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PGCEE MDS 2022: Caries risk status for a DMFT score of 4 is:

 # Caries risk status for a DMFT score of 4 is:
A. Very low
B. Low
C. Moderate
D. High


The correct answer is C. Moderate.

The World Health Organization Global Data Bank (1995) shows that out of 178 countries for which data is available 25 percent were categorized as having very low levels of dental caries (DMFT 0.0 to 1.1), 42 percent as low (DMFT 1.2 to 2.6), 30 percent as moderate (DMFT 2.7 to 4.4) and 13 percent
as high (DMFT 4.5 to 6.5) and 2.1 percent countries as very high, i.e. 6.6.

Ref: A Textbook of  Public Health Dentistry, CM Marya

PGCEE MDS 2022: Parent child relationship has been described as:

 # Parent child relationship has been described as:
A. One tailed
B. Two tailed
C. Three tailed
D. Multi tailed


The correct answer is A. One tailed.

The home is the first school where a child learns to behave. All the home individuals influence the child’s behavior but none so much as the mother, e.g. in case of a broken home, the child may feel insecure, inferior, apathic and depressed. Mother child relation- ship has been described as one-tailed.

Ref: Shobha Tandon



Mallampati Classification : PGCEE MDS 2022

 # If base of uvula and soft palate are visualized on maximal mouth opening it is referred to as Mallampati  classification:
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class IV



The correct answer is C. Class III.

Visualization of the amount of posterior pharynx is important and correlates with the difficulty of intubation. Visualization of the pharynx can be obscured by the tongue, which also interferes with visualization of the larynx on laryngoscopy. 

The Mallampati classification is based on the structures visualized with maximal mouth opening and tongue protrusion in a sitting position.
Class I: Soft palate, fauces, uvula, and pillars are visualized
Class II: Soft palate, fauces, and a portion of uvula are visualized
Class III: Soft palate, the base of the uvula is visualized.
Class IV: Only the hard palate is visualized

PGCEE MDS 2022: Behavior modification is based on the principle of:

 # Behavior modification is based on the principle of:
A. Cognitive theory
B. Classical conditioning theory
C. Social learning theory
D. Operant conditioning theory


The correct answer is C. Social learning theory.

Behavior shaping is a form of behavior modification technique based on principles of social learning. It is the procedure that slowly develops desired behavior. The behavior-shaping techniques are:
• Desensitization (TSD)
• Modelling
• Contingency management

PGCEE MDS 2022: The largest component of gutta percha cones is:

 # The largest component of gutta percha cones is:
a) Gutta percha 
b) Zinc oxide
c) Resins and waxes 
d) Coloring agents


The correct answer is B. Zinc oxide.

Composition of gutta percha cones:
(Constituent - Percentage of constituent - Function)
Gutta percha - 20% - Matrix
Zinc oxide - 66% - Filler
Heavy metal sulfates (Bismuth sulphates) - 11% - Radio opacifier
Waxes or resins - 3% - Plasticizer

PGCEE MDS 2022: CSF rhinorrhea is due to:

 # CSF rhinorrhea is due to:
A. Nasal fracture
B. Guerin’s fracture
C. Dural tear
D. Condylar fracture


The correct answer is C. Dural tear.

CSF rhinorrhoea is the result of a dural tear associated with a fracture of the cribriform plate of the ethmoid in Lefort II and III fractures. Cerebrospinal Otorrhoea is due to a fracture of the petrous part of the temporal bone.

CSF mixed with blood produces a double ring (Tramline effect) if dropped on a hospital sheet or pillow.

PGCEE MDS 2022: Extraoral Causes of Halitosis

 # A person has problem of bad odor of mouth. His gingiva is healthy. Other possible cause for this could be:
a) Indigestion 
b) Chronic sinusitis
c) Alcohol intake 
d) Diabetes mellitus


The correct answer is B. Chronic sinusitis.

ENT causes of halitosis include acute pharyngitis, chronic sinusitis and post nasal drip.