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AIIMS NOVEMBER 2014 MDS ENTRANCE EXAM PAST QUESTIONS


# Which of the following is not seen in posterior triangle of neck:
A. Hypoglossal nerve
B. Subclavein vein
C. External jugular vein
D. Phrenic nerve

# Which of the following is derived from second brachial arch:
A. muscle of facial expression
B. masticatory muscles
C. mandible
D. condyle

# Two roots of auriculotemporal nerve is encircled by:
A. superficial temporarl vein
B. superficial temporal artery
C. anterior typanic artery
D. middle meningeal artery

# Which of the following factor faciliates the aggregation of platletes to exposed collagen surface:
A. von willebrand factor
B. factor VII
C. factor IX
D. fibronectin

# Which of the following acts as a secondary messanger after hormone stimulation:
A. calcium
B. copper
C. iron
D. magnesium

# Which of the following is important for wound healing?
A. Selenium
B. Magnesium
C. Calcium
D. Copper

# Which of the following inflammatory mediator causes intracellular killing of the bacteria?
A. catalase
B. IL-2
C. Lysozyme
D. Peroxidase

# Which helps lysozymes in killing of intracellular bacteria:
A. Peroxidase
B. Superoxide dismutase
C. NADPH
D. Hydrolases

# Which of the following is not seen in megaloblastic anaemia?
A. Reticulocytosis
B. Spherocytosis
C. Hypersegmented neutrophils
D. Howell jolly bodies

# Which of the following is not true about vibrio cholera:
A. is a gram positive bacteria
B. causes dehydration and weakness due to loss of electrolytes and water
C. acts by increasing CAMP and activates adenyl cyclase
D. it's toxin protein is known as cholera toxin

# Which of the following is not true about H influenza:
A. reduces factor X and V for growth
B. rarely presents as meningitis in children less than 2 months of age
C. capsular polypeptide protein is responsible for virulence
D. M.C. invasive disease of H influenza is meningitis

# Which of the following is not used as disinfectant:
A. 1-2% cetrimide
B. 100% alcohol
C. 2% lysol
D. 5% chloroxyelene

# A 10 year old boy with complain of loose motion since 1 year and pain in stomch reported. On wet amount examination of stool showed multiple ova of 100 micron dimension. Which of the following could not be the causative agent:
A. Echinostorum ileocaxnum
B. Gastrodiscoides hominis
C. Fasciola gigantic
D. Opisthorcis veverrani

# Which of the following is indicative of high infective stage:
A. Anti HbsAg
B. HbsAg
C. HbeAg
D. Anti HbsAg

# Drug of choice for acute bacterial meningitis:
A. Ceftriaxone
B. Sulphamethazole
C. Erythromycin
D. Cefotetan

# Which of the following doesnot act by competitive inhibition:
A. Statin
B. Dihydroxyfluorohydroxylate (DPH)
C. Sulphadiazine
D. Methotrexate

# Anti rabies vaccine is not advised in which of the following:
A. Dog bite
B. Monkey bite
C. Cat bite
D. Rat bite

# A 45 year old female diabetic patient on insulin is brought to hospital in unconscious state. What is the first thing you will do :
A. IV Insulin
B. IV infusion of dextrose
C. IV dexamethasone injection
D. Blood glucose test evaluation

# A 27 year old lady with 17 week of pregnancy having a child with Downs syndrome reported to clinic. She doesnot want another baby with down syndrome. What will you advise to the patient:
A. Tell her amniotic fluid examination with chromosomal analysis can accurately detect the anomaly
B. No need to worry as down syndrome occurs in pregnancy after age of 30
C. Tell her chromosomal analysis of blood of patient will detect down syndrome precisely
D. Tell her USG scan accurately detect the anomaly

# A patient was prescribed carbamazepine for treatment of seizures. Which of the following is true about carbamazepine:
A. Carbamazepine doesnot causes agranulocytosis
B. There is no correlation between serum level and control of epilepsy
C. The serum level above 40gm/ml is usually fatal
D. It is a nephrotoxic drug

# In case of patient with blood transfusion, delayed transfusion reaction is seen after 4 days. Which of the following symptoms will not be seen:
A. Hemoglobinuria
B. Decrease Hb
C. Positive DAT test
D. Spherocytosis in peripherial blood smear

# A patient with H. Pylori infection is treated with drugs. The best method to detect presence of residual H. pylori infection in this person is:
A. Bacteria culture of stool
B. Urea breath test
C. Gastric acid test
D. Sweat chloride test

