MCQs on Cariology : Diagnosis and Treatment Planning

# Which of the following is true of caries?
A. It is infectious and transmissible
B. Non infectious but transmissible
C. Multifactorial, transmissible but not infectious
D. Not multifactorial, not transmissible

# Which of the following microorganisms are associated with the active progression of cavitated lesions?
A. Mutant Streptococci
B. Streptococcus ferus
C. Lactobacilli
D. Streptococcus rattus

# Which of the following Streptococcus mutans is responsible for development of dental caries on the occlusal surfaces?
A. Serotype c
B. Serotype I
C. Serotype a
D. Serotype E

# The pH at which the remineralisation of damaged tooth structure occurs is said to be:
A. 5.5
B. 2.5
C. 3.5
D. 6.2

# Which of the following microorganisms prevents the colonization of Streptococcus mutans by the action termed as colonization resistance?
A. Lactobacilli
B. Actinomyces
C. Streptococcus sanguis
D. All of the above

# Which of the following organisms is associated with increased incidence of caries?
A. S. sanguis
B. S. mitis
C. S. aureus
D. S. rattus

# Root caries is alarming because:
A. It is near to apex
B. It is symptomatic
C. It is not seen
D. It has rapid progression

# Which of the following is not the basis for caries classification?
A. Aetiology
B. Location
C. Progression
D. History of the symptoms

# According to Black's classification caries on the lingual pits of maxillary central incisors are:
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class IV

# Black's classification of a class IV cavity is:
A. Fracture of the incisal angle without caries
B. Proximal caries lesion which doesn't include the incisal angle
C. Cavity present only on the incisal edges
D. A class II cavity extending to include incisal edges

# Chronic dental caries manifests as:
A. Brown pigmented lesion
B. Undermining of the enamel
C. Greater depth than width
D. Severe pain on stimulation

# All the following are true for non-active caries, EXCEPT:
A. Pain on excavation
B. Soft and cheesy
C. Dark and hard
D. Presence of dark pigmentation

# Slow caries leading to formation of black, hard, cleansable dentin is called as:
A. Reparative dentin
B. Secondary dentin
C. Eburnated dentin
D. Arrested dentin

# In which type of lesions eburnation of the dentine is seen?
A. Acute caries
B. Chronic caries
C. Arrested caries
D. Root caries

# Odontoclastoma is synonymous with:
A. Cervical resorption
B. Internal resorption
C. Odontoblastoma
D. Odontome

# Caries occurring on more than two surfaces is known as:
A. Simple
B. Compound
C. Complex
D. Multiple

# Whenever the caries cone in enamel is larger or at least the same size as that in dentin, it is called as:
A. Residual caries
B. Recurrent caries
C. Forward caries
D. Backward caries

# The caries of enamel surface leads to accentuation of:
A. Incremental lines of Retzius
B. Perikymata
C. Imbrication lines of Pickerill
D. Wickham's striae

# The largest pore volume is present in which zone of incipient caries?
A. Translucent zone
B. Dark zone
C. Body of the lesion
D. Surface zone

# White spot in enamel is due to:
A. Increased phosphate
B. Decreased enamel porosity
C. Enamel hypoplasia
D. Increased enamel porosity

# Small carious lesions have been divided into:
A. Two zones
B. Three zones
C. Four zones
D. Seven zones

# In the carious process, the initial dissolution of the tooth substance by acid takes place in which of the following place?
A. Below the dentin surface
B. Below the enamel surface
C. On the enamel surface
D. Towards the dentin

# Turbid dentin in carious tooth is all EXCEPT:
A. Zone of bacterial invasion
B. Zone which cannot be remineralized
C. Zone in which collagen is irreversibly damaged
D. Zone that need not be removed before restoration

# Infected dentine shows:
A. Both organic and inorganic components in reversible form
B. Both organic and inorganic components in irreversible form
C. Organic components in irreversible form and inorganic components in reversible form
D. Inorganic component in reversible form and organic component in reversible

# Senile caries most frequently occurs on:
A. Proximal surfaces of the posterior teeth
B. Proximal surfaces of the anterior teeth
C. Root surfaces of both anteriors and posteriors
D. Proximal surfaces of both anteriors and posteriors

