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AIIMS MDS ENTRANCE PAST QUESTIONS NOV 2010


# An 8 year old child has increased horizontal anterior bone loss with premature loss of deciduous teeth. There is defective cementum and shows excretion of phosphoethanolamine in the urine. The child is suffering from:
A. Hypophosphatasia
B. Vit D resistant rickets
C. Juvenile periodontitis
D. Osteomalacia

# A 9 year old female patient with severe oraL ulceration is suffering with salivation, fever, headache and malaise. The peeling of skin of hand and sole is noted. There is increased tendency for sweating. She is also giving one month history of using a new teething gel available in the market. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. Erosive lichen planus
B. Epidermolysis bullosa
C. Acrodynia
D. Stevens Johnsons syndrome

# A constant feature associated with radicular cyst is:
A. Vital tooth
B. Non vital tooth
C. Both
D. None

# Ehler Danlos syndrome is:
A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. X linked dominant
D. X linked recessive

# Increased monocytic count is seen in typhus and which of the following conditions?
A. SABE
B. Herpes labialis
C. HIV
D. Characteristic parasitic infections

# Monocytes are seen in tuberculosis, monocytic leukemia, typhoid, and:
A. Pernicious anemia
B. Hodgkins lymphoma
C. Parasitic infection
D. Sub acute bacterial endocarditis

# Moth eaten appearance is seen in all EXCEPT:
A. Osteomyelitis
B. Haemorrhagic cyst
C. OKC
D. Osteosarcoma








# Moth eaten appearance is seen in:
A. Chronic osteomyelitis
B. Fibrous dysplasia
C. Multiple myeloma
D. Osteopetrosis

# Radiographs of 40 year old female revealed radiolucent areas around several of her mandibular teeth, all teeth which tested vital on the electric pulp tester. These areas represent:
A. Multiple granulomas
B. Periapical osteofibrosis
C. Chronic Periapical abscess
D. Bone hypoplasias associated with opalescent teeth

# Which of the following presents as radioopaque area found at the root apex of young permanent teeth involved in chronic pulpitis?
A. Apical cyst
B. Apical condensing Osteitis
C. Chronic Apical Periodontitis
D. Stage one apical osteofibrosis

# A patient shows a radiolucent area surrounding the apices of mandibular anterior teeth which are vital. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. Periapical granuloma
B. Cementoblastoma
C. Radicular cyst
D. Chronic abscess

# Which radiographic technique is best for detecting proximal carious lesion with minimum x-ray exposure?
A. Bitewing with bisecting angle technique
B. Bitewing with paralleling technique
C. Bitewing with RVG
D. Panoramic radiography

# Bisecting angle technique is based on:
A. ALARA principle
B. SLOB technique
C. Rule of isometry
D. Convergence

# A male patient aged 45 years complains of a firm, painless swelling in the anterior palate and bilaterally symmetrical heart shaped radiolucency in between the central incisors. The teeth are vital. Most probable diagnosis is:
A. Nasoalveolar cyst
B. Median palatal cyst
C. Globulomaxillary cyst
D. Nasopalatine canal cyst

# Premaxilla-premaxillary cyst:
A. Globulomaxillary cyst
B. Nasopalatine cyst
C. Incisive canal cyst
D. Nasoalveolar cyst

# The most aggressive and destructive cyst is:
A. Periapical cyst
B. Dentigerous cyst
C. Globulomaxillary cyst
D. Nasopalatine cyst

# A radiolucency seen between the maxillary central incisors is most commonly due to:
A. Periapical cyst
B. Nasopalatine cyst
C. Globulomaxillary cyst
D. Nasoalveolar cyst

# Which of the following features are of nasoalveolar cyst?
A. An ovoid shaped radiolucency above the lateral incisor and canine teeth
B. Erosion of base above lateral incisor and canine teeth
C. An inverted funnel shaped radiolucent lesion above the roots of lateral incisor and canine teeth
D. A pear shaped radiolucent lesion between roots of lateral incisor and canine teeth