# A patient has undergone multiple platelete transfusion which is not responding despite repeated paltelet transfusion. The best treatment is:
A. HLA matched plateletes
B. Irradiated platelets transfer
C. Platelets transfusion from single donor
D. Random platelet transfer

# Which of the following is not true regarding the difference between primary and permanent teeth:
A. Decidious teeth are more whiter than permanent teeth
B. Decidious teeth mesiodistal dimension is more than its crown height
C. They have longer and narrower roots as compared to crown
D. Facial and lingual cervical third of anterior primary teeth are less prominent than those of permanent

# Rank order of permanent deformation to strain in compression in increasing order for non aqueous elastomeric impression material is:
A. Addition silicone, condensation silicone, polyether, polysulphide
B. Polyether, addition silicone, polysulphide, condensation silicone
C. polyether, polysulphide, addition silicone, condensation silicone
D. condensation silicone, polysulphide, addition silicone, polyether

# Most biocompatible elastomeric impression material is:
A. polysulphide
B. polyether
C. additional silicone
D. condesation silicone

# Gelation temperature for agar is ...... degreee celcius:
A. 37-38
B. 35-37
C. 25-35
D. 18-20

# Which of the following is true in conversion of monomer to polymer:
A. Density changes from 0.94gm/cm3 to 1.19gm/cm3 percentage shrinkage is 7%
B. Density changes from 0.94gm/cm3 to 1.19gm/cm3 percentage shrinkage is 21%
C. Density changes from 1.19gm/cm3 to 0.094gm/cm3 percentage shrinkage is 7%
D. Density changes from 1.19gm/cm3 to 0.094gm/cm3 percentage shrinkage is 21%

# Calcination process of beta hemihydrate is done in:
A. in presence of air
B. in abscence of air
C. under steam pressure in autoclave
D. dehydrate in boiling solution of CaCl2

# The animal test used to test the biocompatibility of dental materials are all except:
A. Bullehar test
B. Ames test
C. LD 50
D. Implantation test

# Second amalgam war was started by:
A. GV Black
B. Brucells
C. Howells
D. Alferd stock

# Not true about type I impression compound are:
A. According to ADA specification it is known as type I impression material
B. undue manipulation and kneading can cause water incorporation wihich increases flow of material in mouth
C. it is soften in hot water bath
D. it is soften directly over flame even if required in samll quantity

# Which of the following is common with amalgama and ceramic:
A. Increased compressive strength and reduced tensile strength
B. Increased compressive strength and increased tensile strength
C. Reduced compressive strength and reduced tensile strength
D. Reduced compressive strength and increased tensile strength

# Which of the following have least shelf life period:
A. polysulphide
B. polyether
C. additional silicone
D. condesation silicone

# Which of the following is Mucostatic impression material:
A. Impression compound
B. ZOE
C. Wax
D. Plater of paris

# Localized shrinkage porosity in casting is caused due to:
A. incomplete elimination of wax
B. air bubbles trapped
C. too rapid cooling
D. too thick casting

# A 40 year women has ameloblastoma, the histopathological feature will be:
A. peripherial palisading with central stroma retraction artefact
B. peripherial palisading cellular strand with central loose stellate reticulum
C. central loose stellate reticulum shows marked nuclear atypia and numerous mitotic figure
D. peripherial palisading cellular strand with peripherial loose stellate reticulum

# Mutation of Homeobox(HOX) gene is responsible for:
A. Holoprosencephaly
B. Mayer Rokitansky syndrome
C. Synpolydactyly
D. Gorlin syndrome

# According to revised classification TNM stands for:
A. Tumor, node, metastasis
B. Tumor, necrosis, metastasis
C. Tumror, necrosis, metaplasia
D. Trauma, node, metastasis

# Fixative used in histopathology:
A. Glutaraldehyde
B. 10% buffered neutral formalin
C. Bouins fixative
D. Ethyl alcohol

# Which of the following is not true about fixative:
A. kills microorganism
B. prevent autolysis
C. used as fixative
D. 2% formalin is used

# Which of the following is seen in basal cell carcinoma:
A. Epithelial palisading
B. Psammoma bodies
C. Keratin pearls
D. Foam cells

# A 12 year old child complains of flat base skull, flat nasal bridge, copious nasal discharge, thick lips, large tongue, large head with enlarged liver and spleen is suffering from which syndrome :
A. Hurlers syndrome
B. Proteus syndrome
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Beckwith Wiedemann syndrome