# Proximal caries usually starts at or in:
A. Contact areaa
B. Gingival to contact area
C. Above contact area below marginal ridge
D. Gingival to free gingival margin

# The "Fluoride bombs" is related to:
A. A fluoride capsule with high ppm of fluoride varnish
B. A hypoplastic lesion on tooth seen in fluorosis areas
C. Undiagnosed hidden caries
D. Procedure to treat rampant caries

# Covert caries is:
A. Rampant caries
B. Pit and fissure caries
C. Smooth surface caries
D. Arrested caries

# The type of carious lesion seen in individuals with low caries rate and fluoride exposure is:
A. Incipient caries
B. Occult caries
C. Smooth surface caries
D. Recurrent caries

# Which of the following classification of caries is based on the healing capacity of enamel and dentin?
A. GV Black
B. Buam classification
C. Finn modification of Black's classification
D. Mount and Hume

# Enamel microfractures and wedge shaped defects due to flexure of tooth is called:
A. Attrition
B. Abrasion
C. Abfraction
D. Ablation

# Caries spread in class II lesion may be described as:
A. Double cone effect with bases towards the outer surface
B. Double cone effect with bases towards the pulp
C. Double cone effect with bases facing each other
D. Single cone effect with base towards pulp

# Progression of dental caries on pit and fissure occurs from:
A. Apex of the pit and fissures
B. Wide end of the pit and fissure
C. Lateral surface of the pit and fissure
D. Bottom of the pit and fissure

# Caries activity is more in persons suffering from:
A. Xerostomia
B. Parkinsonism
C. Down's syndrome
D. All of the above

# Approximately how much time is required for progression of incipient lesion to clinical cavitated caries on smooth surface?
A. 10 +/- 6 months
B. 18 +/- 6 months
C. 25 +/- 8 months
D. 13 +/- 3 months

# Diagnosis of caries can be made clinically sometimes but accurate diagnosis cannot be made without radiographs.
A. Only the first statement is correct
B. Both the statements are correct
C. Both the statements are wrong
D. Only the second statement is correct

# Good supplement to radiographs in diagnosing class II caries clinically is:
A. Caries activity tests
B. Examine color changes below marginal ridges
C. Mirror and explorer
D. Vitality tests

# In diagnosing the carious lesions, the tooth surface is examined visually and tactilely. Which of the following is not considered as visual examination?
A. Cavitations
B. Surface roughness
C. Opacification
D. Softness of the tooth surface

# Diagnosis of small occlusal cavities is most readily made by:
A. Bite wing radiographs
B. Periapical radiographs
C. Transillumination
D. An explorer and compressed air

# Proximal caries can be detected best with:
A. Intraoral periapical radiographs
B. Bitewing radiographs
C. Occlusal radiographs
D. Orthopantomographs

# The overall accuracy of bitewing radiograph to detect smooth surface caries is said to be:
A. 40 to 65 %
B. 20 to 30 %
C. 90 to 100 %
D. 10 to 20 %

# When all the diagnostic procedures fail to detect proximal caries, last resort is:
A. Mechanical separation
B. Preparation of test cavity
C. Transillumination
D. Caries activity tests

# To observe a recurrent caries under a class II amalgam restoration, vertical angulation of the X rays should be:
A. Perpendicular to the film placed
B. Perpendicular to the occlusal surface of the tooth
C. Parallel to buccolingual plane of gingival surface of restoration
D. Perpendicular to the cavosurface bevels in proximal box

# A proximal carious lesion in a radiograph is:
A. Usually larger than clinically
B. Smaller than clinically
C. Same as clinically
D. An incipient lesion

# Caries associated with pre eruptive enamel hypoplasia:
A. Secondary caries
B. Chronic caries
C. Occult caries
D. Incipient caries

# In bitewing radiograph, occlusal pit caries of enamel appears as a:
A. Circular radiolucent area
B. Triangular radiolucent area with its base towards the dentin-enamel junction
C. Triangular radiolucent area with its base towards the surface
D. Vertical radiolucent line

# Pain in cracked tooth syndrome is:
A. Continuous in nature
B. Variable as the name indicates
C. Elicited mainly when pressure is applied
D. ELicited mainly when applied pressure is relieved

# Instrument that detects pit and fissure caries is a:
A. Probe
B. Pigtail (curved cowhorn)
C. Sickle scaler
D. Shepherd's crook

