Dentosphere : World of Dentistry

# The eosinophil count in the peripheral blood smear is increased in: A. Allergic conditions B. Anemia C. Polycythemia D. Typhoid fever # The number of walls in the apical portion of the defect is often greater than that of its occlusal portion, it is referred to as: A. Osseous craters B. Combined osseous defect C. Horizontal defect D. Vertical defect # In marasmus, wasting is due to: A. Prolonged dietary deficiency of calories B. Prolonged dietary deficiency of Protein C. Excess catabolism of fat and muscle mass to provide energy D. All of the above # Hyperparathyroidism is associated with: A. Renal stones B. Bone resorption C. Increased level of serum calcium D. All of the above # Normal body mass index is between: A. 16.5-20.5 B. 18.5-24.9 C. 25.0-29.9 D. 30.0-39.9 # Speed at which electrons travel in gas tube once released from cathode filament is dependent on: A...

 # Chromatolysis is: A. Disintegration of nucleus B. Disintegration of golgi apparatus C. Disappearance of Nissl granules D. Decrease in cell size The correct answer is C. Disappearance of Nissl granules. Chromatolysis is a reactive change that occurs in the cell body of damaged neurons. It involves the dispersal and redistribution of Nissl substance (rough endoplasmic reticulum and polyribosomes) to meet an increased demand for protein synthesis. 

 # Salivary protein which prevents transmission of HIV via saliva is: A. Sialoperoxidase B. Secretory IgA C. Salivary leukocyte protease inhibitor D. Histidine rich proteins The correct answer is C. Salivary leukocyte protease inhibitor. SLPI blocks HIV-1 infection of macrophages and primary T cells at concentrations (1–10 μg/mL) that occur naturally in saliva (Shugars and Wahl, 1998). These findings suggest that SLPI may be partially responsible for the low rate of oral transmission of HIV-1.

 # Rotational force of extraction is used for delivery of which tooth out of the socket? A. Upper central incisors and lower premolars B. Upper centrals and lateral incisors C. Upper and lower central incisors D. Upper premolars and lower central incisors The correct answer is A. Upper central incisors and lower premolars. Rotational pressure, as the name implies, rotates the tooth, which causes some internal expansion of the tooth socket and tearing of periodontal ligaments. Teeth with single, conical roots (such as maxillary incisors and mandibular premolars) and those with roots that are not curved are most amenable to luxation by this technique. Teeth that have other than conical roots or that have multiple roots—especially if those roots are curved—are more likely to fracture under this type of pressure. Ref: Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery 6th Edition, Hupp

 # Metapex is a combination of:  A. Calcium hydroxide + ZOE B. ZOE + Iodoform C. Calcium hydroxide + Iodoform D. Calcium hydroxide + GIC The correct answer is C. Calcium hydroxide + Iodoform. Metapex = Calcium hydroxide + iodoform  Vitapex = Calcium hydroxide + iodoform + Silicon based oil (better flow able property)  • Ideal material for obturating primary teeth = same resorption rate as of primary tooth roots  • Both Vitapex & metapex has same resorption rate to primary tooth root but due to better flow able property of vitapex its nearly IDEAL and best material for obturation in primary teeth. 

# The condylar cartilage in the mandible is held to be a:  A. Primary cartilage B. Secondary cartilage C. Tertiary cartilage D. Non growing cartilage The correct answer is B. Secondary cartilage. Meckel's cartilage is the primary cartilage of mandible. The cartilages at the condyle, coronoid and symphysis are the secondary cartilages. The condylar cartilage is considered as the pacemaker for growth of that bone. Nasal septum is considered as the pacemaker for growth of maxilla. 