# Cleft lip and palate is:
A. Multifactorial trait
B. Monogenic trait
C. Polygenic trait
D. Single gene determined

# Ocular fiibrous histiocytoma most commonly occurs in which of the following location:
A. Intraocular
B. Extrabulbar
C. Upper eyelid
D. Orbit

# Most radiosensitive cell is:
A. Lymphoid
B. Mucos
C. Bacal cell layer
D. Neurons

# Which of the following is most appropriate method of bone sounding in recent years:
A. Probing
B. CBCT
C. Radiography
D. Radiovisiography

# The method used for taking only hard tissue graft from donor site wiithout damaging surrounding vital tissue like vessel and nerve is based on principle of:
A. Piezoelctric vibrations
B. Electrosurgery
C. Cryosurgery
D. Osteotome

# Which of the following structure is present in periodontal ligament:
A. Mature elasic fibres
B. Fibronectin
C. Myelinated nerve fibres
D. Angioblast and undifferentiated cell

# Which of the following is not associated with chronic gingival periodontal diseases:
A. Lymphocyte
B. Mast cell
C. Plasma cell
D. Neutrophil

# Best method to clean exposed root concavities:
A. Dental floss
B. Dental floss with handle
C. Interdental toothpick
D. Interdental brush

# Bacteria seen in NUG:
A. Spirochete and fusobacterium
B. Actinomyces and fusobacterium
C. P. gingivalis and fusobacterium
D. Prevotella and Fusobacterium

# Rapidly progressive periodontitis is caused by:
A. A. comitans and capnocytophaga
B. P. gingivalis and capnocytophaga
C. A. comitans and P. gingivalis
D. P. gingivalis and T. Forysthus

# Initial bacteria colonising pellicle formation are:
A. Gram positive facultative microbes
B. Gram negative facultative microbes
C. Grma positive aerobic
D. Gram positive and negative facultative microbes

# Midline discripiancy in maxillary central incisor in a 10 year old child can be most appropriately detected by:
A. PA Cephalogram
B. Retracting upper lip and checking with maxillary frenum
C. Retracting lower lip and checking with frenum
D. Correlating the maxillary midline with base of the nose

# Which of the following orthowire has the least modulus of elasticity:
A. NiTi
B. Beta Titanium
C. Stainless steel
D. Cobalt Chromium

# According to the NORMS of the orthodontic study models, the total height of maxillary and mandibular should be close to:
A. 55mm
B. 60mm
C. 70mm
D. 90mm

# Which of the following component is not considered for IOTN:
A. Bimaxillary protrusion
B. DHC dental health component
C. Cleft lip and palate
D. Esthetic component

# Increase in weight of a child after 1 year of birth as compared to weight at birth is:
A. 100%
B. 200%
C. 300%
D. 50%

# Which of the following is the characteristic feature of dolichocephalic arches:
A. Long and narrow
B. Long and broad
C. Short and narrow
D. Short and broad

#In a patient with class II div I malocclusion with increased overjet of 5mm which of the following is true:
A. will be hyperactive
B. more leads to periodontitis
C. leads to midline diestema
D. more prone to trauma

# A dentist going to restore class II cavity of mandibular posterior teeth with proximal box wide buccolingually, which wedge you will use around cervical margin?
A. Single wedging
B. Double wedging
C. Wedge wedging
D. None of the above

# LA with adrenaline if injected intravenously what will be the result:
A. Hypertension with tachycardia
B. Hypotension with tachycardia
C. Hypotension with bradycardia
D. Hypertension with bradycardia

# In a hypertensive patient on beta blockers, an injection of LA + Adrenaline will cause:
A. Hypertension with tachycardia
B. Hypotension with tachycardia
C. Hypotension with bradycardia
D. Hypertension with bradycardia

# Combination of which of the following drugs is used for day care surgery?
A. Fentanyl, propofol, isoflurane
B. Pethidine, propofol, isoflurane
C. Thiopentone, pethidine, halothane
D. Thiopentone, isoflurane, fentanyl

# Which of the following is not true about throat pack:
A. done when patient is awake
B. should be done after induction of GA
C. prevents soiling of trachea
D. prevents contamination of pharynx or prevents entry of blood into oesophagus

# A 5 year old child was given infraorbital blockLA injection for upper right decidious central incisor. Following injection, the child starts, cries and develop swelling in lower eyelid and complains of burning sensation of eye on the same side, it is due to:
A. due to preservative in LA, it will subside on its own
B. LA reaches the lower eye after diffusion through infraorbital foramen
C. course of middle sup alveolar artery is uncertain
D. it is simple cry, ignore and start treatment