# Which of the following is not true for artificial sweetner aspartame?
A. is an ester derivative
B. 200 times more sweeter than sugar
C. can be safely given in type 1 diabetes
D. calorific value is 4 Kcal

# As per the Stephan curve, once the plaque pH has fallen. How long does it take to return to neutrality?
A. 5 to 15 minutes
B. 10 to 30 minutes
C. 20 to 60 minutes
D. 15 to 45 minutes

# Transillumination is used to assess:
A. Vitality
B. Periapical abscess
C. Tooth sensitivity
D. Vertical fracture

# Color dye detector is used for:
A. Detecting incipient carious lesion
B. Caries susceptibility
C. Differentiating between affected and infected dentin
D. All of the above

# Diagnodent uses which source of light?
A. Laser light
B. Visible light
C. Sound waves
D. Nanotechnology

# All of the following are chemomechanical methods of caries removal EXCEPT:
A. Papacarie
B. Carisolv
C. Caridex
D. Air abrasion

# One of the inducing factors in pulpal pain is:
A. Caries
B. Temperature changes
C. Microorganism in plaque
D. Occlusal trauma

# Irreversible pulpitis results from reversible pulpitis due to:
A. Invasion of the microorganisms
B. Increased pressure within the pulp chamber
C. Increased blood supply
D. Strangulation of the pulp

# If continuous hypersensitivity develops in recently GIC restored tooth, indicated treatment is:
A. No treatment is necessary
B. Remove the restoration and place ZOE
C. Perform pulpectomy
D. Perform direct pulp capping

# Fluid flow, in or out of the dentinal tubules, is proportional to the tubule diameter by:
A. Third power of the diameter
B. Sixth power of the diameter
C. Square of the diameter
D. Fourth power of the diameter

# Which of the following is the most accepted theory of transmission of dentinal sensation?
A. Transduction theory
B. Modulation theory
C. Hydrodynamic theory
D. Gate control and vibration theory

# According to the hydrodynamic theory of dentin sensitivity, the movement of fluid through dentinal tubules:
A. Stimulates the sensory nerve fibres of underlying pulp
B. Displaces odontoblasts into the pulp tissue
C. Has minimal effect on the odontoblasts
D. Results in the death of many odontoblasts

# The most common site of dentinal hypersensitivity is:
A. Incisal
B. Cervical
C. Proximal
D. Occlusal

# The dentin desensitizing agent that acts by precipitating proteins in dentinal tubular fluid is:
A. Strontium chloride
B. Potassium oxalate
C. Fluoride
D. Hydroxy ethyl methacrylate

# Craze lines are seen in:
A. Enamel
B. Enamel and dentin
C. Dentin only
D. Dentin and cementum

# Enamel infarctions can be detected by :
A. Direct illumination with visible light
B. Ultraviolet light source
C. Magnetic resonance imaging
D. Fibreoptic light source

# The premixed non eugenol paste used commonly as a temporary restoration is:
B. Cavit
D. Dical

# The following conclusion may be drawn after six weeks from asymptomatic teeth treated endodontically:
A. Indicates sucess of the therapy
B. Indicates formation of secondary dentin
C. Lack of symptoms may be temporary
D. All of the above

# A boys has fallen down in an accident and hit his symphyseal region.Both the upper central incisors are fracured. Line of treatment is:
A. Determine the vitality of the teeth
B. Order for both upper and lower anterior periapical radiographs
C. Order for only periapical radiographs of upper
D. Temporary protection if pulp is exposed

# A patient returns to you two weeks after placement of an inlay and complains of moderate sensitivity to cold. Occlusion is normal. You would like to:
A. Advise patient to avoid extreme temperatures
B. Remove the restoration and place ZOE
C. Relieve the tooth from occlusion
D. Remove the restoration and replace with amalgam

# A patient complains of prolonged pain in well condensed amalgam in a class V restoration placed six months back.
A. Pain is due to development of irreversible pulpitis
B. Pain is due to fracture of the restoration
C. Pain is due to gingivitis
D. Pain is due to toothbrush abrasion

# The most common cause of gingivitis after restorative procedures is:
A. Gingival retraction during impression taking
B. Rough margins and overhanging restorations
C. Improper occlusal contacts
D. Incompatibility of the restorative material

