. Beta thalassemia minor
C. Beta thalassemia intermedia
D. Alpha thalassemia

# Increase in height of the mandible and appearance of interdental spaces in an elderly patient is associated with:
A. Hyperpituitarism
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Hypopituitarism
D. Hypothyroidism

# Bilateral mandibular enlargement is seen in which of the following conditions?
A. Cherubism
B. Osteoma
C. Monostotic fibrous dysplasia
D. Ameloblastoma

# Which of the following does not occur in reaction ZnO and Eugenol?
A. Zinc oxide hydrolysis to hydride
B. Autocatalytic reaction
C. Water is the byproduct of reaction
D. Dehydrated ZnO reacts with dehydrated eugenol

# Dental caries is associated with:
A. S. mitis
B. S. salivarius
C. S. rattus
D. Staphylococcus

# Distance of the blade from the shank to have anti-rotational stability of the instruments is:
A. 2 mm
B. 3 mm
C. 4 mm
D. 5 mm

# A patient with poor neuromuscular control presents with occlusal prematurities. Occlusion can be corrected by:
A. Direct correction in patient's mouth
B. No need to establish correct occlusion in such cases
C. Patient is asked to bite on carborundum paste
D. Take new interocclusal record and correct on articulator

# A patient with a history of fall after hypoglycemic episode presents with pain in bilateral preauricular region and deviation of the mandible to the right side on mouth opening. Probable diagnosis is:
A. Fracture of right condyle
B. Fracture of left condyle
C. Dislocation of left condyle
D. Dislocation of both condyles

# Infection of masticatory space is usually associated with:
A. Tonsillar abscess
B. Mandibular molar
C. Lateral pharyngeal space
D. Parotid space infection

# First local anesthetic to be used clinically was:
A. Cocaine
B. Bupivacaine
C. Procaine
D. Lignocaine

# Which combination forms day care anesthesia?
A. Fentanyl, Propofol, Isoflurane
B. Pethidine, Propofol, Isoflurane
C. Thiopental, Pethidine, Halothane
D. Thiopentane, Isoflurane, Fentanyl

# A male patient aged 45 years complains of a firm, painless swelling in the anterior palate and bilaterally symmetrical heart shaped radiolucency between the central incisors. The teeth are vital. Most probable diagnosis is:
A. Nasoalveolar cyst
B. Median palatal cyst
C. Globulomaxillary cyst
D. Nasopalatine canal cyst

# Green stains found on recently erupted upper anterior teeth of child which are not removed after brushing are due to:
A. Chromogenic bacteria
B. Neonatal line
C. Calculus
D. Materia alba

# To predict the occurence of caries in a 6 year old child, which of the following gives the best result?
A. Sibling's caries
B. Mother's caries
C. Snyder's test
D. Parental caries

# Early and most reliable method to predict the caries level occurance in a child is:
A. Previous caries experience
B. Snyder test
C. Mother's caries activity
D. Sibling caries activity

# A periodontal pocket of 8 mm deep having the junctional epithelium coronal to CE junction is:
A. An infrabony pocket
B. A pseudopocket
C. A true periodontal pocket
D. A furcation involvement

# Severe alveolar bone loss seen in patients with juvenile periodontitis is related to:
A. Impaired osteoblastic activity
B. Increased phagocytosis
C. Increased macrophage migration
D. Impaired neutrophil chemotaxis

# Which of the following organism is not implicated in etiology of periodontal disease?
A. Bacteroides
B. Wollinella
C. Neisseria
D. Eikenella

# A 9 year old child having carious maxillary lateral incisor got small swelling over the respective area. In 48 hours the swelling enlarged and reached the lower border of eye, very sensitive to touch and hot, painful to the touch stimuli. The lymph node is palpable and he has little fever, the swelling rebounds on pressure. The recommended treatment is:
A. Antibiotic and hot fomentation
B. Incision and drainage
C. Injection of sclerosing unit
D. Application of pressure bandage

# A patient on steroid therapy has to undergo elective extraction of many teeth. The premedication indicated prior to surgical procedure is:
A. NSAIDS
B. Antibiotics
C. Antihistamines
D. Antihypertensives

# Which of the following is true about 'Z' score?
A. Normal distribution
B. Binomial distribution
C. Chi Square test
D. Non-parametric method

# After the tooth emerges to the occlusal plane, the clinical crown height increases by:
A. Passive eruption
B. Active eruption
C. Post emergence growth spurt
D. Juvenile occlusal equilibrium

Periodontics / Periodontology and Implant Dentistry Question Paper - BPKIHS 4th Year BDS, VIII Sem, July 2018

Time - 1 Hour 20 minutes

 Total Marks: 60

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

SECTION - 'A'

Maximum Marks - 30

1. Define and classify infrabony pocket. Describe the pathogenesis of infrabony pocket. (2+3=5)

2. Define periodontal plastic surgery (PPS). (2+3=5)

3. Describe different Radiographic presentations of Malignancy.  (5)

4. Enumerate receptors used for digital imaging. Highlight the recent advances in digital imaging. (2+3=5)

5. Describe the pathogenesis of Oral submucous fibrosis with applied aspect in therapy. (3+2=5)

6. List the four methods of assessing Professionalism and Ethics in an individual and highlight any one.
(2+3=5)

SECTION 'B'

MODIFIED ESSAY QUESTIONS

Maximum Marks: 30

I. A 20-year-male complains of swelling in the lower front region of the jaw. The swelling is insidious in onset and gradually increasing but asymptomatic. The left submandibular lymph node was palpable 1 cm in size mobile and firm. There was a large swelling in the anterior mandible crossing the midline with the displacement of teeth.

