Opening of submandibular gland duct:

 # The opening of submandibular gland duct into oral cavity is at:

A. Maxillary Second molar

B. Mandibular third molar

C. Dorsum of tongue

D. Sublinugual caruncle

The correct answer is D. Sublingual caruncle.

Submandibular duct or Warthin's duct is 5 cm long, emerges from submandibular gland and in its course runs on the hyoglossus between lingual and hypoglossal nerve and opens at the sublingual papilla at the side of frenum of tongue.

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All Ceramic Restorations

 # Which of the following is the BEST way to avoid porcelain failure in all-ceramic restorations?

A. Rounded angles of the preparation

B. Minimal occlusal forces

C. Porcelain is 3.5mm thick

D. Porcelain is not more than 0.5mm thick 

The correct answer is A. Rounded angles of the preparation.

All ceramic restorations should include rounded angles in the tooth preparation in order to reduce stress concentration along these areas. Sharp angles within tooth preparations are areas where stress is concentrated, and may cause fracturing.

Porcelain thickness is also an important factor in its fracture toughness. All porcelain crowns should have a minimum thickness of 1mm circumferentially and about 1.5mm along the occlusal/ incisal to

achieve strength (Not including the framework of the restoration).

Proper case selection and occlusal load analysis is also an important factor in preventing failure of an all ceramic restoration. 

Abutment teeth in a fixed partial denture

 # What is the primary reason why dentists splint adjacent abutment teeth in a fixed partial denture?

A. Improve spacing mesiodistally

B. Stabilize abutment teeth

C. Improve embrasure contours

D. Improve the distribution of the occlusal load 

The correct answer is D. Improve the distribution of the occlusal load 

Abutment teeth are included in fixed partial dentures to provide retention and help disperse the occlusal load placed on the restoration.

Abutment teeth provides support and stability to the pontic.

Abutment teeth allows better distribution of the occlusal forces acting on all teeth and pontic in the fixed partial denture.

Packing the acrylic during the rubbery stage

# When fabricating dentures, what would be the most likely outcome if the lab compressed/packed the acrylic during the rubbery stage?

A. Higher porosity than normal

B. A lot of extra resin being attached to the denture that will take a long time to trim

C. Incomplete picking up of anatomical details

D. The denture would have an increased VDO 

The correct answer is C. Incomplete picking up of anatomical details

Packing and compressing acrylic during denture fabrication should be done in its doughy stage.

The doughy stage is the ideal for packing acrylic resin because it is the moment when acrylic is most packable and workable.

The rubbery stage of acrylic denotes the start of the setting when heat is released from the setting acrylic.

Rubbery acrylic also has a tendency to revert back to its original position regardless of the forces applied to it during packing, resulting in incomplete packing.

VDO (Vertical Dimension of Occlusion) is synonymous with OVD (Occlusal Vertical Dimension) and is the relationship of the maxilla and mandible when the teeth are in maximum intercuspation. 

 

Chronic Lymphocytic thyroiditis refers to:

# Chronic Lymphocytic thyroiditis refers to:

a) Tuberculous thyroiditis 

b) Hashimoto's thyroiditis

c) Dequervain's thyroiditis 

d) Riedel's thyroiditis

The correct answer is B. Hashimoto's Thyroiditis.

Hashmimoto's thyroiditis:

• Most common type of thyroiditis

• Autoimmune; raised titres of thyroid antibodies.

• Mild hyperthyroidism may be present initially but hypothyroidism is inevitable.

• Characteristic 'bosselated' feel with soft, rubbery or firm in consistency; Hurthle cells present.

