# Tumor which shows origin from more than one germ layers is known as:

# Tumor which shows origin from more than one germ layers is known as:
A. Teratoma
B. Pleomorphic Tumors
C. Choristoma
D. Hamartoma

The Correct Answer is A. Teratoma
Teratomas are complex tumors composed of tissues derived from more than one of the three germ layers - endoderm, mesoderm and ectoderm.

Hamartoma is a mass of disorganized but mature cells indigenous to the particular site.



# Which of the following tumors is most aggressive? (AIPG 91, AIIMS 2004)

# Which of the following tumors is most aggressive? (AIPG 91, AIIMS 2004)

A. Ameloblastoma
B. Odontogenic Myxoma
C. Odontoma
D. Fibrocarcinoma

Answer: B, Odontogenic Myxoma

ODONTOGENIC MYXOMA
- Aggressive, intraosseous neoplasms derived from embryonic odontogenic mesenchyme probably arise from the dental papilla or follicular mesenchyme.

- Nearly all lesions are found in the tooth bearing areas of maxillary and mandibular bone.

- Mandibular lesions are commonly found in the premolar-molar area.

- The lesions often produce multilocular radiolucency with a "soap bubble" or "honey comb" appearance in the bone.

- Thin and extremely delicate septa of bone are often seen to course through the radiolucent area and produce a "spider-web" like or "tennis racket" like appearance.

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MCQs on Tongue - Anatomy MCQs

The correct answers are highlighted in green.

# Protrusion of tongue is brought out by (MAN - 02)
a) Genioglossus
b) Intrinsic muscles of tongue
c) Styloglossus
d) Palatoglossus

# Hypoglossal nerve supplies to all the following muscles EXCEPT (MAN - 99, AP-06)
a) Palatoglossus
b) Genioglossus
c) Hyoglossus
d) Styloglossus

# The lymphatic drainage from the tip of tongue first passes to: (MAR-98)
a) Submental nodes
b) Supra clavicular nodes
c) Sub mandibular nodes
d) Superior deep cervical nodes

# When a patient protrudes his tongue, it deviated to the right. Which of the following nerves is damaged? (MAN-99)
a) Left hypoglossal
b) Glossopharyngeal
c) Right hypoglossal
d) Facial nerve

# Impulses generated in the taste buds of the tongue reach the cerebral cortex vie the: (KAR-97)
a) Thalamus
b) Internal Capsule
c) Cervical spinal nerve
d) Trigeminal nerve 

#  In which of the following papillae of the tongue are the taste buds predominantly located?(AIIMS - 93)
a) Circumvallate
b) Filiform
c) Foliate
d) Fungi form

# Circumvallate papillae are present: (AIPG-2000)
a) Behind sulcus terminalis
b) Front of sulcus terminalis
c) Anterior 2/3 of tongue
d) Lateral border of tongue

# All are structures lying deep to the hyoglossus muscle except:(AIIMS - 98)
a) Hypoglossal nerve
b) Lingual artery
c) Stylohyoid muscle
d) Geniohyoid muscle

# The papillae present on margins of the tongue: (AIPG - 98)
a) Fungiform papillae
b) Filiform papillae
c) Vallate papillae
d) Foliate papillae

# Anterior 2/3rd of tongue arises from: (AIIMS - 90)
a) Hypobranchial eminence
b) Two lingual swellings
c) Tuberculum impar
d) Two lingual Swelling & Tuberculum impar

# Deep surface of hyoglossus is related to: (C0MEDK-06)
a) Hypoglossal nerve
b) Glossopharyngeal nerve
c) Lingual nerve
d) Submandibular Ganglion

# Which of the following muscle of tongue runs from dorsum of tongue to ventral
a) Verticalis
b) Transverse
c) Inferior longitudinal
d) Superior longitudinal 

# The extrinsic muscles that aid in depressing the tongue are the: (KAR -97)
a) Styloglossi and palatoglossi
b) Genioglossi and palatoglossi
c) Hyoglossi and styloglossi
d) Genioglossi and hyoglossi

# Structures related to the medial surface of the hyoglossus muscle include the following EXCEPT: (COMEDK-08)
a) Hypoglossal nerve
b) Glossopharyngeal nerve
c) Stylohyoid ligament
d) Lingual artery

# The mucosa of the posterior third of the tongue is supplied by: (KCET-2009)
a) Trigeminal nerve
b) Facial nerve
c) Mandibular nerve
d) Glossopharyngeal nerve

# The muscles of the tongue are supplied by: (AIPG -99, AIIMS -94)
a) Chorda tympani
b) Hypoglossal
c) Lingual nerve
d) Glossopharyngeal nerve

# Main arterial supply to the tongue is: (AIPG -96)
a) Lingual artery
b) Facial Artery
c) Ascending palatine artery
d) Ascending pharyngeal artery