Q1. Based on the above history and clinical findings, give three differential diagnosis with reasons. (3)
Q2. Enlist two radiographs of choice with reasons. (2)

On radiographic examination, there is a multilocular radiolucency within the site stated and histopathological section showed multinucleated giant cell within a background of proliferating mesenchymal cells. 
Q3. Enumerate other characteristic radiographic features. (3)
Q4. Mention two laboratory investigations with reasons.  (2)
Q5. State the final diagnosis. (1)
Q6. Outline medical management. (4)

II. A fifty-year-old female complains of gum swelling for one year. It was associated with mobility and pus discharge. On taking history she had excessive thirst, hunger, and increased urination during sleep. 
Q7. State the systemic disease for the case. (1)

On examination, she had decreased saliva and multiple periodontal abscesses.
Q8. Enumerate the causes of dryness of mouth. (2)
Q9. Describe the association between the periodontal disease and the medical condition. (4)

The extraction is planned as the tooth has a poor prognosis.
Q10. Describe laboratory diagnostic criteria for the disease. (3)
Q11. Mention the signs and symptoms of medical emergencies in the dental office with its management protocol.

(2+3=5)

AIIMS MDS Entrance Examination MCQs - November 2003

# History of dislike for sweet food items is typically present in:
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Glycogen storage diseases
C. Hereditary fructose intolerance
D. Galactosemia

# Excessive intake (hypervitaminosis) of which of the following vitamins is associated with increased risk of congenital malformations?
A. Vitamin A
B. Biotin
C. Folic acid
D. Vitamin K

# Gold standard surgical procedure for prevention of aspiration is:
A. Thyroplasty
B. Tracheostomy
C. Tracheal division and permanent tracheostome
D. Feeding gastrostomy / jejunostomy

# The presence of small size platelets on the peripheral smear is characteristic of:
A. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
B. Bernard Soulier syndrome
C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
D. Wiskott Aldrich Syndrome

# Which one of the following therapeutic mode is commonly employed in intra operative radiotherapy?
A. X-rays
B. Gamma rays
C. Photon
D. Electrons

# Radiation therapy to hypoxic tissue may be potentiated by the treatment with:
A. Methotrexate
B. Metronidazole
C. Meiphalan
D. Mycostatin

# The most accepted theory of dental caries is:
A. Proteolytic theory
B. Proteolysis-chelation theory
C. Parasitic theory
D. Miller's acidogenic theory or Chemicoparasitic theory

# The iatrogenic traumatic facial nerve palsy is most commonly caused due to:
A. Myringoplasty
B. Stapedectomy
C. Mastoidectomy
D. Ossiculoplasty

# Which of the following disorders is likely to result in a prolonged bleeding time?
A. Hemophilia A
B. Hemophilia B
C. Hemophilia C
D. Thrombocytopenia

# The most successful treatment for a vital primary second molar with a large carious pulp exposure is:
A. Formocresol pulpotomy
B. Indirect pulp capping
C. Pulpotomy with calcium hydroxide
D. Pulp capping with calcium hydroxide

# The origin of calcium ions in a calcified bridge formed by calcium hydroxide is:
A. from calcium hydroxide itself
B. from underlying dentin
C. through blood stream via pulp
D. from periapical tissues

# A radiograph shows an abscessed primary second molar with severe furcation involvement. The developing bud of the second premolar is partially enclosed within its roots. To resolve this problem without disturbing the permanent tooth bud, the proper treatment is:
A. Section the tooth and remove portions individually
B. Lift a flap and remove sufficient alveolar bone to allow extraction
C. Remove the tooth with a short-beak dental forceps by luxating slowly
D. Perform pulp therapy and postpone extraction until sufficient root resorption has occurred

# The undesirable side effect most commonly associated with the use of a buccal coil spring to regain space for a mandibular second premolar is:
A. Pain
B. Gingival irritation
C. Tendency for the first molar to intrude
D. Tendency for the first premolar to rotate

# A child accidentally swallows 10cc of a 10% fluoride solution. The most effective immediate action is to:
A. Have the child drink copious quantities of water
B. Have the child drink a 10% sodium bicarbonate solution
C. Have the child drink milk or some other calcium containing liquid
D. Send the child to family physician

# Which of the following local anesthetic is an ester?
A. Procaine
B. Lidocaine
C. Etidocaine
D. Prilocaine

# A 7 year old patient has a unilateral cross bite due to functional shift of the mandible. The management involves:
A. Bilateral expansion of the maxillary arch
B. Unilateral expansion of maxillary posterior teeth on the side of functional shift
C. Expansion of the maxilla opposite to the side of functional shift
D. Observation

