Skip to main content

MCQs in Microbiology - Virology Part 2

The correct answers are highlighted in green.

# The classic opportunistic infection in acquired immune deficiency syndrome is: (KAR-2000)
a) Aphthous stomatitis
b) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
c) Herpetic gingivostomatitis
d) Tuberculosis

# In which of the following immunization is given after infection is started: (AP-2004)
a) Influenza
b) Poliomyelitis
c) Herpes
d) Rabies


# Presence of HBe Ag in patients with hepatitis indicates -
a) Carrier status
b) Late Convalescence
c) Simple carriers
d) High infectivity

# True about HIV are all except -
a) Decrease CD4 count in late stages
b) Macrophages are the reservoir
c) DNA virus
d) Attacks CD4 cells

# The HIV virus can be destroyed invitro by which of the following
a) Ethanol
b) Cidex
c) Boiling
d)All of them

# Hepatitis C virus belongs to which one of the following virus groups? (COMEDK-05)
a) Herpes viruses
b) Hepadna viruses
c) Flavi viruses
d) Picorna viruses

# Which of the following represents the serologic evidence of recent Hepatitis B virus infection during "window" period? (KAR-04)
a) None of them
b) HBs Ag
c) IgM anti - HBc
d) Anti HBs

# Baby born to mother suffering from AIDS, all are true except: (KAR-99)
a) 50% chances to have AIDS
b) Have infections
c) Failure to thrive
d) All are true

# EBV causes all except -
a) Burkitt's lymphoma
b) Carcinoma of nasopharynx
c) Infectious mononucleosis
d) Papilloma

# ELISA is: (KAR-98)
a) A name of a scientist
b) A radiologic procedure
c) A pioneer in dentistry
d) An enzymatic immune reaction

# The presence of which of the following factors in viruses makes protective vaccines a possibility: (APPSC-99)
a) Lipids
b) Polysaccharide
c) Enzymes
d) Protein coat 

# Which of the following is a RNA virus? (AP-05)
a) Papavo virus
b) Adeno virus
c) Herpes virus
d) Measles virus

# Rabies virus: (AP-2002)
a) Cytotropic
b) Dermatotropic
c) Neurotropic
d) Chromophilic

# Most common tumor associated with AIDS is(KAR-04)
a) Kaposi's sarcoma
b) Ewing's sarcoma
c) Carcinoma
d) Melanoma

# Seroconversion in HIV infection takes place in:
a) 12 weeks
b) 4 weeks
c) 9 weeks
d) 2 weeks

# Which of the following exposure carries the maximum risk of transmission of HIV:
a) Transplacental
b) Sexual intercourse
c) Needle prick
d) Blood transfusion

# Serological study for prevalence of Hepatitis B is best done by:
a) Core antigen
b) Core antibody
c) Surface antibody
d) Surface antigen

# ELISA test when compared to western blot technique is:
a) Less sensitive, less specific
b) More sensitive, more specific
c) More sensitive, less specific
d) Less sensitive, more specific

# Characteristic feature of retrovirus is: (AIPG-10)
a) Ribonuclease
b) Restriction endonuclease
c) Reverse transcriptase
d) DNA polymerase

# Which of the following does not go into chronic hepatitis stage?
a) HEV
b) HDV
c) HCV
d) HBV

# The word German Measles is applied for: (AP-08)
a) Rubella
b) Herpetic gingivostomatitis
c) Herpes simplex
d) Rubeola

# A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely etiological agent is: (AIPG-2011)
a) Hepatitis E virus
b) Hepatitis B virus
c) Hepatitis A virus
d) Hepatitis C virus

# The small non-particulate protein leading to enhanced replication of H8V as well as HIV is: (KCET-07)
a) HBs Ag
b) HBx Ag
c) Hbe Ag
d) HBc Ag

# What is the sequence, which a retro virus follows on entering a host cell?
a) RNA-DNA
b) RNA-DNA-RNA
c) DNA-RMA
d) DNA-RNA-DNA