# True regarding throat pack in oral surgery:
A. given to all the patient undergoing oral surgical procedure
B. given during intubation with cuffed tubes
C. given during intubation with uncuffed tubes
D. given to all patients with MLA

# To prevent overexposure of operatory room staff from Nitrous oxide. Most sensitive indicator in dental clinic is:
A. Dosimete
B. Laminar flow
C. Vaccum suction
D. Infrared spectrophotometer

# In case of surgery of gingival tissue in patient with prosthetic heart valve replacement, which of the following is true:
A. Antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended
B. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not recommended
C. 0.2% chlorohexidine mouthwash is sufficient
D. No specific measures

# One of the following involved in transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation causes alleviaation of pain by:
A. Gate control theory of pain
B. Allodynia
C. Reffered pain
D. Central pain

# In 10 year old pedo patient undergoing gap arthroplasty, the best method of intubation is:
A. Tracheostomy
B. Topical anaesthesia + sedation
C. GA
D. Awake fiberoptic intubation

# A patient experiences post operative nausea and vomiting after dental treatment is due to all except:
A. Opoid
B. ingested blood
C. Nitrous oxide
D. Acetaminophen

# After Lefort I osteotomy, midpalatine split of maxilla is first done in which direction:
A. Superiorly
B. Inferiorly
C. Transverse plane
D. Anteroposteriorly

# What is true about nasal RAE endotracheal tube:
A. can be done in case of basal skull fracture
B. keeps patient intubated in post operative period
C. indicated when surgical manipulation of nose required
D. keeps surgical field free during surgery

# A 10 year old child having unusually small mandible and chin, true is?
A. will be corrected by pubertal spurt growth
B. high chances of developing snoring and sleep apnoea
C. the treatment should be done after surgery
D. the child will catch up growth during prepubertal growth

# In case of tooth development size of tooth is determined in which age:
A. morphodifferentiation
B. histodifferentiation
C. maturation
D. calcification

# A child of 10-11 years old, who cannot follow the demonstration of tooth brushing technique, has which of the following IQ level:
A. 90-109
B. 70-75
C. 36-51
D. 50-70

# A 12 year old child complains of pain with upper right posterior teeth. His mother gives history that he was suffering from frequent cold and fever. On clinical examination you do not find any carious lesion with concerned tooth. What will you do?
A. Extract 54 56 as they are over retained
B. Refer to physician for evaluation of maxillary sinus
C. do vitlaity test of 54 55 16
D. No treatment

# In case of thick labial frenum which of the following muscle fibres are inserted:
A. Orbicularis oris
B. Buccinator
C. Alveo palatine muscle
D. Platysma

# In complete denture, arrangement of lower posterior teeth too far lingually from ridge causes all except:
A. Excessive forces on lower arch
B. Crippling of tongue
C. Gagging reflex
D. Problems in speech

# Knowledge of incubation period is important for all of the following except:
A. to differentiate co-primary causes and secondary causes
B. to determine the period of isolation
C. to determine the period of quarantine
D. to prevent illness amongst contacts of infected person

# In national water supply and sanitation programme a problem village is defined as all except:
A. water sources has excess iron and heavy metals
B. water is exposed to rhe risk of cholera
C. water infected with Guniea worm
D. distance of safe water is greater than 1.6mm

# Which of the following is not the part of NRHM:
A. strengthening of JSY(Jananu Suraksha Yojna)
B. formation of health and family welfare societies
C. state and district health mission
D. recruitment and training of ASHA

# Infant mortality rate doesnot include:
A. Preneonatal death
B. Postneonatal death
C. Lateneonatal death
D. Still birth

# Recall bias is most commonly seen in:
A. Cross sectional study
B. Cohort study
C. Randomized clinical trial
D. Case control study

# The comprehensive school based dental care for whole country is adopted by:
A. USA
B. New Zealand
C. Australia
D. Sweden

# All of the following are contraindication of DPT vaccine except:
A. Immunocompromised state
B. Patient having previous history of convulsion
C. progressive neurological disease
D. sever reaction of first dose or subsequent doses

# In a study performed in UK, a relationship was found between the sale of anti-asthma drug and the cause of death occuring asthma(1980-1995) over a period of 15 years. This is a type of which study:
A. Experimental study
B. Case-control study
C. Cohort study
D. Ecological study

# The pattern of change of disease trends of mortality and morbidity where the pandemics of infection are replaced by degenerative and man made disorder as the main cause of morbidity and mortality is known as:
A. Epidemiological transition
B. Demographic transition
C. Reversal of transition
D. Paradoxical transition

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