# The most effective means of limiting applied loads to abutment teeth in a distal extension RPD is by:
A. Splinting abutments
B. Using a stress breaker
C. Using acrylic replacement teeth
D. Maintaining a stable base-tissue relationship

# When porcelain is baked against metal, it should possess a:
A. High fusion expansion
B. High fusion temperature
C. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion less than but close to that of the metal
D. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion greater than but close to that of the metal

# The modulus of elasticity means:
A. Rigidity or stiffness of the material
B. Ability to be stretched with permanent deformation
C. Ductility of the material
D. Malleability of the material

# When a simple tipping force is applied to the crown of a single rooted tooth, the center of rotation is usually located:
A. At the apex
B. Within the apical 1/3rd of the root
C. Within the middle 1/3rd of the root
D. Within the coronal 1/3rd of the root

# Most common cause of bruxism is:
A. Occlusal prematurity
B. Emotional stress
C. Periodontal disease
D. Muscle hypertrophy

# A patient complains of dull pain in the TMJ on awakening. He is suffering from:
A. Bruxism
B. Trigeminal neuralgia
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Rheumatoid arthritis

# In the treatment of pericoronitis, :
A. Antibiotics are given only if fever and trismus is present
B. Antibiotics are always given
C. Antibiotics are never given
D. Antibiotics are given with steroids

# The treatment for TMJ dislocation is:
A. No treatment
B. Condylectomy
C. Manual reduction
D. Intermaxillary fixation

# The drug used in dissociative anesthesia is:
A. Phosphoric acid
B. Sodium bicarbonate
C. Ketamine
D. Fentanyl dorperidol

# Laryngeal mask airway (LMA) is used for:
A. Maintenance of the airway
B. Facilitating laryngeal surgery
C. Prevention of aspiration
D. Removing oral secretions

# Which of the following organism is found in periodontal diseases?
A. Bacteroides
B. Wolinella
C. Neisseria
D. Eikenella

# The most common response to frustration is:
A. Denial
B. Aggression
C. Submission
D. Fantasy

# The principal component of plaque is:
A. Dextrans
B. Lactic acid
C. Microorganisms
D. Materia alba

# All of the following are pneumatic bone EXCEPT:
A. Maxilla
B. Parietal
C. Ethmoid
D. Mastoid

# In a disclosing solution, the main component is:
A. Erythrosine
B. Basic fuschin
C. Methylene blue
D. Crystal violet

# Mites are the vectors for all EXCEPT:
A. Rickettsial pox
B. Scabies
C. Scrub typhus
D. Kyasanur forest disease

# Nosocomial infection can be caused by all EXCEPT:
A. Mycobacterium
B. Staphylococci sureus
C. Pseudomonas
D. Enterobacteriaceae

# Drains must be removed from a wound after:
A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 48 hours
D. drainage is complete

# The recurrent laryngeal nerve is closest to:
A. Inferior thyroid artery
B. Superior thyroid artery
C. Middle thyroid vein
D. Superior thyroid vein

# Pyronaridine is:
A. Antimalarial drug
B. Antifungal drug
C. Antibacterial drug
D. Anti HIV drug

# Bacterial resistance to antibiotics is transferred by:
A. Conjugation
B. Transformation
C. Transduction
D. Binary fission

# Edema may be caused by:
A. Constriction of arterioles
B. Increased permeability of capillaries
C. Reduced blood pressure in the capillaries
D. A tissue osmotic pressure

# In a study, the data is collected from 100 pregnant women as to the status of usage of calcium supplements and to the status of the decrease of incidence of caries in their children. The appropriate statistical test of hypothesis is:
A. Paired t-test
B. Unpaired or independent t-test
C. Analysis of variance
D. Chi-square test

# Prognosis following fracture of the root of a permanent maxillary incisor is most favourable if the fracture is in the:
A. apical third of the root
B. middle third of the root
C. coronal third of the root
D. unrelated to the location of the fracture

# In a 18 year old person with a 10 mm incisor overlap, a 14 mm horizontal overlap and a ANB = 11 and a facial appearance of mandibular retrusion, all teeth are present with 3 mm crowding in the mandibular arch. Which of the following is required for a successful correction of the problem ?
A. Treatment with combined orthodontics + surgery
B. Orthodontic + Orthopaedic surgery
C. Multibanded orthodontic treatment for 2 years
D. Good patient cooperation with a functional orthodontic appliance

# When using the acid etch technique to restore a class IV fracture, exposed dentin should first be covered with:
A. Cavity varnish
B. A calcium hydroxide liner
C. Phosphoric acid
D. Zinc oxide eugenol cement

# Environmental factors contributing to dental caries include the following:
A. Actinomyces viscosus, Streptococci mutans, and plaque
B. Decreased salivary flow and gingival recession
C. Pits, fissures and irregularities
D. Nutrition, Oral hygiene and Fluoride