# An empty cavity in the mandible with no lining is most likely to be:
A. Aneurysmal bone cyst
B. Idiopathic bone cavity
C. Dentigerous cyst
D. Keratocyst

# A vertical radiolucent line extending between maxillary central and lateral incisor represents:
A. An artifact
B. Fracture line
C. Nutrient canal
D. Sinus and fistula

# A vertical radiolucent line extending between mandibular central and lateral incisor represents:
A. An artifact
B. Fracture line
C. Nutrient canal
D. Sinus and fistula

# A thin radiolucent line which follows the root outline on X rays is:
A. Lamina dura
B. Periodontal ligament
C. Nutrient canal
D. Pulp

# Green stains found on recently erupted upper anterior teeth of a child which are not removed after brushing are due to:
A. Chromogenic bacteria
B. Neonatal line
C. Calculus
D. Materia alba

# To predict the occurrence of caries in a 6 year old child which of the following gives the best results?
A. Sibling caries
B. Mother's caries
C. Snyder's test
D. Parental caries

# Early and most reliable method to predict caries level occurrence in a child is:
A. Previous caries activity
B. Snyder's test
C. Mother's caries activity
D. Sibling's caries activity

# Color of primary teeth is lighter than permanent teeth because of:
A. Contrast with the adjacent teeth, there is light reflection
B. Difference in color of enamel
C. Difference in crystalline structure therefore there is difference in refractive index of enamel
D. Dentin underlying the enamel is thin

# Which of the following is true about the initiation of calcification of teeth?
A. Initiation of calcification of primary teeth is complete at the time of birth
B. Initiation of calcification of all primary teeth and permanent incisors complete at birth
C. Initiation of calcification of all primary and permanent teeth completes at birth except third molars
D. Calcification of primary teeth starts after birth

# Root resorption of maxillary deciduous central incisors starts by:
A. 3 years
B. 4 years
C. 5 years
D. 6 years

# Root resorption of primary incisors occurs in about:
A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 4 years
D. 5 years

# At what age root formation of deciduous and molar teeth completes?
A. 30 months
B. 36 months
C. 42 months
D. 48 months

# Histologically the dental pulp most closely resembles what type of tissue?
A. Nerve tissue
B. Vascular tissue
C. Granulation tissue
D. Loose connective tissue

# Why the acid etchant is supplied in gel form?
A. To have better control over flow
B. To get higher concentration of etchant
C. To act more rapidly on enamel surface
D. To get good taste in patient's mouth

# True about dentin conditioner is:
A. Remove smear layer
B. Increases free surface energy of dentin
C. Has low viscosity and bonds to tooth surface tubules
D. Forms a layer of resin on dentin

# What is the approximate stress caused by polymerization contraction of composite?
A. 1 MPa
B. 5 MPa
C. 15 MPa
D. 30 MPa

# A dentin primer:
A. etches the dentin
B. raises the surface free energy of dentin
C. removes the smear layer
D. bonds the composite

# How deep is the microporous layer created by `etching the enamel (in micrometers)?
A. 0.5-5
B. 5-50
C. 50-500
D. 100-500

# If a patient has gingival recession, how far should the gutta percha be trimmed back before sealing the coronal portion?
A. 1 mm below the level of recession
B. 1 mm below the ACJ
C. 1 mm below the canal opening
D. 1 mm below the roof of the pulp chamber

# If a patient has no gingival recession, how far should the gutta percha be trimmed back before sealing the coronal portion?
A. 1 mm below the level of recession
B. 1 mm below the ACJ
C. 1 mm below the canal opening
D. 1 mm below the roof of the pulp chamber

# If you choose to temporarily seal the access cavity with kalzinol, how thick should it be?
A. 1 mm
B. 2 mm
C. 3 mm
D. 4 mm

# Which of the following is the best material as temporary dressing for an access cavity after endodontic treatment is completed?
A. Life or Dycal
B. Chemfil
C. Kalzinol
D. Poly F

# On preparing the root canal with a protaper F2 file, 1 mm of the GP cone is cut so as to fit the canal with friction. The diameter of the apical region is:
A. 0.29 mm
B. 0.30 mm
C. 0.31 mm
D. 0.33 mm