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MCQs on Oral Pre-cancer and Oral Cancer - Oral Medicine and Radiology

# The current “gold standard” for predicting the malignant potential of the precancerous lesions is the:
A. presence & degree of dysplasia
B. presence of candidal hyphae
C. presence of red areas in the lesion
D. site of the lesions

# Which of the following viruses is not an oncovirus?
A. Herpes Simplex Virus
B. Human Papilloma Virus
C. Varicella zoster Virus
D. Epstein Barr Virus

# Which type of inflammatory cells predominate in the infiltrate of invasive carcinoma?
A. Monocyte
B. T lymphocyte
C. CD 8 lymphocyte
D. Langerhan's cell

# The fixation of lymph nodes to adjacent tissues in cases of malignancy is due to:
A. Secondary infection
B. protective mechanism of body
C. invasion of malignant cells through capsule
D. matting of lymph nodes

# Which of the following is not a Tumor suppressor gene?
A. p53
B. p161NK4A
C. bcl – 2
D. FHIT (fragile histidine triad)

# A tumor classified as T1 N2 M0 belongs to which stage?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4

# Which is the preferred method of biopsy in case of a malignant involvement of lymph node?
A. Fine needle aspiration
B. Incisional biopsy
C. Excisional biopsy
D. No biopsy

# Leukoplakia in which of the following sites poses high risk comparatively?
A. Gingiva
B. Buccal mucosa
C. Floor of the mouth
D. Palate

# Which of the following statements is true regarding the effects of hyperfractionation of radiation therapy?
A. Chronic complications are more
B. Acute complications are more
C. Acute complications are more & chronic complications are less
D. Both, acute & chronic complications are less

# Which of the following tumors are highly sensitive to radiation therapy?
A. Well differentiated squamous cell carcinoma
B. Malignant lesion with bone invasion
C. Mucosal lesions
D. Lesions with extensive node involvement

# Which of the statements given below is true?
A. Leukoplakia in nonsmokers has a greater risk for malignant transformation than leukoplakia of smokers
B. Alcohol consumption alone can be associated with an increased risk of developing leukoplakia
C. Invasion of dysplastic epithelial cells is seen in basement membrane zone in Carcinoma in situ
D. Verrucous leukoplakia is usually seen in older adults


# Which of the following investigative procedures is gold standard for achieving the diagnosis in case of a oral leukoplakia?
A. Toluidine blue staining
B. Brush biopsy
C. Cytosmear
D. Biopsy

# Choose the correct sequence. The risk of malignant conversion of oral leukoplakias in decreasing order is:
A. Homogenous – verrucous – speckled
B. Verrucous – homogenous – speckled
C. Speckled – homogenous – verrucous
D. Speckled – verrucous – homogenous

# Bowen?s disease mimics which of the following lesions
A. Erythroplakia
B. Leukoplakia
C. Verrucous carcinoma
D. Traumatic keratosis

# Erythroplakic lesion of oral cavity mimics all of the following lesions except:
A. Denture stomatitis
B. Vascular lesion
C. Syphilitic patch
D. Inflammatory lesion

# Which of the following diseases has the highest malignant transformation rate?
A. Leukoplakia
B. Erythroplakia
C. Oral Lichen planus
D. Oral submucous fibrosis

# Widely accepted etiological factor in case of oral submucous fibrosis is:
A. Areca Nut
B. Tobacco
C. Chillies
D. Vitamin deficiency

# Which of the following is not a premalignant condition?
A. Oral lichen planus
B. Oral submucous fibrosis
C. Xeroderma pigmentosum
D. Cheilitis granulomatosa

# Exposure to ultraviolet rays, particularly from sun light causes all of the following lesions except:
A. Basal cell carcinoma
B. Actinic keratosis
C. Adenoid cystoc carcinoma
D. Malignant melanoma

# Which of the following is an antioxidant that is used in the chemoprevention of oral cancer?
A. Iron
B. Bleomycin
C. Methotrexate
D. Selenium

# Which stage of syphilis is a pre-disposing condition to oral cancer?
A. Primary stage
B. Secondary stage
C. Tertiary stage
D. Syphilis is not a predisposing condition to oral cancer

# Malignant transformation rate of oral leukoplakia globally is:
A. 18 - 20 %
B. 3 - 6 %
C. 0 - 1 %
D. 0.5 - 0.1 %

# Presence of multiple pre-malignant lesions in oral cavity is aptly called as:
A. Premalignant condition
B. Field cancerization
C. Immunocompromised
D. Premalignant syndrome

# “Ebbing tide type” leukoplakias are described in which part of oral cavity?
A. Buccal Mucosa
B. Gingiva
C. Vestibule
D. Floor of mouth