# The distolingual extension of a mandibular impression for a complete denture is limited by the action of which muscle?
A. Superior constrictor of pharynx
B. Stylohyoid
C. Medial pterygoid
D. Lateral Pterygoid

# Which of the following factors is most critical in determining whether or not to extract a tooth involved with periodontal diseases?
A. Depth of pockets
B. Mobility of tooth
C. Amount of attachment loss
D. Relationship of adjacent teeth

# What is the primary consideration for saving decisuous teeth?
A. Esthetics
B. Phonetics
C. Maintaining arch length
D. Mastication

# The treatment for aneurysmal bone cyst is:
A. Treatment
B. Curettage
C. Excision
D. Resection

# A patient without prior medication breathes a gas mixture consisting of 50% oxygen and 50% nitrous oxide by volume. Which of the following effects would be expected?
A. analgesia
B. surgical anesthesia
C. excitement
D. ptosis

# Silver amalgam is superior as:
A. better esthetics
B. superior strength
C. ability to bond with the tooth
D. all of the above

# As the filler particle size in composites is increased:
A. Surface smoothness is improved
B. Strength is improved
C. Viscosity is decreased
D. More exposure time is required for curing

# The ideal medium for growing fungi is:
A. Sabourad's agar
B. Thioglycolate broth
C. Blood agar
D. Tissue culture

# Which of the following enzymes is required to induce the formation of a plasma clot in pathogenic Staphylococci?
A. Coagulase
B. Lysozyme
C. S protein
D. Fibrinolysin

# The amount of force needed to compact direct filling gold properly is influenced most by the:
A. Surface area of the condenser
B. Angle of compaction
C. Bulk of the surrounding tooth
D. Temperature at which the gold is annealed

# The gingival crevicular fluid has a predominance of:
A. Neutrophils
B. B-lymphocytes
C. T lymphocytes
D. Macrophages

# Which of the following dental materials is easily confused with caries when viewed radiographically?
A. Calcium hydroxide
B. ZOE
C. Polycarboxylate
D. Zinc phosphate

# The histology of pulp inadvertently exposed during cavity preparation of deep carious lesions shows:
A. Acute inflammatory cells at site of exposure below which chronic inflammatory cells are there on normal pulp
B. Only acute inflammatory cells at site of exposure on a normal pulp
C. Predominantly chronic inflammatory cells at site of exposure
D. None of the above

# The maximum growth of the skull takes place during what age?
A. Birth to 5 years
B. 5-6 years
C. 6-7 years
D. 7-10 years

# When a heavy object in hand is lowered, the extension at the elbow is brought about by:
A. Active shortening of the extensors
B. Passive shortening of the extensors
C. Active lengthening of the flexors
D. Active shortening of the flexors

# If a patient with Raynaud's disease puts his hand in cold water, the hand appears:
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. White
D. Blue

# Carbonic anhydrase in the kidney tubular cells is associated with the reabsorption of:
A. Chloride
B. Urea
C. Bicarbonate
D. Carbohydrate

# All of the following could result from infection within the right cavernous sinus EXCEPT:
A. Loss of papillary blink reflex
B. Loss of corneal blink reflex
C. Ptosis
D. Right Ophthalmoplegia

# Mitochondria is involved in all of the following EXCEPT:
A. ATP production
B. Apoptosis
C. TCA cycle
D. Fatty acid biosynthesis

# A buffer that is most effective at a pH of about 4.5 is:
A. Acetate
B. Bicarbonate
C. Phosphate
D. Tris buffer

# The fasting blood glucose levels for a group of diabetics is found to be normally distributed with a mean of 105mg/100ml of blood and a standard deviation of 10mg/100 ml of blood. From this data, it can be inferred that, approximately 95% of diabetics will have their fasting blood glucose levels within limits of:
A. 75-135 mg/100ml
B. 85-125 mg/100ml
C. 95-115 mg/100ml
D. 65-145 mg/100ml

# The following is true about prevalence and incidence:
A. both are rates
B. prevalence is a rate but incidence is not
C. incidence is a rate but prevalence is not
D. both are not rates

# Implants normally fail in:
A. Chronic smokers
B. Hypertension
C. Diabetics
D. Old people

# Maximum permissible dose of radiation during pregnancy is:
A. 0.5 rads
B. 1 rads
C. 1.5 rads
D. 3 rads

# In a cold curing denture resin, the activator is :
A. Hydroquinone
B. Sodium sulfite
C. Benzoyl peroxide
D. A tertiary amine

# In a double blind clinical drug trial:
A. each patient recieves a placebo
B. each patient receives both (double) treatments
C. the patients do not know which treatment they are receiving
D. the patient do not know that they are in a drug trial

# A 22 year old woman developed small itchy wheals after physical exertion, Walking in the sun, eating hot spicy food and when she was angry. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Chronic idiopathoc urticaria
B. Heat urticaria
C. Solar urticaria
D. Cholinergic urticaria

# If you calculate the plasma osmolality of a child with plasma Na 125mEq/L, glucose 108 mg/dL and BUN (blood urea nitrogen) 140 mg/dL, the most appropriate answer would be:
A. 300 mOsm/kg
B. 306 mOsm/kg
C. 312 mOsm/kg
D. 318 mOsm/kg