# When estimating working length using a parallel technique radiograph, how much enlargement of the image is allowed?
A. None
B. 1 mm
C. 2 mm
D. 3 mm

# To obtain the estimated working length from the parallel technique radiograph, one substracts how much from the tooth image length?
A. 0 mm
B. 1 mm
C. 2 mm
D. 3 mm

# A traumatized tooth with necrotic pulp shows periapical area of rarefaction radiographically. The pulp area is closed. Viable microorganism might be cultured from the canalin approximately what percentage of cases?
A. 10 %
B. 30 %
C. 40 %
D. 80 %

# Which of the following is not a Koch postulate?
A. The bacteria should be able to be isolated from the diseased tissue.
B. When inoculated in experimental animals, bacteria may or may not cause disease
C. Pure cultures can be obtained
D. Bacteria should be able to be isolated from the diseased tissue in the experimental animals

# To identify the key microorganisms in periodontal disease, Koch's postulates have been modified by:
A. Socransky
B. Glickman
C. Russel
D. Vermillion

# According to Glickman, maximum accumulation of plaque takes place in approximately:
A. 7 days
B. 15 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days

# The bacterial density or concentration in saliva on an average is:
A. 500 million/ml
B. 87 million/ml
C. 45 million/ml
D. 750 million/ml

# After cleaning and pumicing the tooth surface plaque formation begins to form after:
A. Few minutes
B. 1.5 to 2 hour
C. 2-4 hours
D. After 1 hour

# How long does it take for bacterial plaque to form acid from fermentable carbohydrate?
A. 2-5 minutes
B. 10-15 minutes
C. 30-45 minutes
D. 1-2 hour

# After enamel has been exposed to bacteria irreversible bacterial colonization takes place in:
A. 24 hours
B. Few minutes
C. 1-2 hour
D. 2-4 hours

# The process of accumulation and growth continues till the plaque mass is approximately how much bacterial cells in thickness?
A. 12
B. 50
C. 72
D. 100

# The depth of clinical gingival sulcus is the distance between the gingival margin to the:
A. Cementoenamel junction
B. Alveolar crest
C. Apical extension of junctional epithelium
D. Apical penetration of the probe

# Which of the following conditions require gingivoplasties as it creates gingival defects?
A. ANUG
B. Desquamative gingivitis
C. Erosive lichen planus
D. Acute Herpetic Gingivostomatitis

# A periodontal pocket of 8 mm deep having the junctional epithelium coronal to CE junction?
A. An infrabony pocket
B. A pseudopocket
C. A true periodontal pocket
D. A furcation involvement

# Severe alveolar bone loss is seen in patients with juvenile periodontitis is related to:
A. Impaired osteoblastic activity
B. Increased phagocytosis
C. Increased macrophage migration
D. Impaired neutrophil chemotaxis

# Which of the following organism is not implicated in etiology of periodontal disease?
A. Bacteroides
B. Wollinella
C. Neisseria
D. Eikenella

# A 9 year old child having carious maxillary lateral incisor got small swelling over the respective area. In 48 hours, the swelling enlarged and reached the lower border of the eye, very sensitive to touch and hot, painful to the touch stimuli. The lymph node is palpable and he has little fever, the swelling rebounds on pressure. The recommended treatment is:
A. Antibiotic and hot fomentation
B. Incision and drainage
C. Injection of sclerosing unit
D. Application of pressure bandage

# A patient on steroid therapy has to undergo elective extraction of many teeth. The premedication indicated prior to surgical procedure is:
A. NSAIDS
B. Antibiotics
C. Antihistamines
D. Antihypertensives

# In bilateral parasymphyseal fractures of the mandible the fractured segment is displaced posteriorly under the influence of:
A. Anterior belly of digastric, geniohyoid and genioglossus
B. Masseter, medial pterygoid and lateral pterygoid
C. Buccinator, anterior and posterior belly of digastric
D. Genioglossus, geniohyoid and posterior belly of digastric

