MCQs on Hematology and Endocrinology Part 2 - General Medicine MCQs

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# Enzyme deficient in diabetes mellitus is: (TNPSC-99)
a) Glucokinase
b) Hexokinase
c) Phosphorylase

d) Pyrophosphate dehydrogenase

# Which of the following neoplasms is primary in the adrenal medulla? (APPSC-99)

a) Pheochromocytoma

b) Eosinophilic adenoma

c) Arrhenoblastoma

d) None of the above

MCQs on Hematology and Endocrinology Part 1 - General Medicine MCQs

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# In thrombocytopenic purpura there is: (AIPG-93, 98)
a) Increase in platelet count
b) Decrease in platelet count
c) Normal platelet count
d) Defective platelet function

# Bleeding time is prolonged in: (AIPG-98)

a) Factor VIII deficiency

b) Christmas factor deficiency

c) Von Willebrand disease

d) Vitamin K deficiency

# Which of the following coagulation factors is deficient in classical haemophilia? (AIPG-94)

a) VIII

b) IX

c) X

d) XII

MCQs on General Biochemistry

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# Detoxification of drugs is controlled by:
a) Cytochrome
b) Cytochrome P450
c) Cytochrome C
d) Cytochrome A

# In cytochrome P450, P stands for:

a) Structural proteins

b) Substrate protein

c) Pigment

d) Polymer

# Detoxification or protective synthesis occurs by:

a) Oxidation

b) Reduction

c) Conjugation

d) Any of the above

# The major driving force for formation of membrane lipid bilayer is:

a) Hydrogen bonding

b) Hydrophobic interactions

c) Vander waal forces

d) Not known

MCQs on Occlusion - Oral Anatomy

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# The maxillary teeth which have single antagonist are: (MAN-94, 95)
a) Lateral incisors
b) Permanent canines
c) Permanent central incisors
d) Third molars

# In occlusion, the teeth have: (MAN-94, AIIMS-93)

a) Cusp-to-cusp contact

b) Edge-to-edge contact

c) Marginal contact

d) Surface-to-surface contact

# In normal occlusion, with which groove / surface of the permanent mandibular first molar does the mesiobuccal cusp of the permanent maxillary first molar occlude:

a) Distobuccal groove

b) Mesial Surface

c) Mesiobuccal surface

d) Transverse groove

MCQs in Microbiology - Bacteriology Part 2

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# Malignant pustule is referred to: (KAR-2003, AIIMS-2K)
a) Facio-cervical actinomycosis
b) Cutaneous anthrax
c) Infected squamous cell carcinoma
d) None of the above

# One of the following is a zoonotic disease: (KAR-2001)

a) Anthrax

b) Typhoid

c) Bacillary dysentery

d) Cholera

# Causative agents of "Vincent's angina": (KAR-98, 2001)

a) Borrelia vincenti and Fusobacterium fusiformis

b) Borrelia recurrents and Bacteroides

c) Borrelia burgoloferi and Lactobacillus

d) Leptospira and Treponema pallidum

MCQs on Microbiology - Bacteriology Part 1

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 # The causative organism of syphilis is: (AIPG -94)
a) Borrelia burgolorferi
b) Chalamydia trachomatis
c) Leptospira interrogans
d) Treponema pallidum

# On a stained slide, Clostridium tetani has the appearance of a: (MAN-95)
a) Bunch of grapes
b) Chain of beads
c) Drum stick
d) Safety pin

# An oxidase-positive, gram-negative rod which produces a bluish-green pigment has been grown in culture from a swab obtained from an infected burn wound. This organism is susceptible to gentamicin, ticarcillin and tobramicin, but resistant to all the other antibiotics. Which of the following organisms is it likely to be? (MAN-95)

a) Escherichia coli

b) Klebsiella pnemoniae

c) Proteus mirabilis

d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

MCQs on Pharmacology - Chemotherapy / Antibiotics

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# The most common side effect of the oral administration of ampicillin is: (MAN-94, AIIMS-93)
a) Anaphylactic shock
b) Diarrhoea
c) Oral candidiasis
d) Renal failure

# Which of the following drugs is likely to damage the eighth cranial nerve when administered for a long period of time? (MAN-94)

a) Ethambutol

b) Isoniazid

c) Rifampicin

d) Streptomycin