# Which of the following disease of endocrine origin can be cured?
A. Phenylketonuira
B. Gaucher's disease
C. Niemann-Pick disease
D. MEN disease

# Transition from G2 to M phase of the cell cycle is controlled by:
A. Retinoblastoma gene product
B. p53 protein
C. Cyclin E
D. Cyclin B

# Hyper coagulability due to defective factor V gene is called:
A. Lisbon mutation
B. Leiden mutation
C. Antiphospholipid syndrome
D. Inducible thrombocytopenic syndrome

# A one year old boy presented with hepatosplenomegaly and delayed milestones. The land biopsy and bone marrow biopsy revealed presence of histiocytes with PAS positive diastase resistant material in the cytoplasm. Electron microscope examination of these histiocytes is most likely to reveal the presence of:
A. Birbeck granules in the cytoplasm
B. Myelin figures in the cytoplasm
C. Parallel rays of tubular structures in lysosomes
D. Electron dense deposit in the mitochondria

# Use of folic acid to prevent congenital malformation should be best initiated:
A. During first trimester of pregnancy
B. During second trimester of pregnancy
C. During third trimester of pregnancy
D. Before conception

# Several hormones regulate the tubular absorption of water and electrolytes at different in the nephron. Which of the following combination is correct?
A. Angiotensin in distal tubule
B. Aldosterone in collecting ducts
C. ADH in proximal tubule
D. ANP in loop of Henle

# NADPH is produced by:
A. Glycolysis
B. Citric acid cycle
C. HMP pathway
D. Glycogenesis

# MRI rooms are shielded completely by a continuous sheet or wire mesh of copper or aluminium to shield the imager from external electromagnetic radiations. This is called:
A. Maxwell cage
B. Faraday cage
C. Edison's cage
D. Ohm's cage

# At the end of anesthesia after discontinuation of nitrous oxide and removal of endotracheal tube, 100% oxygen is administerd to the patient to prevent:
A. Diffusion hypoxia
B. Second gas effect
C. Hyperoxia
D. Bronchospasm

# Marjolin's ulcer is a:
A. malignant ulcer found on the scar of a burn
B. malignant ulcer found on the infected foot
C. trophic ulcer
D. tropical ulcer characterized by absence of pain

# Lymph spread can be detected by:
A. Palpation
B. Angiography
C. X rays
D. Percussion

# A child patient is always fearful of the dental situation. The dentist decides to permit the child to observe his working with a cooperative younger during an operative procedure. The behaviour modification technique used is:
A. Modelling
B. Reinforcement
C. Desensitization
D. Contracting

# In primary molar RCT, the filling material of choice is:
A. Chlorpercha
B. Cavit
C. ZOE without catalyst
D. Calcium hydroxide

# Least maligannt thyroid cancer is:
A. papillary carcinoma
B. follicular carcinoma
C. medullary carcinoma
D. anplastic carcinoma

# The antimicrobial agent which inhibits the ergosterol biosynthesis is:
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Amphotericin B
C. 5 - fLuorouracil
D. Griseofulvin

# After applying a statistical test, the investigator gest the p value as 0.01. It means that:
A. the probability of finding a significant difference is 1 %
B. the probability of declaring a significant difference, when there is truly no difference is 1 %
C. the difference is not significant 1 % times and significant 99% times
D. the power of the test used is 99%

AIIMS MDS Entrance Examination MCQs - November 2002

# Edema may be caused by:
A. Constriction of arterioles
B. Increased permeability of capillaries
C. Reduced blood pressure in the capillaries
D. A tissue osmotic pressure that is lower than that of plasma

# The middle meningeal artery is associated with which foramen?
A. Ovale
B. Rotundum
C. Stylomastoid
D. Spinosum

# Behavior problem in the dental office is traced to the fact that a 3-year-old girl heard about dental difficulties from her mother; the most satisfactory method of handling the situation is to:
A. Introduce another child as a good example
B. Modify her fear by familiarization
C. Use small amount of barbiturates
D. Use firmness

# Prolonged administration of Streptomycin may result in damage to the:
A. Optic Nerve
B. Facial Nerve
C. Auditory nerve
D. Trigeminal nerve

# A patient with grand-mal epilepsy would likely be under treatment with:
A. Meprobamate
B. Pentobarbital
C. Trimethadione
D. Phenytoin

# Which one of the following hormones stimulates contraction of the uterus and let down of the milk?
A. Progesterone
B. Prolactin
C. Prostaglandin
D. Oxytocin

# One of the following is not an amino acid:
A. Glycine
B. Hydroxyproline
C. Glutamic acid
D. Choline

# Which of the following is not a part of epidemiological triad?
A. Agent
B. Host
C. Disease
D. Environment

# A bacterial enzyme capable of altering the ground substance of the periodontal ligament is:
A. Amylase
B. Mucinase
C. Dextranase
D. Hyaluronidase

# A two day old developing plaque consists primarily of:
A. Filamentous organisms
B. Spirochetal organisms
C. Gram positive cocci and rods
D. Gram negative motile organisms