 # In Peck and Peck index, mesiodistal and buccolingual measurements of which of the following tooth is taken:  A. Maxillary central incisor  B. Mandibular central incisor C. Maxillary premolars  D. Mandibular molars  The correct answer is B. Mandibular central incisor. Peck and Peck index:  The mandibular incisors in persons with no crowding will have smaller mesiodistal width and large labiolingual width than in persons with incisal crowding. The proportion of the mesiodistal width of each tooth to the labio lingual thickness is calculated using the formula: M.D.W./L.L.W x100  Mean value for lower central incisor should be 88 to 92%.  Mean value for lower lateral incisor should be 90 to 95%  If the calculated value is greater than mean value, it indicates that the mesiodistal width is more than labiolingual width and hence proximal stripping is indicated. 

 Name of Dental Clinic: Care 32 Dental Address (Full): Changunarayan 2, Bhaktapur Year of Establishment: 2080 Name of the chief Dental Surgeon: Dr. Sabin Gwachha, Dr. Anamol Dumaru CONTACT NUMBER: 9813510103 NMC Number of Dental Surgeon: 30599 CLICK HERE TO VIEW ALL DENTAL CLINICS OF BAGMATI PROVINCE

 # According to Edward H. Angle's classification of malocclusion, what is the defining characteristic of Class III malocclusion? A) Normal relationship of the molars but malposed teeth B) Lower molar distally positioned relative to the upper molar C) Lower molar mesially positioned relative to the upper molar D) Correct line of occlusion with rotated teeth The correct answer is C. Lower molar mesially positioned relative to the upper molar. Angle’s classification of malocclusion in the 1890s was an important step in the development of orthodontics because it not only subdivided major types of malocclusion but also included the first clear and simple definition of normal occlusion in the natural dentition. Angle’s postulate was that the upper first molars were the key to occlusion and that the upper and lower molars should be related so that the mesiobuccal cusp of the upper molar occludes in the buccal groove of the lower molar. If the teeth were arranged on a smoothly curving line...

 # What was Norman Kingsley's contribution to orthodontics during the latter half of the 19th century? A) He developed the first orthodontic appliances in Greek materials. B) He was among the first to use extraoral force to correct protruding teeth. C) He introduced the concept of occlusion in the natural dentition. D) He focused on the removal of teeth for various dental problems. The correct answer is B. He was among the first to use extraoral force to correct protruding teeth. After 1850 the first texts that systematically described orthodontics appeared, the most notable being Norman Kingsley’s Oral Deformities. Kingsley, who had a tremendous influence on American dentistry in the latter half of the 19th century, was among the first to use extraoral force to correct protruding teeth. He was also a pioneer in the treatment of cleft palate and related problems. Ref: Proffit, W. R., Fields, H., Msd, D. M., Larson, B., & Sarver, D. M. (2019). Contemporary Orthodontics, 6e:...

 # Initial clicking of TMJ is a sign of: A. Retruded condyle B. Unevenness of condylar surfaces C. Incoordination between condylar surfaces and disc D. Condyle too far anterior in relation to disc The correct answer is A. Retruded condyle. Early stages of disc displacement are characterised by clicking. Clicking can be heard while opening the mouth, while closing the mouth, or both. An opening click signifies recapture of the displaced disc between the articulating joint surfaces. A closing click occurs just prior to tooth contact and is not as loud as the opening click. When the disc becomes non-reducible, i.e. there is no recapture of the disc while opening the mouth, the clicking reduces in intensity or vanishes. In the early stages (disc displacement with reduction), patients have been described as having increased range of anterior condylar translation. As the stage of disc displacement without reduction ensues, the patient encounters reduced mouth opening and even locked clos...

 # The best space maintainer for the early loss of upper primary incisor is the pin and tube maintainer, because : A. It is aesthetically acceptable  B. It does not injure the upper lip  C. It is easy to fabricate  D. It allows lateral growth of the bone The correct answer is D. It allows lateral growth of the bone. The removable pin and tube space maintainer is designed to prevent space loss after the premature loss of a primary incisor. It allows for the natural lateral growth of the bone and provides sufficient space for the permanent tooth to erupt properly. This type of space maintainer is usually considered effective and well-tolerated by patients. While aesthetics and ease of fabrication are also important considerations, the primary purpose of a space maintainer is to preserve the space for the permanent tooth and support proper oral development.