# “Eliptical rima Oris” is a clinical feature of:
A. Oral Submucous fibrosis
B. Oral lichen planus
C. Oral cancer
D. Oral erythroplakia

# Spindle cell carcinoma is also known as Carcino-sarcoma because:
A. it is a combination of carcinoma & sarcoma
B. Sarcoma occurs in a carcinomatous tissue later
C. presence of Spindle shaped cells gives false appearance of sarcoma
D. it is a lesion which can metastasize in both blood & lymphatics

# In vital staining technique using toluidine blue for detection of oral precancer & cancer __________ acid is used.
A. 4% hydrochloric acid
B. 1% Sulphuric acid
C. 1% Acetic acid
D. 10% Formic acid

# Which of the following variety of oral cancer has slow growth & rarely metastasizes?
A. Verrucous carcinoma
B. Melanocarcinoma
C. Adenocarcinoma
D. Carcinosarcoma

# Which are the two more parameters that were later added to TNM system of staging?
A. Age and sex
B. Age and Site
C. Site and pathology
D. Sex and pathology

# One of the following clinical features is not seen in Oral sub mucous fibrosis:
A. Xerostomia
B. Pain in ear
C. Excessive salivation
D. Enlarged uvula

# “Ribbon like” epithelium is seen in which of the following diseases histopathologically?
A. Oral Lichen planus
B. Oral Submucous Fibrosis
C. Verrucous carcinoma
D. Leukoplakia

# Deficiency of which vitamin can induce metaplasia & keratinisation of certain epithelial structures leading to oral leukoplakias?
A. Vit. A
B. Vit. C
C. Vit. D
D. Vit. K

# Muscle degeneration is seen which of the following precancerous conditions?
A. Lichen planus
B. Oral submucous fibrosis
C. Discoid Lupus erythematosus
D. Xerostomia pigmentosum

# In radiation therapy, deep seated lesions are usually irradiated with:
A. X ray photon
B. Electron
C. Neutron
D. Proton

# Radioisotopes are used in which of the following treatment procedures of cancer?
A. Teletherapy
B. Chemotherapy
C. Brachytherapy
D. Immunotherapy

# Most of the ____________ carcinomas of oro-facial region spread by local infiltration, or perineural invasion or hematogenous spread and less commonly through lymphatics.
A. Melano
B. Adeno
C. Basal
D. Neuro

# Which of the following adeno-carcinomas have a capsule?
A. Acinic cell carcinoma
B. Clear cell carcinoma
C. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
D. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

# Which of the following malignancies has the highest incidence of metastasizing to jaws?
A. Thyroid
B. Breast
C. Prostate
D. Renal

# Intra epithelial carcinoma is a:
A. Pre-cancerous lesion
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Lesion which can metastasize to different epithelia
D. Aggressive lesion

# Chemotherapy is used to treat oral malignancies in:
A. order to cure the lesion completely
B. advanced disease & recurrent tumors
C. order to control primary tumor
D. adjuvant with immunotherapy

MCQs in Endodontics - Disinfection and Obturation

# Obturation of a root canal should achieve:
A. Tug back
B. Hermetic seal
C. Fluid free seal
D. All of the above

# The purpose of a root canal sealer is to:
A. seal the tubules of the dentine
B. stimulate healing in periapical region
C. prevent discoloration
D. fill the space between solid core material and pulp canal walls

MCQs in Periodontology - Periodontal Instrumentation

# All of the following are contraindications for root planing except:
A. deficient or overhanging margins of amalgam restorations
B. erosion and/or abrasion
C. recession
D. root caries

# While sharpening curettes and sickles, the internal angle of ________ must be preserved between the face and lateral surface.
A. 50-60
B. 60-70
C. 70-80
D. 80-90

How to take care of your child's teeth ?

Though we all are aware of the fact that prevention is better and cheaper than cure and it is prudent to take preventive measures in health care rather than curing once we are afflicted by the disease, we seldom apply that in our practice. It is good to see that people are oriented more towards preventive measures and have started to get regular health check up and dental check ups these days. Even the children are getting more care than they used to get in the past, may be because of awareness, availability of health care facilities, or rise in the economic standard of the households. People may not have idea about how they should take care of their child's teeth even if they are willing to. This short article attempts to address the concerns of such parents.