# Which of the following is not true about boiling water?
A. It can kill Hepatitis B virus
B. It is used for sterilization of surgical instruments
C. It can kill Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. It can kill vegetative bacterial cells

# Toxoids are most often prepared by treating toxins with:
A. Pepsin
B. Papain
C. Antitoxin
D. Formaldehyde

# Carbamazepine has been utilized to successfully diminish attacks in trigeminal neuralgia. During this therapy, which of the following is indicated?
A. Clinical observation only
B. Clinical observation and complete blood and platelet counts prior to and at frequent intervals during therapy
C. No monitoring
D. Complete blood investigation only if adverse symptom arise

# Physical sign of severe aortic stenosis is:
A. A late peaking holosystolic murmur
B. A delayed carotid upstroke
C. A diastolic rumble
D. An opening snap

# In myocardial infarction, the first enzyme to rise is:
A. CPK - MB
B. LDH
C. SGOT
D. Amylase

# Which of the following may be a feature of acromegaly?
A. Large tongue
B. Micrognathia
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Crowded teeth

# If a patient who has Raynaud's disease puts his hands in cold water, the hands appear:
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. White
D. Blue

# The type of maxillofacial bone graft having the best chance of success is the:
A. Isograft
B. Xenograft
C. Allograft
D. Autograft

# A 50 year old man has gradual loss of hearing and loss of vision as well as enlargement of maxilla. A provisional diagnosis should include:
A. Osteomalacia
B. Ameloblastoma
C. Paget's disease
D. Multiple myeloma

# In a 19 year old patient, with a swelling over the left angle of the mandible, temperature 38 degree celcius and negative history of trauma, one should suspect:
A. Spontaneous fracture of the mandible
B. Pericoronal infection
C. Mumps
D. Sjogren's syndrome

# Which syndrome consists of flushing, warmness and perspiration over the cheek and pinna of the ear on the side following the ingestion of highly seasoned food?
A. Fanconi's
B. Auriculotemporal
C. Horner's
D. Cushing's

# Acantholysis is an important diagnostic feature in:
A. Pemphigus
B. Lichen planus
C. Erythema multiforme
D. Lupus erythematosus

# Which of the following is innervated by the vagus nerve?
A. The levator veli palatini
B. The posterior belly of digastric
C. Mylohyoid
D. The tensor veli palatini

# The primary site of action of antidiuretic hormone is on the:
A. distal tubules and collecting ducts in the kidney
B. afferent arterioles of the glomeruli
C. thirst center in the hypothalamus
D. osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus

# One of the following is not true for myelinated nerve fiber:
A. Conduction of impulse through myelinated nerve fiber is slower than that in non myelinated nerve fiber
B. Membrane currents are generated at nodes of Ranvier
C. Myelin sheath is composed of lamellated cylinder of fatty material
D. Local anesthetic solution can be effective only where the nerve is not covered by the myelin sheath

# Which of the following muscles is a prime mover in effecting a left working movement?
A. Left lateral pterygoid
B. Right lateral pterygoid
C. Left medial pterygoid
D. Right medial pterygoid

# DNA is found principally in:
A. Nucleolus
B. Nucleus
C. Cytoplasm
D. Mitochondria

# The diploid number of chromosomes is perpetuated in somatic cells by a process of:
A. Meiosis
B. Mitosis
C. Amitosis
D. Cytokinesis

# Ataxia involves a lesion of the:
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Pons
C. Cerebral cortex
D. Cerebellum

# Endocrine glands that are not influenced by the pituitary gland include the:
A. Thyroid gland, testes and the adrenal medulla
B. Adrenal medulla, parathyroid and islets of Langerhans
C. Adrenal cortex, parathyroids and ovaries
D. Pancreas, Adrenal medulla and thyroid gland

# Which hormone together with catecholamines enhances the tone of vascular smooth muscles and assist in elevating the blood pressure?
A. Parathyroid hormone
B. Glucagon
C. Thyroxine
D. Cortisol

# Iodine is primarily important in the biochemical synthesis of :
A. ACTH
B. Thyroxin
C. Adrenalin
D. Calcitonin

# The vitamin that promotes the synthesis by the liver is:
A. Carotene
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin K
D. Folic acid

# PMA is a symbol for a:
A. Pulp capping material
B. Caries index
C. Periodontal index
D. Materia alba index

# Majority of oral microorganisms are:
A. Strict anaerobes
B. Gram positive bacilli
C. Spirochetes
D. Facultative anaerobes

# The ability of the pathogenic Staphylococci to induce the formation of a plasma clot requires release of the enzyme:
A. Amylase
B. Fibrinolysin
C. Coagulase
D. Lysozyme

# The major antiseptic value of soap lies in its ability to:
A. Kill microbes
B. Removes microbes
C. Inhibit microbial growth
D. Dehydrate microbial cells

# Bacterial spores are a problem in sterilizing instruments and equipments because:
A. They are resistant to antibiotics
B. They are easy to kill but are usually protected by organic matter
C. They are comparatively resistant to physical and chemical injuries
D. Most pathogenic bacteria are spore formers