 # Salt and pepper appearance in MRI of salivary gland is suggestive of: A. Sjogren syndrome B. Thalassemia C. Mumps D. Salivary gland tumor The correct answer is A. Sjogren syndrome. A salt and pepper appearance of the salivary glands on MRI is particularly suggestive of Sjogren syndrome. Salt and pepper appearance of IOPA X rays is seen in Thalassemia.

 # Which visceral arch is rudimentary in humans? A. 4th  B. 5th  C. 6th D. 7th The correct answer is B. 5th. The pharyngeal arches, also known as visceral arches, are structures seen in the embryonic development of vertebrates that are recognisable precursors for many structures. In the human embryo, the arches are first seen during the fourth week of development. They appear as a series of outpouchings of mesoderm on both sides of the developing pharynx. The vasculature of the pharyngeal arches is known as the aortic arches. During human, and all vertebrate development, a series of pharyngeal arch pairs form in the developing embryo. These project forward from the back of the embryo toward the front of the face and neck. Each arch develops its own artery, nerve that controls a distinct muscle group, and skeletal tissue. The arches are numbered from 1 to 6, with 1 being the arch closest to the head of the embryo, and arch 5 existing only transiently.

 # What is the most superior point of the external auditory canal? A. Sella B. Porion C. Basion D. Orbitale The correct answer is B. Porion. The porion is the most superior point of the external auditory canal. The sella is the center of the hypophyseal fossa. The basion is the most anterior point of the foramen magnum. The orbitale is the most inferior point of the infraorbital rim. 

 # Which factor requires careful consideration, when taking measurements from an image?  A. Definition  B. Magnification  C. Reconstruction  D. Superimposition The correct answer is B. Magnification. The magnification factor of any image must be carefully considered when taking measurements. Image definition is significant to the overall diagnosis; however, the magnification factor is of special concern when calculating bone dimensions.  Image reconstruction is largely a function of multiplanar reformatting (MPR).  Superimposition is a factor for some images (panoramic radiographs and conventional tomograms); however, the magnification factor must be carefully considered when calculating bone dimensions. 

 # The common organism implicated in dry socket is: A. Streptococcus B. Staphylococcus C. Treponema denticola D. Pneumococcus The correct answer is C. Treponema denticola. A number of bacteria are known to possess fibrinolytic activity. It has been recently postulated that Treponema denticola may have an etiological role in the genesis of dry socket.

 # Irregular opaque areas are found on radiographs of lower anterior teeth, the teeth are vital. The cause may be:  A. Subgingival calculus  B. Cementoma C. Condensing osteitis  D Chronic apical periodontitis  The correct answer is A. Subgingival calculus. Calculus may be seen as small angular radiopaque deposits projecting between interproximal surfaces of the teeth or as radiopaque bands across the roots representing circumferential accumulation as illustrated in the figure. Ref: White, S.C. and Pharoah, M.J., 2014. Oral radiology-E-Book: Principles and interpretation. Elsevier Health Sciences.

 # Head diameter of a 245 bur is: A. 0.1 mm B. 0.5 mm C. 0.8 mm D. 0.9 mm The correct answer is C. 0.8 mm. No. 245 bur has a head length of 3 mm and head diameter of 0.8 mm. This is an inverted cone carbide bur used for amalgam cavity preparations.  Benefits of the bur:  • For amalgam cavity preparations, the initial punch cut should have a depth of 1.5 mm, so it is half of this bur length, so it is very convenient to use the bur.  • In class II the proximal ditch cut is established easily with the 0.8 mm diameter bur end cuts 0.5 mm into dentin and 0.3 mm into enamel. 

