MCQs on Pharmacology - Chemotherapy / Antibiotics

The correct answers are highlighted in green.

# The most common side effect of the oral administration of ampicillin is: (MAN-94, AIIMS-93)
a) Anaphylactic shock
b) Diarrhoea
c) Oral candidiasis
d) Renal failure

# Which of the following drugs is likely to damage the eighth cranial nerve when administered for a long period of time? (MAN-94)

a) Ethambutol

b) Isoniazid

c) Rifampicin

d) Streptomycin 

MCQs on Mycology and Parasitology

The correct answers are highlighted in green.

# The mechanism by which most fungi cause disease is: (APPSC-99)
a) exotoxin production
b) lecithinase production
c) hypersensitivity
d) coagulase production

# Germ tubes are formed mainly by: (TNPSC-99)

a) Candida albicans

b) Candida stellatoidea

c) Candida tropicalis

d) Candida pseudotropicalis

# Fungal infection of human beings is called as: (KAR-2000)

a) Mucorsis

b) Mycosis

c) Fungosis

d) Micromia

# Fungus capable of forming fungal ball is: (TNPSC-99)

a) Penicillium

b) Aspergillus

c) Mucor

d) Rhizopus

# Aflatoxins are produced by: (KAR-03)

a) Aspergillus niger

b) Aspergillus fumigatus

c) Aspergillus flavus

d) All of the above

# The culture media for fungus is -

a) Tellurite medium

b) NNN medium

c) Chocolate agar medium

d) Sabourauds medium

# A sporangium contains:

a)Spherules

b)Sporangiospores

c)Chlamydospores

d)Oidia

# The medium of choice for culturing yeast form of dimorphic fungi is -

a) Brain - heart infusion

b) Sabouraud's

c) Sabouraud's plus antibiotics

d) Any medium incubated at 35-37°C

# Pseudohyphae are seen in -

a) Alternaria

b) Aspergillus

c) Oosporium

d) Candida albicans

# Dermatophytes are fungi infecting -

a) Subcutaneous tissue

b) Systemic organs

c) Nails, hair and skin

d) Superficial skin and deep tissue

# Candida is most often implicated in causation -

a) Conjunctivitis

b) Tinea capitis

c) Desert rheumatism

d) Thrush

# Asexual spores of fungi are following except -

a) Arthospores

b) Chlamydospores

c) Blastospores

d) Ascospores

# Candida albicans causes all of the following except-

a) Endocarditis

b) Mycetoma

c) Meningitis

d) Oral thrush

# Transmission of all of the following intestinal parasites takes place by the feco-oral route except: (AIPG-2001)

a) Giardia lamblia

b) Ascaris lumbriocoides

c) Strongyloides

d) Entamoeba

# Hydatid cyst is: (AIIMS, AIPG-96)

a) Parasitic in nature

b) Fungal

c) Congenital

d) Viral

# Investigation of choice for invasive amoebiasis is: (AIPG-2002)

a) Indirect hemagglutination

b) ELISA

c) Counter immune electrophoresis

d) Microscopy

# L.D. bodies are seen in: (KAR-2000)

a) Kala azar

b) Toxoplasmosis

c) Malaria

d) Sleeping sickness

# Megaloblastic anemia is caused by: (KAR-97)

a) Dog tapeworm

b) Hookworm

c) Fish tapeworm

d) Threadworm

# Causative organism of Kala azar is: (KAR-97)

a) Plasmodium ovale

b) Leishmania donovani

c) Entamoeba histolytica

d) Toxoplasma

# Black Water Fever is caused by:

a)Plasmodium vivax

b)Plasmodium falciparum

c)Leishmania donovani

d)Microfilaria

# How is Gutta Percha Sterilized?

# Gutta Percha can effectively be sterilized by? (AIIMS-07)
a) Dry heat
b) Autoclaving
c) Hot salt sterilizer
d) Chemical solutions

Answer: D. Chemical Solutions

Gutta-percha cones may be kept sterile in screw-capped vials containing alcohol. A Gutta percha cone freshly removed from the manufacturer’s box should be immersed in 5.2% sodium hypochlorite for 1 minute, then rinse the cone with hydrogen peroxide and dry it between 2 layers of sterile gauze. 

MCQs on Cleft Lip and Palate - Oral Surgery

The correct answers are highlighted in green. Feel Free to share with your friends and colleagues and your Students too.

# Cleft lip is operated at what age: (MAN -01)
a) 1 month
b) 6 months
c) 10 weeks
d) 1 year

# The ideal time of repair of cleft of hard palate is: (KAR -03)

a) At birth

b) Between 3-6 months of age

c) Between 12-15 months of age

d) After 2 years of age

# The ideal time of repair of cleft lip is: (KAR -03)

a) At birth

b) Between 3-6 months of age

c) At 1 - 1 1/2 years of age

d) At 1 1/2 to 2 years of age

# Pierre Robbin syndrome is:

a) Cleft palate with syndactyly

b) Cleft palate with mand. hypoplasia and respiratory obstruction

c) Cleft lip with mandibular hypoplasia

d) Cleft lip

# Hynes pharyngoplasty is used to improve a child's:

a) Appearance

b) Teething

c) Speech

d) Feeding

# Unilateral clefts are most common on:

a) Left side

b) Right side

c) Median

d) None of the above

# Commonest type of cleft lip is:

a) Bilateral

b) Midline

c) Combined with cleft palate

d) Unilateral

# Speech problems in cleft palate patients are due to: (AIIMS -97)

a) Lisping of tongue

b) Inability of soft palate to stop air to go into nasopharynx

c) Inability of learning process

d) All of the above

# Cleft lip is due to non-union of: (AIIMS -95)

a) Maxillary process with MNP

b) MNP - LNP

c) MNP - MNP

d) All of the above

#  A prosthetic appliance given to cover the palatal defect in patients with cleft palate is called: (AIIMS -03)

a) Artificial velum

b) Obturator

c) Removable prosthetic appliance

d) None of the above

#  Surgery on the hard palate of a 3 years old cleft patient may inhibit growth, causing the facial profile to become: (AIPG -03, AIIMS -91)

a) Straight

b) Elongated

c) Shortened

d) More concave

# The repair of cleft palate is primarily done for: (PGI-06)

a) Correction of speech

b) Correction of esthetics

c) Induce growth of maxilla

d) Induce growth of mandible

# Which of the following shows the lowest frequency of cleft lip and palate? (AIPG-07)

a) Negroes

b) Afghanese

c) American Indian

d) Indian

# The oral cleft problem occurs between the period of: (KCET-07)

a) 1st and 2nd week of embryo-fetal life

b) 6th and 10th week of embryo-fetal life

c) 3rd week of fetal life

d) None of the above