# Amide type local anesthetics are metabolized in the :
A. Serum
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Kidneys

# Valvular lesion most often resulting from myocardial infarcton is:
A. Aortic stenosis
B. Mitral stenosis
C. Mitral regurgitation
D. Pulmonary stenosis

# The most common cause of right ventricular failure is:
A. Seconday to left ventricular failure
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Mitral stenosis
D. Aortic stenosis

# One of the earliest signs of cavernous sinus thrombosis is deficit in the function of the:
A. Ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve
B. Maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve
C. Oculomotor nerve
D. Abducent nerve

# Pott's puffy tumor is:
A. A malignant tumor
B. An extradural abscess
C. A tumor of pituitary gland
D. An adrenal gland tumor

# Marjolin's ulcer is a:
A. malignant ulcer found on the scar of a burn
B. malignant ulcer found on the infected foot
C. trophic ulcer
D. tropical ulcer characterized by absence of pain

# Visible bleeding of an artery is best controlled via:
A. Pressure
B. Tea bag pressure
C. Tourniquet
D. Clamping and ligation

# In the healing of a wound, the epithelium that eventually will cover the defect is derived from:
A. Intact epithelium from the wound margin
B. Metaplasia of fibroblast to epithelial cells
C. Transformation of fibrous exudates into epithelium
D. Transformation of endothelial cells into epithelial cells

# Which of the following characteristics of inlay wax is its major disadvantage?
A. Flow
B. Rigidity
C. Hardness
D. High thermal expansion

# As the gold content of a dental solder decreases, the:
A. hardness decreases
B. ductility increases
C. Corrosion resistance decreases
D. Ultimate tensile strength decreases

# When porcelain is baked against metal, it should possess a:
A. High fusion temperature
B. Low fusion temperature
C. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion less than but close to that of metal
D. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion greater than but close to that of metal

# The high copper dental amalgam are superior to other amalgam because high copper dental amalgams:
A. corrode more and corrosion products seal the margin better
B. have less marginal breakdown
C. are workable at lower ratio of tensile to compressive strength
D. generally have a higher ratio of tensile to compressive strength

# In a normal dentition in centric occlusion, opposing contacts are expected at:
A. Buccal slopes of buccal cusps of maxillary posterior teeth
B. Buccal slopes of lingual cusps of maxillary posterior teeth
C. Lingual slopes of lingual cusps of mandibular posterior teeth
D. All slopes of lingual cusps of mandibular posterior teeth

# Before eruption, the position of permanent mandibular incisor buds relative to primary incisors is:
A. Superior and facial
B. Superior and lingual
C. Inferior and facial
D. Inferior and lingual

# The permanent anterior tooth that is most often atypical in size is the:
A. Maxillary canine
B. Mandibular central incisor
C. Maxillary lateral incisors
D. Maxillary canine

# Generally, contact areas between posterior teeth are located in which direction from the center of the proximal surface?
A. Facially and occlusally
B. Facially and gingivally
C. Lingually and gingivally
D. Lingually and occlusally

# The facial surfaces of mandibular molars compared with the anterior border of ascending ramus are located:
A. Medial to the border
B. Lateral to the border
C. Continuous with the border
D. Individual variation exists

# In which of the following areas is the alveolar process the thinnest?
A. Lingual to the maxillary central incisor
B. Buccal to the mandibular central incisor
C. Lingual to the maxillary canine
D. Lingual to the mandibular first molar

# Acanthosis denotes:
A. Hyperchromatism of cells
B. Increased mitotic divisions
C. Increased thickness of spinous cell layers
D. Loss of polarity or disorientation of cell

# Which of the following is a reason for sealing caries into the cavity:
A. To eliminate the need for eventual direct pulp capping
B. To produce an aseptic field when pulp exposure is inevitable
C. To allow the formation of secondary dentin
D. To produce a hard surface as a foundation for subsequent restoration

# The bevel of the cavosurface angle of an inlay preparation permits closer adaptation of the gold margin structure because the:
A. thin margin of gold can be drawn over pronounced margin deficiencies to eliminate the defect
B. Wax pattern can be more accurately carved to margins of the preparation
C. Wax margins are less likely to distort when the pattern is invested
D. Thinner margins of the gold overlying the bevel is more adaptable

# Restoration of the cusp using dental amalgam requires that:
A. All the enamel removed from the cusp to provide bulk to the amalgam
B. Only the carious enamel be removed to conserve tooth structure
C. At least 2 mm of the cusp be removed to provide retention form
D. At least 2 mm of the cusp be removed to provide resistance form

# When removing the rubber dam, the first step should be:
A. Remove the clamp
B. Release the holder
C. Pull off the rubber from the isolated tooth
D. Cut the interseptal rubber with scissors

# Direct pulp capping is indicated when there is:
A. a large exposure
B. pain response to cold
C. no hemorrhage from the exposure
D. an accidental mechanical exposure

# A healthy pulp recovers from minimal injury by:
A. Anachoresis
B. Degeneration
C. Deposition of dentin
D. Formation of polyp

