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AIIMS MDS Nov 2007 MCQs - Part 2


# In lead poisoning, gingival discoloration presents as:
A. Blue black line
B. Yellow line
C. Grayish black line
D. Steel gray line

# Dilaceration occurs due to:
A. Trauma to the tooth germ during root development
B. Abnormal displacement of the tooth germ during root development
C. Abnormal displacement of enamel epithelium during tooth development
D. Abnormal displacement of ameloblasts during tooth development



# Which of the following is true about Xerostomia?
A. pH of saliva increases
B. pH of saliva decreases
C. pH of saliva increases in morning and decreases in evening
D. pH of saliva remains unchanged

# Diagnosis of periapical cemental dysplasia is done by:
A. Vitality tests
B. Radiographs
C. Percussion
D. Examination of the lamina dura

# Toulidine blue stain is used to distinguish:
A. Pemphigus and lichen planus
B. Leukoplakia and lichen planus
C. Detection of malignant transformation
D. Candidiasis and leukoplakia

# Radiographically, driven snow appearance is seen with:
A. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
B. Calcifying odontogenic cyst
C. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor
D. Keratocyst

# Disadvantage of a grid is:
A. Increases exposure time
B. Decreases clarity
C. Causes blurring of image
D. More skin dose

# Consistent radiographs require:
A. Rapid processing
B. Automated fixing
C. Fixed kVp and mA
D. Using long cone technique

# Contrast on a radiograph is:
A. Dark areas on a radiograph
B. Range of densities on a radiograph
C. Overall darkening of the radiograph
D. Light areas on the radiographs

# True about parallax technique:
A. Increases image clarity
B. Decreases distortion of the image
C. Gives relative image of object
D. Decreases image clarity

# Most common reason for the removal of impacted mandibular third molars is:
A. Referred pain
B. Recurrent pericoronitis
C. Chronic periodontal disease
D. Orthodontic treatment

# Which of the following is the correct reason for facial nerve injury during forcep delivery?
A. The mastoid process is absent at birth
B. The parotid glands are in developing stage
C. The beak of the forceps engages the main trunk of facial nerve
D. The sublingual hematoma during delivery causes neuropraxia

# Incidence of osteoradionecrosis is increased in following cases:
A. Extraction following radiotherapy
B. Leukemic patients
C. Patients on Hyperbaric oxygen therapy
D. Xerostomia

# Syncope results from:
A. Cerebral edema
B. Cerebral hyperemia
C. Cerebral hypoxia
D. Cerebral degeneration

# A procedure done to eliminate periodontal pocket and increase the width of attached gingiva is termed as:
A. Laterally displaced flap
B. Apically displaced flap
C. Papilla preservation flap
D. Modified Widman flap

# Role of barrier membrane in GTR is:
A. To help overall healing
B. Prevention of epithelial migration
C. Arrest of bleeding
D. Prevent the infection from reaching the underlying tissues

# Biofilm found on tooth surface is termed as:
A. Enamel
B. Dental plaque
C. Saliva
D. Dentinal caries

# Periodontitis that does not resolve with treatment is termed as:
A. Aggressive periodontitis
B. Chronic periodontitis
C. Refractory periodontitis
D. Juvenile periodontitis

# Peripheral buttressing bone formation effect is termed as:
A. Ledges
B. Craters
C. Hemiseptum
D. Lipping

# Modification in Kennedy's classification is:
A. Number of spaces present anterior to the remaining teeth
B. Number of spaces present after the basic classification
C. Edentulous spaces posterior to all the teeth
D. Additional spaces in class IV

# One of the following is true about pier abutment:
A. Presence of edentulous space mesial to the abutment tooth
B. Presence of edentulous space distal to the abutment tooth
C. Presence of edentulous spaces on both sides of the abutment tooth
D. A periodontally weak abutment

# The correct placement of an indirect retainer is:
A. near the fulcrum line
B. away from the fulcrum line
C. near the direct retainer
D. near the edentulous area