# Tongue develops from which branchial arches: (AIPG -93)
a) I, II, III
b) I, II, III, IV
c) I,II, IV
d) I, III, IV

# Sensory nerve fibres to posterior one third of the tongue is supplied by: (AIIMS -92)
a) XII cranial nerve
b) X cranial nerve
c) VII cranial nerve
d) IX cranial nerve

# Palsy of the right genioglossus causes:
a) Deviation of soft palate to left
b) Deviation of tongue to left
c) Deviation of tongue to right
d) Deviation of soft palate to right

# Safety muscle of tongue is: (KAR -13)
a) Palatoglossus
b) Styloglossus
c) Genioglossus
d) Hyoglossus

# The Tongue: (PGI-06)
a) Separated from the epiglottis by glossoepiglottic folds
b) Contains 6-10 circumvallate papilla located posterior to sulcus terminals
c) Embryologically derives from 1st branchial arch only
d) Contains foramen caecum which is present on the dorsum of frenulum

# Taste receptors: (GCET-14)
a) Are a type of chemoreceptor
b) All of them
c) Are innervated by afferent fibres of V, VII & IX
d) Primary taste sensations are spatially separated on the surface of the tongue

# Taste sensation is carried by all except: (AIIMS MAY-13)
a) Glossopharyngeal nerve
b) Facial nerve
c) Vagus nerve
d) Trigeminal nerve

# The action of styloglossus muscle is: (AIPG-2010)
a) Elevation of tongue
b) Posteriorly retracts the tongue
c) Protrusion of tongue
d) Depression of tongue

# Lymph from tongue not drained by following vessels: (AIIMS NOV-13)
a) Posterior
b) Central
c) Marginal
d) Ventral

# Tongue movement has its primary effect on: (AIIMS-07)
a) Cheeks
b) Facial musculature
c) Palatoglossus arch
d) Lips


MCQs on NSAIDs and other CNS Drugs - Part 2

#  All of the following statements about pain are correct except: (AIPG-01)
a) Naloxone is a non-competitive antagonist and irreversibly opposes the opioids
b) Analgesia is associated with pi and K receptors
c) Dysphoria is associated with s receptors
d) NSAIDS benefit by preventing prostaglandin synthesis

# Which of the following opioids is not given intrathecally? (AIPG-2011)
a) Sufentanil
b) Morphine
c) Remifentanil
d) Fentanyl

# Which of the following drug is used to counter act the gastric irritation produced by administration of NSAID: (AIIMS-99)
a) Pirenzipine
b) Roxatidine
c) Betaxolol
d) Misoprostol

# All are symptoms of opiate withdrawals except: (AIPG-06)
a) Lacrimation
b) Mydriasis
c) Excessive speech
d) Diarrhea

# Aspirin is contraindicated in: (AP-01)
a) Peptic ulcer
b) Angina
c) Hypertension
d) MI

# Which of the following is a muscle relaxant? (AP-06)
a) Phenylephrine
b) Succinylcholine
c) Hyoscin
d) Pentazocine

# Salicylate administration is contraindicated in pregnancy because:
a) Causes pulmonary hypertension of newborn
b) Readily erases placental barrier
c) Delay onset of labour
d) All of these

# A Hemophiliac patient has rheumatoid arthritis. Which drug might be prescribed to relieve the pain? (KCET-07)
a) Phenylbutazone
b) Acetylsalicylic acid
c) Naproxen
d) Acetaminophen

# Benzodiazepines are true in: (AIIMS-07)
a) After metabolism of other drugs in liver
b) More safe than other sedatives when take in larger amounts
c) Produce distortion in sleep more than other sedatives
d) All have metabolically active substrates

# The rate of injection of intravenous Valium is: (AIPG-05)
a) 2.5 mg / min
b) 2.5 ml / min
c) 1 mg / min
d) 1 ml / min

# Ibuprofen is contraindicated in: (KAR-04)
a) Patients having amoebic dysentery
b) Patients having fever
c) Patients having asthma
d) Patients having bronchitis

# The Ethyl alcohol (Ethanol) is more effective when mixed with water and used as: (KAR-02)
a) 10 to 20 percent
b) 60 to 70 percent
c) 40 to 50 percent
d) 20 to 30 percent

# Which one of the following is NOT an ergot alkaloids? (COMEDK-08)
a) Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)
b) Bromocriptine
c) Ketanserin
d) Methysergide

# An antiepileptic drug used in petitmal epilepsy is: (KAR-2K)
a) Diazepam
b) Phenobarbitonse
c) Ethosuximide
d) Dilantoin sodium