# Most common cause of pulmonary embolism:
A. Thrombophlebitis
B. Endarteritis
C. Atherosclerosis
D. Lymphangitis

# A middle aged female patient has eyes widely placed, sparse hair, increased systolic BP, increased pulse pressure, weight loss and nervousness. She may be suffering from:
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Hyperparathyroidism
D. Hypopituitarism

# While giving epidural nerve block by median approach which of the following ligaments are not encountered in the midline?
A. Supraspinous ligament
B. Interspinous ligament
C. Posterior longitudinal
D. Ligamentum flavum

# All of the following are true about standard error of mean EXCEPT:
A. It is mean of samples based on normal distribution
B. It is calculated from standard deviation of mean
C. Used to estimate confidence limit
D. Standard error increases with size of sample

# Which of the following is an impact indicator for evaluation of ASHAS performance?
A. Number of ASHAS trained
B. Number of ASHAS attending review meeting every year
C. Infant mortality rate
D. Percentage of deliveries with skilled assistance

# Which of the following statements is true about ASHA?
A. Mental health worker
B. Involved in minimum need program
C. Deployed 1 per thousand population
D. To replace anganwadi workers in ICDS program

# True about ASHA are all EXCEPT:
A. One per 1000 rural population
B. Mobilizer of antenatal care
C. Female voluntary worker
D. Skilled birth attendant

# Which of the following is true about Z score?
A. Normal distribution
B. Binomial distribution
C. Chi square test
D. Non parametric method

# Midline cerebellar lesions manifests as all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Incoordinate posture and gait
B. Decomposition of movements
C. Titubation of head and neck
D. Nystagmus

# Hyponatremia with increased total body sodium is seen in:
A. Nephrotic Syndrome
B. Vomitting
C. Diuresis therapy
D. Renal tubular acidosis

# The most common gene defect in idiopathic steroid resistant nephrotic syndrome:
A. ACE
B. NPHS2
C. HOX11
D. PAX

# A patient presents with following parameters pH 7.6. The pCO2 is 30 mm Hg and HCO3 is 20 mEq/L. Which of the following correctly describes the compensatory mechanism?
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Metabolic acidosis

# Geniculate neuralgia is the uncommon neuralgia associated with:
A. Trigeminal nerve
B. Facial nerve
C. Optic nerve
D. Vagus nerve

# Which nerve pierces between the lateral pterygoids to supply TMJ capsule?
A. Auriculotemporal nerve
B. Facial nerve
C. Masseter nerve
D. Auricular nerve

# Largest organ in the body is?
A. Heart
B. Liver
C. Kidney
D. Lung

# Largest organ in the body is:
A. Heart
B. Kidney
C. Skin
D. Liver

# Transection at mid pons level results in:
A. Apnoea
B. Hyperventilation
C. Rapid and shallow breathing
D. Apneusis

# All of the following use cAMP as second messenger EXCEPT:
A. Corticotropin
B. Dopamine
C. Glucagon
D. Vasopressin

# Stability of alveoli is maintained by:
A. Compliance of lung
B. Residual air in alveoli
C. Negative intrapleural pressure
D. Reduced surface tension by surfactant

# Transport of carbon monoxide is diffusion limited because:
A. Binds very avidly with hemoglobin
B. Diffusion coefficient of CO is less in water
C. CO is less absorbed in water
D. Alveolar membrane is less permeable

# Tubuloglomerular feedback occurs due to:
A. ADH secretion in collecting duct
B. Maintain a constant solute load on distal tubule
C. Aldosterone secretion
D. Balance between ascending and descending loop of Henle

# The fastest conducting and largest diameter fibers are:
A. Alpha fibers
B. Beta fibers
C. C fibers
D. Delta fibers

# Glucose transporter in monocyte stimulated by insulin is:
A. GLUT 1
B. GLUT 2
C. GLUT 3
D. GLUT 4

# Which of these liver enzymes is basically a mitochondrial enzyme?
A. SGPT (ALT)
B. SGOT (AST)
C. GGT
D. Alkaline phosphatase

# Dyslipidemia can be diagnosed by:
A. Total cholesterol level
B. Triglycerides/Cholesterol ratio
C. LDL/HDL ratio
D. Apo A1