# The most frequent cause of failure in endodontics is:
A. Split roots
B. Root perforation
C. Incomplete obturation
D. Separated instruments

# Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis usually occurs:
A. prior to age 10
B. between ages 13 and 30
C. at the age of onset of the menstrual period
D. during menopause

# A 0.7 cm, pedunculated, white, rough surfaced growth occurring on hard palate is most likely:
A. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
B. Pleomorphic carcinoma
C. Keratoacanthoma
D. Papilloma

# CPR should have a ratio of chest compression to mouth breathing of:
A. 10:1
B. 30:2
C. 60:1
D. 20:1

# Post auricular ecchymosis in cases of the fracture of the base of skull is called:
A. Battle's sign
B. Tinel's sign
C. Trousseau's sign
D. Nikolsky's sign

# Selection of the proper kilovoltage for dental films is influenced by:
A. Type of timer
B. Target-film distance
C. Temperature of the developing solution
D. Density of the tissues to be radiographed

# The most effective method of reducing patient somatic exposure when taking a radiograph is to use:
A. A lead apron
B. Speed E film
C. Added filtration
D. An open ended shilded cone

# Abutment teeth for removable dentures should be contoured so that the retentive clasp tip can be placed:
A. On the gingival third of the crown
B. On the middle third of the crown
C. In a distal undercut
D. In a mesial undercut

# Ridge soreness in denture patients may be associated with:
A. Gapping
B. Malocclusion
C. Overextension
D. Lack of retention

# Overextension of the mandibular denture base in the distofacial area will cause dislodgement of the denture during function as a result of the action of:
A. masseter
B. buccinator
C. pterygomandibular raphe
D. superior pharyngeal constrictor

# Water pressure devices are useful in removing:
A. Plaque
B. Pellicle
C. Food debris
D. Calculus

# Periodontal recall following therapy should occur at:
A. 3 months interval
B. 6 months interval
C. Yearly interval
D. Intervals dependent upon, tissue response, patient dexterity, and patient motivation

# In an inflammatory gingival lesion, one would expect to find:
A. a decreased amount of exudates
B. Large amounts of C-reactive protein
C. Increased vascular permeability
D. Decreased vascular permeability

# A patient with severe periodontal involvement requires flap surgery on the complete mandibular arch. A potential problem is damaging to the:
A. Facial nerve
B. Mental nerve
C. Attachment of the mentalis muscle
D. Attachment of the inferior labialis muscle

# Increasing the zone of attached gingiva in the area of mandibular second and third molars is often complicated by the presence of the:
A. Mylohyoid ridge
B. Vestibular fornix
C. Internal oblique ridge
D. External oblique ridge

# The microorganism seen in a 24 hour plaque are:
A. Vibrios
B. Filaments
C. Spirochetes and vibros
D. Rods and cocci

# A major disadvantage of treatment using a cevical headgear is:
A. Impaction of maxillary canines
B. Extrusion of maxillary incisors
C. Extrusion of maxillary molar
D. Potential deformity of the neck

# Which of the following procedures is used to prevent relapse after correction of a rotated permanent maxillary canine?
A. Recontour of the crown
B. Supracrestal fibrotomy
C. Establishment of cuspid protected occlusion
D. Removal of the functional contacts with the canine in the lateral and protrusive excursions

# The band and crib space maintainer is classified as:
A. Bilateral, fixed and functional
B. Unilateral, fixed and functional
C. Unilateral, fixed and non functional
D. Removal of all functional contacts with the canine in the lateral and protrusive excursions

# Surgical procedures of the maxilla may alter its:
A. Anterior portion only
B. Posterior portion only
C. Length and anteroposterior position only
D. Length, width and height

# Primate spaces are found between:
A. all deciduous teeth during growth of the jaws
B. maxillary deciduous canines and molars
C. maxillary deciduous lateral incisors and canine
D. mandibular lateral incisors and canine

# An early prepubertal growth spurt indicates:
A. A longer treatment time
B. A fast maturing child
C. A slow maturing child
D. An endocrine dysfunction, such as hyperthyroidism

# Premature exfoliation of a primary canine may result in:
A. an arch length excess
B. an arch length deficiency
C. a skeletal malocclusion
D. severe crowding in permanent dentition

# In a mixed dentition space analysis, the most careful estimate will only be accurate within:
A. 0.5 mm
B. 2 mm
C. 4 mm
D. 6 mm

# In deciduous teeth, formocresol pulpotomy is preferred over calcium hydroxide pulpotomy because:
A. Formocresol is a strong bactericide
B. Internal resorption is not found
C. The entire pulpal tissue is devitalized and fixed
D. Deposition of secondary dentin is faster and thicker

# The cotton pellet applied to the pulpal stumps in the formocresol pulpotomy technique should be:
A. slightly damped with formocresol
B. saturated with formocresol
C. Left in place for 15 minutes
D. Left in place upto the second visit

# Chronic pulpal infection in primary molars is usually first noted radiographically as:
A. Periapical pathology
B. Internal root resorption
C. Changes in the bony furcation
D. Widening of the apical periodontal ligament space