1. When should the first dental visit be?

This is a common question people are unsure about. When should they take their children to the dentist ? The first dental visit should be at around the time of eruption of first deciduous teeth (i.e. 6 months) and not later than 1 year of age of the baby. If your child has teeth since birth (natal teeth) or if a tooth erupts within one month of birth (neonatal teeth), that may traumatize the delicate gums of the opposite arch. You need to check that on your own and consult a dentist if necessary. If your child has got cleft lip and palate since birth, the repair should be done as soon as possible consulting a oral and maxillofacial surgeon.

MCQs in Oral Radiology - Biological Effects of Radiation

# Which of the following are most sensitive to X ray?
A. Tooth buds and salivary glands
B. Nerve and muscle tissue
C. Hair and nails
D. Cartilage

# The most radiosensitive cells in the body are:
A. Endothelial cells
B. Epithelial cells
C. Red blood cells
D. White blood cells

MCQs in Periodontology - Gingivitis

# A thin bluish line around the gingival margin is due to the absorption of:
A. Silver
B. Mercury
C. Drugs like Tetracycline
D. Lead

# McCall's festoons are:
A. also called Stillman's clefts
B. due to poor oral hygiene
C. Congenital abnormality
D. Due to trauma from occlusion

MCQs on Growth and Development - Orthodontics

# Growth site of the mandible is in the :

A. Body
B. Condylar cartilage
C. Coronoid process
D. Ramus

# Maxilla develops by :
A. Endochondral bone formation
B. Intramembranous bone formation
C. cartilage replacement and intramembranous bone formation
D. mostly cartilage replacement and a little by intramembranous

MCQs on Etiology of Malocclusion - Orthodontics

# Malocclusion can be progressive in:
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Combination of both class I and Class III

# Retained mandibular deciduous central incisors will result in:
A. Lingual eruption of mandibular permanent incisors
B. Labial eruption of mandibular permanent incisors
C. Impaction of mandibular permanent incisors
D. Ankylosis of mandibular permanent incisors

MCQs on Development of Dentition - Orthodontics

# In children, median diastema between maxillary permanent incisors closes with the eruption of:
A. Maxillary permanent first premolars
B. Maxillary permanent lateral incisors
C. Maxillary permanent canines
D. Maxillary permanent second molars

# The average "Leeway space" available in each half of the maxilla is approximately:
A. 0.9 mm
B. 2.9 mm
C. 4.0 mm
D. 6.9 mm

MCQs on Child Psychology - Pedodontics

# Most realistic approach in managing a difficult child in dental clinic is:
A. Disregard the behavior of child
B. Make child familiar with clinical atmosphere
C. Physical methods to make child accept the treatment
D. None of the above

# Hand over mouth exercise (HOME) is effective behavioral modification technique in the age group of:
A. 3 to 6 years
B. Under 3 years
C. 6 to 9 years
D. Above 9 years

MCQs on Removable Partial Dentures : Introduction and Classification

# Class IV Kennedy classification is:
A. Bilateral edentulous area located posterior to the remaining natural teeth
B. Unilateral edentulous area located posterior to the remaining natural teeth
C. Unilateral edentulous area with natural teeth remaining both anterior and posterior to it
D. A single but bilateral (crossing the midline) edentulous area located anterior to the remaining natural teeth

# A distal extension partial denture receives its support :
A. From terminal abutments
B. Equally from abutments and the residual ridges
C. Mostly from residual ridge
D. Exclusively from residual ridge

BDS VIVA Questions - CNS, MSK and Special Senses - Annual Exam 2017

BDS Annual Examination 2017

VIVA Questions

CNS, MSK & Special Senses

SET B

    Anatomy:

a.     Name the type of fibres present in corpus callosum.          (2)

b.    What is Bell’s Palsy? Mention its clinical features.               (2)

c.     What is pterion? Mention its clinical significance.                (2)

d.    What are the structures found in internal acoustic meatus?            (2)

e.    What are intrinsic muscles of eye?                                 (2)