# Lingual bar is:
A. 6 gauge, pear shaped
B. 4 gauge, pear shaped
C. 6 gauge, half pear shaped
D. 4 gauge, half pear shaped

# Correct indication for a lingual plate is:
A. When the lingual sulcus is deep
B. When the ridge is not strong enough to support the teeth
C. When more number of anterior teeth are involved
D. Any of the above can be an indication

# Disadvantage of a flexible major connector is:
A. Causes the other components of the RPD to become more effective
B. Causes overload and periodontal destruction of the abutment teeth
C. Decreases retention
D. Fail to provide good support characteristics

# Permeability of dentin does not depend upon:
A. Smear layer
B. Diffusion coefficient of fluid
C. Convection of fluid
D. Length of dentinal tubules

# Incipient or recurrent caries can be detected before they are visible on radiograph by:
A. Visible light
B. Ultrasonic light
C. Fibreoptic transillumination
D. Digital Fibreoptic transillumination

# Which of the following is used in Diagnodent?
A. Visible light
B. Laser light
C. Sound waves
D. Nanotechnology for detection

# Resistance form is that shape of a cavity which:
A. Prevents displacement of restoration
B. Permits restoration to withstand occlusal forces
C. Prevents displacement of restoration and permits restoration to withstand occlusal forces
D. Allows for adequate instrumentation

# For preparing amalgam core in an endodontically treated tooth, clinicians prefer to use:
A. Self threading pins
B. Friction lock pins
C. Cemented pins
D. None of the above

# When the pins are used in the cavity for amalgam the strength of amalgam:
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Unchanged
D. May increase or decrease

# Sterilization of gutta percha points is done by:
A. Hot salt sterilizer
B. Autoclaving
C. Chemical solutions
D. Dry Heat

# Difference between physical characteristics of a file and reamer is:
A. The cross section of reamers is square and files are triangular in cross section
B. The numbers of flutes on the blade are more in files than in reamers
C. The reamers have more flutes in the blade
D. Files have two superficial grooves to produce flutes in a double helix design

# A dentist performed restorative procedure in an 11 year old child and found that the primary molars were in various stages of exfoliation with slight anterior crowding present. His next appointment should be:
A. After three months for observation
B. After six months for recall checkup
C. After one year
D. When all the permanent teeth will erupt

# Rectangular wire used in edgewise appliance is primarily meant for:
A. Correction of crown root position
B. Increasing the strength of the wire
C. Correction of Arch-length deficiency
D. Used for correction of anterior crowding

# A buccal coil spring is used to regain space between first premolar and first molar. The most common post treatment complication is:
A. Pain
B. Gingival irritation
C. Tendency for the 1st molar to intrude
D. Tendency for the 1st premolar to rotate

# Arch space for the eruption of 3rd molars is created by:
A. Apposition of alveolar process
B. Resorption of posterior border of Ramus
C. Resorption of anterior border of Ramus
D. Apposition of lower body of mandible

# ANB angle of 2 degrees indicates:
A. A favorable relationship of maxillary alveolar base to Mandibular alveolar base
B. A favorable relationship of mandible to cranium
C. Poor cranial growth
D. Upright incisors

# When a maxillary removable orthodontic appliance is first placed, the effect on patient's speech will be:
A. Difficulty with lingual vowels for a few days
B. Difficulty with lingual vowel for several weeks
C. Difficulty with linguoalveolar consonants for a few days
D. Difficulty with linguoalveolar consonants for several weeks

# Pulse oximetry is used for the determination of:
A. Rate of blood flow
B. Oxygen saturation
C. Blood volume
D. Blood coefficient

# Pulse oximetry is based on the principle of:
A. Pascal's law
B. Doppler's law
C. Beer's law
D. Poisellie's law

# A non invasive method to measure the blood flow is:
A. Electric pulp testing
B. Percussion
C. Laser doppler flowmetry
D. Radiographic visualization

# A distal shoe space maintainer is indicated when a primary:
A. canine is in crossbite
B. 1st molar is prematurely lost
C. second molar is lost after the eruption of the permanent first molar
D. second molar is lost before the eruption of permanent 1st molar

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