# Which of the following statements is true regarding the contour of the tooth on facial and lingual surface?
A. The vertical overconvex surface is more appropriate for the gingival health than the overconcave contour
B. The vertical overconcave surface is more appropriate for the gingival health than the overconvex contour
C. Both overconvex and overconcave facial surfaces contours are appropriate for the better gingival health
D. All the statements are true

# The term abrefaction refers to:
A. Non carious wear of the tooth structure due to chemicomechanical action
B. Abnormal loss of tooth structure resulting from the direct friction between the tooth and the external object
C. Mechanical wear of incisal, occlusal surfaces due to functional and parafunctional movements of the mandible
D. Microfractures occurring at the cervical areas of the tooth due to eccentric forces

# A sharply defined, wedge shaped depression in the cervical area of the facial tooth surface is called:
A. Attrition
B. Abrasion
C. Abfraction
D. Ablation

# The following are all defensive mechanisms of pulp EXCEPT:
A. Formation of sclerotic dentin
B. Formation of interglobular dentin
C. Formation of reparative and secondary dentin
D. Formation of the tertiary dentin

# The first priority in patient with multiple carious pulp ex-posures is:
A. Control of pain
B. Complete examination
C. Restoration of all the teeth
D. Planning of treatment

# Initial treatment for aysmptomatic multiple carious lesions in a 15year old boy:
A. Fill all the teeth with zinc oxide before finalizing treatment plan
B. Fill all the teeth with amalgam restorations
C. Restore all the teeth with cast restoration
D. Extraction of the involved teeth to reduce pain

# The main purpose of sealing the caries in deep cavities is:
A. To allow secondary dentin deposition before complete excavation
B. To kill the bacteria deep in the carious lesion
C. To avoid removing more tooth structure
D. All of the above

# In case of a deep carious lesion, incomplete debridement is done to:
A. Allow secondary dentin formation first
B. To seal the cavity and create aseptic field
C. Prevent pulp exposure and allow a thin layer of a dentin to remain
D. Avoid microleakage

# The following is a sedative dressing for hyperemic pulp:
B. Zinc phosphate
C. Varnish with ZOE
D. Calcium hydroxide

# Copal varnish is:
A. ZnO resin
B. ZnO Ca(OH)2
C. ZnO glycerin
D. All of the above

# Intermediary restorations are advocated for:
A. Protection of pulp, supporting the wall
B. Asthetics
C. Maintenance of the tooth position
D. All of the above

# The order of placement of materials in deep caries from pulpal side:
A. Cavity varnish, calcium hydroxide and zinc phosphate base
B. Calcium hydroxide, varnish and zinc phosphate base
C. Zinc phosphate, varnish and calcium hydroxide
D. There is no definite order

# Minimum thickness of calcium hydroxide liner required to protect near or actual pulp exposure is:
A. 2 to 3 mm
B. 0.5 to 1 mm
C. 3-4 mm
D. 5 mm

# A patient has a deep carious lesion. After cavity preparation, there is no apparent pulp exposure. Restoration of choice is:
A. Place a temporary restoration with ZOE
B. Place a temporary restoration with Zinc Phosphate
C. Place a permanent restoration with adequate pulp protection
D. Proceed for an endodontic therapy

# When direct pulp capping with calcium hydroxide, new reparative dentin are formed from which cells?
A. Odontoblast
B. Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells
C. Fibroblast
D. Histiocytes

# Direct pulp capping is indicated when:
A. Remaining thickness of dentin is 0.5 mm
B. Mechanical exposures occur in clean and dry field
C. Haemorrhage from the pulp during exposure is not controllable
D. Pain response to cold is long lasting

# Which of the following is a newest pulp capping agent showing better result than the calcium hydroxide when used in direct pulp capping?
A. Dycal
C. Zinc oxide eugenol
D. Resin modified GIC

# The preferred agent for base formation below restorative resin is:
A. Calcium hydroxide
B. Cavity varnish
C. Zinc oxide eugenol cement
D. None of the above

# The cells that form secondary dentin are:
A. Cementoblasts
B. Fibroblasts
C. Odontoblasts
D. Osteoblasts

# The following material is mistaken for caries on a radiograph:
A. Calcium hydroxide
B. Zinc phosphate
C. Zinc oxide eugenol
D. Polycarboxylates

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