#  Patients with organ transplants are most frequently infected with:
a) CMV
b) Hepatitis B
c) EBV
d) Hepatitis A

# The virus which causes Aplastic anemia in chronic hemolytic disease is:
a) Hepatitis
b) Parvo virus
c) Adeno
d) EB virus

# Viral action is differentiated from bacterial action by: (AIPG-07)
a) Interferon production
b) Neutrophils production
c) Toxin production
d) Lymphocytes production

# Which of the following viruses appears to be involved in the pathogenesis of Kaposi's sarcoma? (KCET-07)
a) Human Herpes Virus 8
b) Human Herpes Virus 1
c) Human Herpes Virus 4
d) Human Herpes Virus 3

# Filters used to purify air in biological safety cabinets? (AIPG-14)
a) Berkfield filters
b) Millipore/Porcelain filters
c) HEPA (High efficiency particulate air)
d) Sietz filters 

# Which of the following viruses produces both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies: (AIPG-09)
a) Measles
b) Small pox
c) Chicken pox
d) Rabies

# EBV is responsible for all except: (KAR-04)
a) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
b) Infectious mononucleosis
c) Hepatoma
d) Burkitt's lymphoma

# Commonest mode of AIDS transmission in India is by:
a) Heterosexual promiscuity
b) Homosexual promiscuity
c) IV drug abuse
d) Vertical transmission

# Type of human papilloma virus associated with carcinoma cervix:
a) Type 6,12,18
b) 16,18,31
c) 6,8,11
d) 3,10,19

# Salivary protein, which prevents transmission of human immunodeficiency virus via saliva, is: (COMEDK-2011)
a) Histidine rich proteins
b) Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
c) Secretory IgA
d) Sialoperoxidase

# Mark true in following: (AIPG-09)
a) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and feces
b) Lyssa virus is transmitted by ticks
c) None
d) Kyasanur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal.

# Kaposi's sarcoma (KS) usually occurs when CD4 Lymphocyte counts are: (COMEDK-09)
a) Between 1000-2000
b) Above 600
c) Above 2000
d) Below 200

# The only group A arbovirus causing epidemic disease in India:
a) Kyasanur forest disease
b) Chandipura
c) Chikungunya
d) Dengue

# Presence of HBe Ag in patients with hepatitis indicates:
a) High infectivity
b) Simple carriers
c) Carrier status
d) Late convalescence

# Babu, a 28 yr old male comes with complaint of exposure 3 wks back, having cervical Lymph adenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly. Diagnosis of HIV is done by:
a) Lymph node biopsy
b) P. antigen
c) ELISA
d) Western blot

# Hepatitis A virus is best diagnosed by:
a) Culture from blood
b) Isolation from stool
c) Isolation from bile
d) IgM antibodies in serum

# Which of the following belongs to cell fraction derived vaccine:
a) Mumps
b) Measles
c) Hepatitis B
d) Rubella

# Which of the following viruses are most likely to cross placenta and cause foetal defect?  (IGNOU-10)
a) Rubella
b) Papilloma
c) Herpes Simplex
d) Mumps

# Anti HBsAb indicates:
a) Resistance to hepatitis B
b) Acute infection
c) Good prognosis
d) Hepatocellular carcinoma

# A dentist suffered from Hepatitis B infection 3 months back. His laboratory tests are normal but he is not allowed by the medical board to do surgical practice. He is: (AIIMS-09)
a) Paradoxical carrier
b) Inactive carrier
c) Healthy carrier
d) Convalescent carrier