 # During countercurrent mechanisms, which of the following area of nephron does filtrate become hypertonic to plasma? A. Bowman’s capsule B. Proximal convoluted tubule C. Loop of Henle D. Distal convoluted tubule The correct answer is C. Loop of Henle. A circuit of fluid in the loop of Henle—an important part of the kidneys—allows for gradual buildup of the concentration of urine in the kidneys, by using active transport on the exiting nephrons (tubules carrying liquid in the process of gradually concentrating the urea). The active transport pumps need only to overcome a constant and low gradient of concentration, because of the countercurrent multiplier mechanism.

 Sectional NiTi wires can also be used to align a malpositioned tooth in a piggyback manner where rest of the arch is ligated with a stiff wire. With this arrangement, a light continuous force is exerted to bring the displaced tooth into the alignment while reciprocal force is distributed over the anchor teeth.  Case done by: Dr. Sushant Pandey, CODS BPKIHS Piggyback wires offer the potential to combine wires of similar or, more commonly, markedly different physical properties. In relation to space redistribution and alignment, piggybacks typically involve use of flexible round NiTi wires in combination with more rigid base arch wires permitting alignment of displaced teeth limiting the effect of reactive forces in terms of horizontal and vertical anchorage.  Reference:  1. Kharbanda, Om. (2013). Orthodontics: Diagnosis and Management of Malocclusion and Dentofacial Deformities 2nd ed..  2. Fleming, P., Seehra, J., 2019. Fixed Orthodontic Appliances. BDJ Cl...

 The atmosphere within a dental clinic plays a pivotal role in shaping patients' perceptions and experiences. Dental professionals recognize the importance of creating a welcoming and comfortable environment that goes beyond the clinical aspect of oral care. The interior design of a dental clinic is an art and science that seamlessly combines aesthetics, functionality, and the unique needs of the dental practice. Let's delve into the key considerations that make dental clinic interior designing an essential aspect of the overall patient experience. 1. Balancing Functionality and Aesthetics: Dental clinics require a careful balance between functionality and aesthetics. The layout should be designed to optimize workflow for dental practitioners while providing a warm and inviting atmosphere for patients. Well-designed reception areas, consultation rooms, and treatment spaces contribute to a positive overall experience. 2. Patient Comfort and Relaxation: Dental anxiety is a common...

  # The preferred agent for base formation below restorative resin is: A. Calcium hydroxide B. Cavity varnish C. Zinc oxide-eugenol cement D. None of the above # Dentin protection during cavity restoration is most important when the "remaining dentin thickness" is: A. 1 - 2mm B. 1.5 mm C. 0.5 - 1mm D. 0.5 mm # Cavity varnish is indicated under amalgam restorations to: A. Prevent galvanic currents from reaching the pulp B. Improve the marginal seal of the restorations C. Seal the dentinal tubules completely D. Act as an effective thermal insulator # Calcium hydroxide is preferred to ZOE fillings below a composite resin restoration as: A. Calcium hydroxide forms a calcific bridge B. Eugenol irritates the inflamed pulp C. Eugenol interferes with the setting of composite resins D. None of the above # When using the acid etch technique to restore a Class IV fracture, exposed denti...

  # In class II cavity for inlay, the cavosurface margin of the gingival seat clears the adjacent tooth by: A. 0.20 ± 0.05mm B. 0.50 ± 0.20mm C. 0.80 ± 0.35mm D. 1.10 ± 0.45mm # Cavities beginning in the proximal surfaces of bicuspids and molars are: A. Class 1 B. Class 2 C. Class 4 D. Class 6 # Incipient caries consists of opaque, chalky white areas that appear when the tooth surface is dried, this is referred as: A. white spot B. hot spot C. translucent zone D. body of lesion # Pit and fissure caries is seen in: A. Class I B. Class I compound C. Class II D. Class II compound # Smear Layer consists of: A. Enamel debris B. Micro organisms C. Dentinal chips D. all of the above # A butt joint is a: A. 90° joint B. 120° joint C. 70° joint D. 180° joint # Enameloplasty is: A. Filling of enamel fissures with amalgam B. Elimination of shallow...