Abutment teeth in a fixed partial denture

 # What is the primary reason why dentists splint adjacent abutment teeth in a fixed partial denture?

A. Improve spacing mesiodistally

B. Stabilize abutment teeth

C. Improve embrasure contours

D. Improve the distribution of the occlusal load 

The correct answer is D. Improve the distribution of the occlusal load 

Abutment teeth are included in fixed partial dentures to provide retention and help disperse the occlusal load placed on the restoration.

Abutment teeth provides support and stability to the pontic.

Abutment teeth allows better distribution of the occlusal forces acting on all teeth and pontic in the fixed partial denture.

MCQs in Periodontology - Periodontal Instrumentation

# All of the following are contraindications for root planing except:
A. deficient or overhanging margins of amalgam restorations
B. erosion and/or abrasion
C. recession
D. root caries

# While sharpening curettes and sickles, the internal angle of ________ must be preserved between the face and lateral surface.
A. 50-60
B. 60-70
C. 70-80
D. 80-90

MCQs in Oral Radiology - Biological Effects of Radiation

# Which of the following are most sensitive to X ray?
A. Tooth buds and salivary glands
B. Nerve and muscle tissue
C. Hair and nails
D. Cartilage

# The most radiosensitive cells in the body are:
A. Endothelial cells
B. Epithelial cells
C. Red blood cells
D. White blood cells

MCQs in Periodontology - Gingivitis

# A thin bluish line around the gingival margin is due to the absorption of:
A. Silver
B. Mercury
C. Drugs like Tetracycline
D. Lead

# McCall's festoons are:
A. also called Stillman's clefts
B. due to poor oral hygiene
C. Congenital abnormality
D. Due to trauma from occlusion

MCQs on Growth and Development - Orthodontics

# Growth site of the mandible is in the :

A. Body
B. Condylar cartilage
C. Coronoid process
D. Ramus

# Maxilla develops by :
A. Endochondral bone formation
B. Intramembranous bone formation
C. cartilage replacement and intramembranous bone formation
D. mostly cartilage replacement and a little by intramembranous

MCQs on Etiology of Malocclusion - Orthodontics

# Malocclusion can be progressive in:
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Combination of both class I and Class III

# Retained mandibular deciduous central incisors will result in:
A. Lingual eruption of mandibular permanent incisors
B. Labial eruption of mandibular permanent incisors
C. Impaction of mandibular permanent incisors
D. Ankylosis of mandibular permanent incisors

MCQs on Development of Dentition - Orthodontics

# In children, median diastema between maxillary permanent incisors closes with the eruption of:
A. Maxillary permanent first premolars
B. Maxillary permanent lateral incisors
C. Maxillary permanent canines
D. Maxillary permanent second molars

# The average "Leeway space" available in each half of the maxilla is approximately:
A. 0.9 mm
B. 2.9 mm
C. 4.0 mm
D. 6.9 mm

MCQs on Child Psychology - Pedodontics

# Most realistic approach in managing a difficult child in dental clinic is:
A. Disregard the behavior of child
B. Make child familiar with clinical atmosphere
C. Physical methods to make child accept the treatment
D. None of the above

# Hand over mouth exercise (HOME) is effective behavioral modification technique in the age group of:
A. 3 to 6 years
B. Under 3 years
C. 6 to 9 years
D. Above 9 years

MCQs on Removable Partial Dentures : Introduction and Classification

# Class IV Kennedy classification is:
A. Bilateral edentulous area located posterior to the remaining natural teeth
B. Unilateral edentulous area located posterior to the remaining natural teeth
C. Unilateral edentulous area with natural teeth remaining both anterior and posterior to it
D. A single but bilateral (crossing the midline) edentulous area located anterior to the remaining natural teeth

# A distal extension partial denture receives its support :
A. From terminal abutments
B. Equally from abutments and the residual ridges
C. Mostly from residual ridge
D. Exclusively from residual ridge

MBBS / BDS Medical Entrance Examination - Reproductive System MCQs

# Cowper's gland is a:
A. Male Sex Gland
B. Female Sex Gland
C. A kind of endocrine gland
D. A kind of digestive gland

# Cowper's gland is present in:
A. Frog
B. Earthworm
C. Cockroach
D. Rabbit

MBBS / BDS Medical Entrance Examination - MCQs on Sense Organs

# Acoustic spot in each ampulla of human ear is known as:
A. Otolith
B. Organ of Corti
C. Crista
D. Macula

# In internal ear, sensory pathces are situated in:
A. membranous labyrinth
B. cochlea
C. stapedial plate
D. Fenestra ovalis

MBBS / BDS Medical Entrance Examination - Nervous System MCQs

# Longest Cranial Nerve is:
A. Occulomotor
B. Vagus
C. Abducent
D. Occipital

# Number of cranial nerve in rabbit is ____ pairs.
A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12

# The lobe of brain where visual stimuli are received and analysed is:
A. Frontal
B. Temporal
C. Parietal
D. Occipital

MBBS / BDS Medical Entrance Examination - Digestive System and Nutrition MCQs

CLICK HERE TO VIEW ALL THE ANSWERS FOR RAPID REVISION.