# Infective form for mosquito in Plasmodium falciparum is:
A. Merozoites
B. Sporozoites
C. Gametocytes
D. Trophozoites

# In transmission of malaria, mosquito bite transfers:
A. Sporozoite
B. Merozoite
C. Hypnozoite
D. Gametocyte

# Exoerythrocytic stage is absent in:
A. Plasmodium ovale
B. Plasmodium vivax
C. Plasmodium falciparum
D. Plasmodium malariae

# Plasmodium falciparum infection of man characterized by:
A. The erythrocytes are increased in size
B. All stages of erythrocytic schizont on peripheral blood
C. Multiple infection of erythrocytes are seen
D. Each erythrocytic cycle lasts 72 hours

# About Pseudomonas all are true EXCEPT:
A. Strict aerobes
B. Can grow in disinfectants in hospitals
C. Infection is mainly due to endogenous source
D. Most common organism in burn patients

# About bacteroides all are true EXCEPT:
A. Susceptible to many antibiotics
B. Present mainly in mixed infections
C. Most common species in B. fragilis
D. Bile resistant anaerobes

# All of the following are true about Staphylococcus lugdunensis EXCEPT:
A. It is a normal skin commensal
B. It causes native valve endocarditis
C. It is susceptible to multiple types of antimicrobials
D. Some strains do not secrete coagulase

# Sickle cell anemia is due to:
A. Nonsense mutation of beta chain
B. Missense mutation of beta chain
C. Deletion of beta chain
D. None of the above

# Malignant epithelial cells have increased number of wider distribution of which of the following receptors?
A. IL-1
B. Laminin
C. Histamine
D. Complement

# Cytokines and interleukins are secreted by:
A. Plasma cells
B. Macrophages
C. Lymphocytes
D. Platelets

# IL-1 is secreted by:
A. Activated macrophages
B. Lymphocytes
C. Plasma cells
D. PMN

# Interleukin primarily acts on:
A. T lymphocyte
B. B lymphocyte
C. Neutrophils
D. Macrophages

# IL-2 is secreted by:
A. CD4 lymphocytes
B. CD8 cells
C. Macrophages
D. Neutrophils

# IL-2 is produced by:
A. T cells
B. B cells
C. Monocytes
D. Neutrophils

# Cachectin is produced by:
A. Neutrophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Macrophages
D. Basophils

# Anti pseudomonal cephalosporin is:
A. Cefoperazone
B. Cefuroxime
C. Cefadroxil
D. Cefoxitin

# Overdose of heparin is treated by:
A. Protamine sulphate
B. Copper sulphate
C. Cellulose sulphate
D. 4-dextran sulphate

# True about penicillin G is:
A. Mainly excreted by kidney
B. Acid resistant
C. Broad spectrum antibiotic
D. Resistance to penicillinase

# Steal phenomenon in cerebral ischemia is shown by:
A. Thiopentone
B. Enflurane
C. Isoflurane
D. All of the above

# Reverse steal phenomenon in cerebral ischemia is caused by:
A. Barbiturate
B. Benzodiazepine
C. Opioid
D. Isoflurane

# Coronary steal phenomenon is seen with:
A. Thiopentone
B. Enflurane
C. Isoflurane
D. All

# Which of the following is associated with thiazide therapy?
A. Impotency
B. Gynecomastia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Ototoxicity

# Loading dose depends on:
A. Volume of distribution
B. Clearance
C. Rate of distribution
D. Half life

# Lesions of lateral cerebellum causes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Incoordination
B. Intentional tremors
C. Resting tremor
D. Ataxia

# Which of the following investigation should be done immediately to best confirm a non matched blood transfusion reaction?
A. Indirect coomb test
B. Direct coomb test
C. Antibody in patients serum
D. Antibody in donor serum

# All are correct regarding WIDAL test except:
A. Baseline titres differ depending on endemicity of the disease
B. High titre value in a single widal test is not confirmative
C. O antibody lasts longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
D. H antibody cannot differentiate between types