# Benzodiazepine antagonist is: (AIIMS-2008)
a) Naltrexone
b) Naloxone
c) Furazolidone
d) Flumazenil

# Which of the following is a short acting barbiturate?
a) Secobarbital
b) Mephobarbital 
c) Diazepam
d) Phenobarbital

# One of the obvious consequences of alcohol (ethanol), ingestion in many individuals is facial flushing and increased heart rate triggered off by alcohol getting metabolized to: (KAR-98)
a) Propanaldehyde
b) Butanaldehyde
c) Acetaldehyde
d) Formaldehyde

# NSAID which undergoes enterohepatic circulation: (AIPG-2010)
a) Ibuprofen
b) Piroxicam
c) Aspirin
d) Phenylbutazone

# Paracetamol is contraindicated in
a) Chronic hepatitis
b) Bleeding disorders
c) Fever
d) Nephritis

# Which of the following is a non-steroidal anti inflammatory agent with a tendency to produce blood dyscrasias? (APPSC-99)
a) Aspirin
b) Indomethacin
c) B & A
d) Ibuprofen

# An untoward effect of that is common to all phenothiazines is
a) A marked increase in blood pressure
b) Rigidity and tremor at rest, particularly with prolonged use
c) Nausea
d) Suppression of Prolactin

# Buprenorphine acts by following mechanism: (KAR-04)
a) Mu receptor partial agonist
b) Kappa receptor antagonist
c) Mu receptor antagonist
d) Kappa receptor partial agonist

# Drugs like barbiturates precipitate symptoms of porphyria because: (COMEDK-07)
a) They inhibit heme oxygenase
b) They depress ALA synthase
c) They inhibit ALA synthase
d) They induce heme oxygenase

# The principal central action of caffeine is on the: (AIIMS-2K)
a) Spinal cord
b) Cerebral cortex
c) Corpus callosum
d) Hypothalamus

# Which one of the following muscle relaxant has the maximum duration of action? (AIPG-06)
a) Rocuronium
b) Atracurium
c) Vecuronium
d) Doxacurium

# Which among the following is a pure antagonist of opioid receptors? (COMEDK-08)
a) Butorphanol
b) Naltrexone
c) Nalbuphine
d) Pentazocine

# Folic acid deficiency occurs in treatment with: (AIIMS-06)
a) Chloramphenicol
b) Phenytoin
c) Cyclosporine
d) Aspirin

# Which among the following may be used as a sedatives-hypnotic? (COMEDK-08)
a) Zolpidem
b) Zolmitriptan
c) Zalcitabine
d) Zileuton

# Which of the following drugs is currently widely used in treating opioid-dependent individuals? (AIPG-03)
a) Pentazocine
b) Methadone
c) Alphaprodine
d) Codeine

# Best and most effective drug to control convulsions in toxicity cases is: (AIPG-97)
a) Phenobarbitone
b) Diazepam
c) Phenytoin
d) Carbamazepine

# Platelet aggregation is inhibited by all except
a) Salicylates
b) Indomethacin
c) Phenobarbitone
d) Dypyradimole

# Respiratory depression is seen with: (PGI-05)
a) Antidepressants
b) Non-barbiturates
c) Synthetic narcotics
d) Tranquilizers

# Barbiturates in pediatrics is: (AIIMS-96)
a) Can be used safely
b) Contraindicated
c) Not much use
d) Low safety

# Which of the following is true about parasympathetic nervous system? (MCET-07)
a) Ach is transmitter at both pre & post synaptic junction
b) It causes dilatation of skeletal muscles
c) Post-ganglionic fibres are longer than pre ganglionic fibres
d) Noradrenalin is the neurotransmitter at post ganglionic junction

# Aspirin is contraindicated in: (AP-2010)
a) Person suffering from chicken pox or small pox
b) Peptic ulcer
c) Hemorrhage
d) All of them

# An anxiolytic, not interacting with GABAergic system and used in generalized anxiety is: (KCET-08)
a) Diazepam
b) Buspiron
c) Alprazolam
d) Phenobarbital

# A patient with grand mal epilepsy would likely be under treatment with: (AIIMS-02)
a) Phenytoin
b) Meprobamate
c) Pentobarbital
d) Trimethadione

# DOPA and 5-Hydroxytryptophan are clinically important because? (AIIMS-2009)
a) They act as neuromodulators
b) They are metabolites of various neurogenic amines
c) They are acidic precursors of Brain amines
d) They cross Blood Brain Barriers

# Gastric irritation is minimum with one of the following non-steroidal anti inflammatory drugs:
a) Indomethacin
b) Meloxicam
c) Tenoxicam
d) Piroxicam

# Acute Barbiturate poisoning results in: (AIIMS-96)
a) Liver failure
b) Renal failure
c) Convulsions
d) Respiratory failure

# The anti-inflammatory analgesic drug the causes least gastrointestinal symptoms is:
a) Phenyl butazone
b) Aspirin
c) Indomethacin
d) Paracetamol



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