# Micelles are the bodies related to:
A. Secretion of hormones
B. Secretion of enzymes
C. Absorption of minerals
D. Absorption of fat

# Movements of circular muscles in the stomach is called
A. Digestion
B. Absorption
C. Excretion
D. Peristalsis

Oral Pathology MCQs - Viral Infections

# The feature that distinguishes Herpes Zoster from other Vesiculobullous eruptions is :
A. Unilateral occurence
B. Severe burning pain
C. Prominent crusting vesicles
D. Subepidermal bullous formation

# A 3 year old child has a fever of 102 degrees F ; and following upper respiratory tract infection discrete vesicles and ulcers on the soft palate and pharynx are noted. The most probable diagnosis is :
A. Herpangina
B. Scarlet fever
C.Rubella
D. Herpetic gingivostomatitis

# Intra nuclear inclusions detected during the course of Herpes simplex virus infection are called:
A. Bacteriophages
B. Lipschutz bodies
C. Negri bodies
D. Donovan bodies

# Coxsackie virus causes:
A. Infectious mononucleosis
B. Lymphoma
C. Herpangina
D. Herpes

# Koplik spots :
A. first manifestation of measles
B. rarely seen in measles
C. are seen 2-3 days after cutaneous rashes
D. is first manifestation but seldom seen

# Recurrent ulcers occuring on gingiva and palate are most probably:
A. Aphthous ulcers
B. Herpes simplex
C. Koplik spots
D. Lesions of Behcet's syndrome

# Which of the following is associated with HIV infection ?
A. Hairy Leukoplakia
B. Erythroplakia
C. Oral Lichen Planus
D. Bullous Pemphigoid

# Primary herpetic lesions involving the gingiva are most likely to occur during ages:
A. 1-5 years
B. 6-12 years
C. 13-16 years
D. They are likely to occur at any ages

# Inflammation of the dorsal root ganglion and vesicular eruption of the skin and mucous membrane in area supplied by a sensory nerve that is affected is characteristic of :
A. Herpes Zoster
B. Herpes Simplex
C. Uveoparotid fever
D. Aphthous stomatitis


# Mumps is caused by :
A. Orthomyxo virus
B. Paramyxo virus
C. Rheno virus
D. EB virus

# The reason why most patients suffering from recurrent Herpes labialis rarely give a history of having acute form of the Herpetic gingivostomatitis is because:
A. Etiological agents differ
B. The acute form occurs only in severely immunocompromised individuals
C. The primary infection was subclinical
D. The patient has received antibodies during intrauterine life and the antibodies have persisted

# In Herpes, primary lesion is:
A. Ulcer
B. Papule
C. vesicle
D. Bullae

# Which of the following medications shortens the recovery period of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis?
A. Acyclovir
B. Zidovudine
C. Kenalog in Orabase
D. All of the above

# The cranial nerve involved in Ramsay Hunt Syndrome is :
A. Trigeminal
B. Facial
C. Glossopharyngeal
D. Occulomotor

# All about Herpangina are false EXCEPT:
A. May lead to high grade fever
B. May cause dysphagia
C. May lead to vesicles formation in anterior part of mouth around 20-30 in number
D. Anterior portion of mouthhave only minor vesicles

# Herpetiformis vesicles, which rupture and leave areas of superficial intraoral ulcers are caused by:
A. Varicella Zoster Virus
B. Herpes Zoster Virus
C. Coxsackie Virus
D. None of the above

Seven Reasons Why You Should Marry A Dentist

For all those people who are never tired of making dentist jokes and laughing at them, they really need to know these seven reasons why they should marry a dentist. And dentists, well, they can pat on their backs for being such a desirable match. Here are the seven out of the hundreds of reasons to marry a dentist.

1. You'll never have to worry about your teeth and your lovely smile

Six Reasons Why You Should Do MDS After BDS

Well, the greatest dilemma freshly graduated Dental Surgeons face in their life that whether they should do MDS after BDS or not. They are disinclined to join MDS after completing BDS because all their vigor and enthusiasm is already exhausted by the rigorous five and a half year course of BDS. On the top of that, the seats in MDS are too few that it necessitates an excruciatingly painful toil to get through the competitive entrance exams and secure a seat.

Dentist

Who is a Dentist / Dental Surgeon ?

A dentist is a person who is licensed by the nation or state's licensing body to practice dentistry independently. He can either run a private practice or work as a government employee or an employee in other's clinic. A dentist can examine and diagnose the disease of your oral cavity, perform restorations, rectify maloccluded teeth by the use of removable and fixed orthodontic appliances, extract your tooth, provide partial or complete / removable dental prostheses, etc. The dentist deals not only with the teeth, the rest of the soft tissues like tongue, palate, buccal and labial mucosa are also dealt by the dentist. Extra-oral lesions, swellings, and tumors of the head and neck region too come to the attention of the dentist first. Some facial reconstruction surgeries, surgical correction of cleft lips and palates, implants,etc. all come under the duties of a dentist or dental surgeon.