# Dengue Hemorrhagic fever is caused by: (AIPG-2011)
a) Virus
b) Bacteria
c) Bacteria superadded on virus
d) Parasite


Comments

Popular Posts

Dental MCQs - Multiple Choice Questions in Dentistry

SELECT THE TOPIC YOU WANT TO PRACTICE. # LOK SEWA  AAYOG PAST QUESTIONS Medical Entrance Preparation MCQs # Digestive System and Nutrition MCQs # Reproductive System MCQs # MCQs on Sense Organs # Nervous System MCQs # Cardiovascular System MCQs # Endocrine System MCQs # Assorted Dental MCQs - Part 1 #AIIMS MDS ENTRANCE EXAM YEARWISE COLLECTION *** AIIMS Nov 2001 *** AIIMS Nov 2002 *** AIIMS Nov 2003 *** AIIMS Nov 2004 *** AIIMS Nov 2005 *** AIIMS Nov 2006 *** AIIMS Nov 2007 Part 1 *** AIIMS Nov 2007 Part 2 *** AIIMS Nov 2008  *** AIIMS Nov 2009 *** AIIMS Nov 2010 *** AIIMS Nov 2012 *** AIIMS Nov 2013 *** AIIMS Nov 2014 *** AIIMS Nov 2015 *** AIIMS May 2016 *** AIIMS May 2015 *** AIIMS May 2014 *** AIIMS May 2013 *** AIIMS May 2012 *** AIIMS May 2011 # DENTAL MATERIALS *** Amalgams *** Physical Properties *** Metallurgy *** Impression Materials *** Dental Ceramics and Miscellaneous *** Gypsum Products *** Dental Cements *** Restorative Resin...

MCQs on Oral Histology - Development and Growth of Teeth

# The bud, cap and bell stage of the developing tooth are based on growth of the: A. Stellate reticulum B. Dental papilla C. Enamel organ D. Dental sac # Dental lamina is active up to : A. 1 year B. 2 years C. 4 years D. 5 years

MCQs on Local and General Anesthetic Agents - Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery

# Which of the following local anesthetic agent would be preferred in prolonged surgical procedure? A. Bupivacaine B. Cocaine C. Lignocaine D. Prilocaine # Which of the following is not a theory for local anesthetic action? A. Membrane expansion theory B. Calcium displacement theory C. Electrical potential theory D. Specific receptor theory E. None of the above

MCQs on Odontogenic Infections - Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery

# Trismus associated with infection of lateral pharyngeal space is related to irritation of the: A. Buccinator B. Masseter C. Lateral pterygoid D. Medial pterygoid # Garre's osteomyelitis is: A. Chronic focal sclerosis and non suppurative osteomyelitis B. Chronic focal sclerosis and suppurative osteomyelitis C. Characterized by suppuration and acute pain D. Chronic diffuse sclerosing osteomyelitis

MCQs on Complete Dentures : Impression Procedures

  Click HERE to view all our MCQ Topics. # In making a final impression for a complete denture, the most important area of the impression is : A. Ridge area of maxilla and buccal shelf of mandible B. Lingual border area of mandible C. Junction of hard and soft palate of maxilla and distolingual area of mandible D. Mid palatal area of maxilla and ridge of the mandible # The stabillity of a mandibular complete denture will be enhanced when: A. the level of occlusal plane is above the dorsum of the tongue B. the tongue rests on the occlusal surface C. the lingual contour of the denture is concave D. the posterior teeth on the denture have a broad buccolingual width

MCQs in Endodontics - Diseases of the Pulp and Periradicular Tissues

# The treatment of acute periapical abscess is: A. Endodontic therapy or extraction B. Incision and drainage only C. Pulp capping D. None of the above # Internal resorption in a tooth is seen as: A. Ca(OH)2 pulpotomy B. Replacement resorption C. Non-proliferating lesion D. Desensitizing tooth # The initial pulpal response to any insult is: A. Necrosis B. Ulceration C. Calcification D. Inflammation # Patient reports with severe throbbing pain in relation to mandibular second molar. The tooth is sensitive to both hot and cold food and elicits a painful response on percussion. What would be your treatment of choice? A. Incision and drainage of periapical area B. Endodontic therapy C. Indirect pulp capping D. Partial pulpectomy # The most important aspect of emergency treatment for an acute apical abscess is to: A. Produce sedation B. Obturation C. Establish drainage ...