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# Which of the following MOST ACCURATELY describes osseointegrated dental implants?
A. They create a pseudo-periodontal ligament
B. They create a junctional epithelium with the surrounding tissue
C. They are attached directly to living bone as determined by analysis by radiographs and light microscopy
D. They possess a direct structural and functional connection with bone only at the radiographic level of detection


The correct answer is C. They are attached directly to living bone as determined by analysis by radiographs and light microscopy.

Osseointegrated implants are implants that
are able to create a direct interface with
bone cells after they grow and interlock,
without any interposing layer of soft tissue.
In the process of osseointegration, the bone
directly attaches to the implant material
because the titanium oxide fuses with the
surrounding bone.

In osseoinegration, no scar, fibrous or
connective tissues get in between the bone
and the implant material. osseointegration
can be verified through microscopic and
radiographic images as well as by tapping
the implant with a mirror and hearing a
sharp metallic ring (not a dull thud).

The use of titanium for osseointegration
was discovered by Per-Ingvar Branemark in 1952.

Most common reason for a crown not to fully seat upon delivery

# What is the most common reason for a crown not to fully seat upon delivery?
A. Excessive proximal contacts
B. Over extended margins
C. Undercuts on the axial surfaces of the prepared
tooth
D. Positives on the intaglio surface


The correct answer is A. Excessive proximal contacts. 

Excessive proximal contacts are sometimes accidentally made by dental technicians effort to prevent open contacts on their fabricated dental crown/ bridge.

The respective tooth preparations on the
die casts are sawed to separate each component and provide better visualization
of the prep. Dental technicians may accidentally scrape a portion of the contact
area of the adjacent teeth causing a future
excessive contact in the final crown restoration.

Excessive contacts can also be created
when wax patterns are not immediately
invested, causing dimensional changes in
the final restoration.

Which of the following organisms is an intracellular parasite

# Which of the following organisms is an intracellular parasite?
A. Nocardia asteroides
B. Coccidioides immitis
C. Histoplasma capsulatum
D. Aspergillus flavus
E. Cryptococcus neoformans


The correct answer is C. Histoplasma capsulatum.

Histoplasma capsulatum is a type of fungi
which is the main cause of histoplasmosis
infection. This is an intracelular parasite of
macrophages that commonly causes
fungal respiratory infection in the US.


Acute arthritis of the great (big) toe is a diagnostic sign

# Acute arthritis of the great (big) toe is a diagnostic sign of which of the following diseases?
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Osteomyelitis
C. Gout
D. Osteoporosis
E. Rheumatoid arthritis


The correct answer is C. Gout. 

The acute arthritis of the big toe is a
pathognomonic sign of Podagra or Gout.
What distinguishes Gout from others is that,
it usually occurs in one of the joints in the
body, however, about 50% are said to occur
in the big toe. This disease is also referred
to as "disease of the kings" or "the rich
man's disease".

Chemotherapy for Leukemia

# A patient receiving chemotherapy for leukemia is highly susceptible to develop which oral infection?
A. Candidiasis
B. Actinomycosis
C Histoplasmosis
D. Coccidioidomycosis
E. Blastomycosis


The correct answer is A. Candidiasis. 

Immunocompromised patients are more susceptible to candidiasis, the fungal infection caused by Candida albicans. A patient with leukemia has lower than normal functioning leukocytes. This, coupled with chemotherapy which aims to
reduce the number of abnormal leukocytees, leaves the patient in a very
immunosuppressed state. 

Other examples of cases where a patient
would be susceptible to candidiasis include
patients taking antibiotics for a extended
periods or patients infected with HIV.

Bacterial Descriptor conflicts with another one

# Which one of these bacterial descriptors conflict with the other five?
A. Gram positive
B. Proteobacteria
C. Gram negative
E. Thin peptidoglycan 
D. Pink in a Gram stain 


The correct answer is A. Gram positive. 

Proteobacteria, a pink Gram result, an outer
membrane, and thin peptidoglycan are all
characteristic of Gram NEGATIVE bacteria
such as E. coli.

Note: This question has conflicting
answers regarding gram positive and gram
negative characteristics. 







Nerve running along the nasal septum

 # Which of the following nerves runs along the nasal septum?
A. Nasopalatine
B. Greater palatine
C. Pharyngeal
D. Posterolateral nasal


The correct answer is A. Nasopalatine.

Nasopalatine nerve 
-Exits Pterygopalatine fossa through Sphenopalatine foramen which takes it into the nasal cavity.
- Runs anterior-inferiorly along the nasal septum.
- Passes through incisive foramen of maxilla to reach the anterior hard palate.

The nasopalatine nerve supplies the posterior part of the nasal septum.

The anterior ethmoidal nerve, a branch of V1, supplies the anterior part of the nasal septum.

The flexible part of the nasal septum by the nostril opening is supplied by the nasal branch of the infraorbital nerve.