MBBS / BDS Medical Entrance Examination - MCQs on Sense Organs

# Acoustic spot in each ampulla of human ear is known as:
A. Otolith
B. Organ of Corti
C. Crista
D. Macula

# In internal ear, sensory pathces are situated in:
A. membranous labyrinth
B. cochlea
C. stapedial plate
D. Fenestra ovalis

MCQs on Oral Manifestations of Systemic Diseases

# Delayed eruption of at least part of the dentition is a recognized feature of all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Rickets
B. Congenital Hyperthyroidism
C. Cleidocranial Dysplasia
D. Cherubism

# A five year old child presents with chronic bed wetting and bilateral loose deciduous first molars. His mother says that he wants to drink water several times during each night. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Hand-Schuller-Christian Disease
B. Marble bone Disease
C. Niemann Pick Disease
D. Polyostotic Fibrous Dysplasia

Oral Pathology MCQs - Viral Infections

# The feature that distinguishes Herpes Zoster from other Vesiculobullous eruptions is :
A. Unilateral occurence
B. Severe burning pain
C. Prominent crusting vesicles
D. Subepidermal bullous formation

# A 3 year old child has a fever of 102 degrees F ; and following upper respiratory tract infection discrete vesicles and ulcers on the soft palate and pharynx are noted. The most probable diagnosis is :
A. Herpangina
B. Scarlet fever
C.Rubella
D. Herpetic gingivostomatitis

# Intra nuclear inclusions detected during the course of Herpes simplex virus infection are called:
A. Bacteriophages
B. Lipschutz bodies
C. Negri bodies
D. Donovan bodies

# Coxsackie virus causes:
A. Infectious mononucleosis
B. Lymphoma
C. Herpangina
D. Herpes

# Koplik spots :
A. first manifestation of measles
B. rarely seen in measles
C. are seen 2-3 days after cutaneous rashes
D. is first manifestation but seldom seen

# Recurrent ulcers occuring on gingiva and palate are most probably:
A. Aphthous ulcers
B. Herpes simplex
C. Koplik spots
D. Lesions of Behcet's syndrome

# Which of the following is associated with HIV infection ?
A. Hairy Leukoplakia
B. Erythroplakia
C. Oral Lichen Planus
D. Bullous Pemphigoid

# Primary herpetic lesions involving the gingiva are most likely to occur during ages:
A. 1-5 years
B. 6-12 years
C. 13-16 years
D. They are likely to occur at any ages

# Inflammation of the dorsal root ganglion and vesicular eruption of the skin and mucous membrane in area supplied by a sensory nerve that is affected is characteristic of :
A. Herpes Zoster
B. Herpes Simplex
C. Uveoparotid fever
D. Aphthous stomatitis


# Mumps is caused by :
A. Orthomyxo virus
B. Paramyxo virus
C. Rheno virus
D. EB virus

# The reason why most patients suffering from recurrent Herpes labialis rarely give a history of having acute form of the Herpetic gingivostomatitis is because:
A. Etiological agents differ
B. The acute form occurs only in severely immunocompromised individuals
C. The primary infection was subclinical
D. The patient has received antibodies during intrauterine life and the antibodies have persisted

# In Herpes, primary lesion is:
A. Ulcer
B. Papule
C. vesicle
D. Bullae

# Which of the following medications shortens the recovery period of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis?
A. Acyclovir
B. Zidovudine
C. Kenalog in Orabase
D. All of the above

# The cranial nerve involved in Ramsay Hunt Syndrome is :
A. Trigeminal
B. Facial
C. Glossopharyngeal
D. Occulomotor

# All about Herpangina are false EXCEPT:
A. May lead to high grade fever
B. May cause dysphagia
C. May lead to vesicles formation in anterior part of mouth around 20-30 in number
D. Anterior portion of mouthhave only minor vesicles

# Herpetiformis vesicles, which rupture and leave areas of superficial intraoral ulcers are caused by:
A. Varicella Zoster Virus
B. Herpes Zoster Virus
C. Coxsackie Virus
D. None of the above