# Diagnosis of typhoid in the first week is by:
A. Widal test
B. Stool test
C. Urine culture
D. Blood culture

# In a patient with typhoid, diagnosis after 15 days of onset of fever is best done by:
A. Blood culture
B. Widal test
C. Stool culture
D. Urine culture

# A 24 year old cook in a hostel mess suffered from enteric fever 2 years back. The chronic carrier state in this patient can be diagnosed by:
A. Vi agglutination test
B. Blood culture in brain heart infusion broth
C. Widal test
D. None of the above

# Most immunogenic in typhoid is:
A. H antigen
B. O antigen
C. Vi antigen
D. Somatic antigen

# All of the following statements about Staphylococcus aureus are true EXCEPT:
A. Most common source of infection is cross infection from infected people
B. About 30% of population is healthy nasal carriers
C. Epidermolysis and Toxic shock syndrome TSS toxins are super antigen
D. Methicillin resistance is chromosomal mediated

# Which of the following sympathomimetic drug is a peripheral vasoconstrictor?
A. Norepinephrine
B. Epinephrine
C. Phenylephrine
D. Methenamine

# Infectious mononucleosis is caused by:
A. CMV
B. EBV
C. Herpes virus
D. Coxsackie virus

# Monospot test is used to diagnose:
A. Pernicious anemia
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Leukemia

# Infectious mononucleosis has:
A. Multiple draining sinuses
B. Ulcers which bruise easily
C. Palatal perforation
D. Alveolar bone loss

# Oral manifestations of infectious mononucleosis is most commonly:
A. Bluish red spots opposite maxillary molar
B. Pseudomembrane on gingiva
C. Pinpoint petechiae on the palate
D. Gingival hyperplasia

# Which of the following diseases is known as the 'kissing disease'?
A. AIDS
B. Infectious mononucleosis
C. Primary syphilis
D. Recurrent aphthous stomatitis

# Clinical features of infectious mononucleosis:
A. Glandular involvement
B. Febrile
C. Palatine petechiae
D. All of the above

# Which of the following disease is caused by saliva exchange?
A. HIV infection
B. Hepatitis B
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Herpes zoster

# Patient comes with pain in pharyngeal region and is having carcinoma of the nasopharynx, the diagnosis is:
A. Horner syndrome
B. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia
C. Trotters syndrome
D. Frey syndrome

# To prevent sensitivity caused by acid etching and to protect pulp in deep cavities, which of the following should be used?
A. Calcium hydroxide liner
B. Zinc oxide Eugenol
C. Light cure GIC liner
D. Lining with varnish

# In root fracture of apical one third of permanent anterior teeth, the teeth usually:
A. Discolor rapidly
B. Remain in function and are vital
C. Undergo pulpal necrosis and become ankylosed
D. Are indicated for extraction and prosthetic replacement

# Antanalgesia is characteristic of:
A. Thiopentone
B. Etiodomate
C. Propofol
D. Ketamine

# One common radiographic finding in clinical gingivitis is:
A. Vertical bone loss
B. Normal bone pattern
C. Horizontal bone loss
D. Increased bone density

# Recommended etching time for deciduous teeth is:
A. 15-30 secs
B. 30-60 secs
C. 60-90 secs
D. 90-120 secs

# While etching enamel of permanent teeth, how long acid etchant should be placed?
A. 25 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 15 seconds
D. 20 seconds

# While etching dentin of permanent teeth, how long acid etchant should be placed?
A. 25 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 15 seconds
D. 20 seconds

# The most common local cause of malocclusion is:
A. Premature exfoliation of deciduous maxillary central incisors
B. Prolonged retention of primary teeth
C. Ankylosis of permanent teeth
D. Impaction of permanent teeth

# Prolonged retention of primary teeth:
A. Result in ankylosis of permanent teeth
B. Result in resorption of root of adjacent teeth
C. Result in ectopic eruption of permanent tooth
D. All of the above

# Premature exfoliation of a primary canine may indicate:
A. An arch length excess
B. An arch length deficiency
C. A skeletal malocclusion
D. None of the above



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