# Phrenic nerve mainly supplies:
A. Diaphragm
B. Stomach
C. Ileum
D. Esophagus

# Which of the followiing is not true about facial nerve?
A. It has small sensory and large motor root
B. It supplies anterior belly of digastric
C. It gives parasympathetic supply to nasal and lacrimal glands
D. It is secretomotor to submandibular salivary glands

# Medial squint is caused by paralysis of:
A. Trochlear
B. Occulomotor
C. Abducent
D. Optic

# The cribriform plate connects the:
A. Nasal cavity and oral cavity
B. Nasal cavity and orbit
C. Nasal cavity and anterior cranial fossa
D. Orbit and anterior cranial fossa

# Which of the following is not a part of facial artery?
A. Inferior alveolar
B. Inferior labial
C. Superior labial
D. Lateral nasal

# The deep cervical fascia splits to enclose which muscles?
A. SCM and trapezius
B. SCM and omohyoid
C. SCM and digastric
D. Trapezius and digastric

# The posterior triangle of neck is divided into two halves by:
A. Lateral belly of trapezius
B. Sternocleidomastoid
C. Superior belly of omohyoid
D. Inferior belly of omohyoid

# Nasal epistaxis occurs due to:
A. Anastomosis of two veins at the anteroinferior part of the nasal septum
B. Anastomosis of two arteries at the anteroinferior part of the nasal septum
C. Anastomosis of one artery and one vein at the anteroinferior part of the nasal septum
D. Anastomosis of two arteries at the anterosuperior part of the nasal septum

# Facial cleft occurs due to:
A. Failure of ectodermal processes to fuse in midline
B. Mesodermal processes covered by ectoderm on both sides
C. Failure of endodermal processes to fuse in the midline
D. Failure of mesodermal processes to grow over ectodermal grooves

# Which of the following is not a part of Waldeyer ring?
A. Palatine tonsil
B. Pharyngeal tonsil
C. Tubal tonsil
D. Submandibular lymph nodes

# The palatine tonsil is found bilaterally between:
A. The salpingopharyngeal and pharyngeal folds
B. The palatopharyngeal and palatoglossal folds
C. The palatoglossal fold and pterygomandibular raphe
D. The palatopharyngeal fold and pterygomandibular raphe

# Novel acidic non amelogenin enamel protein responsible for hydroxyapatite formation:
A. Flagellin
B. Tuftlin
C. Sheathlin
D. Sialolin

# Non acidic non amelogenin enamel protein responsible for hydroxyapatite formation is:
A. Flagellin
B. Tuftlin
C. Sheathlin
D. Sialolin

# Christmas disease is due to deficiency of:
A. Hageman factor
B. Platelets
C. Plasma thromboplastin antecedent
D. Plasmathromboplastin component

# Carotid body (baroreceptor) is located at the origin of:
A. Common carotid
B. External carotid
C. Internal carotid
D. Arch of aorta

# IgE is released from the surface of:
A. Mast cell
B. Lymphocytes
C. Pro T cells
D. NK cells

# IgE can attach to the surface of:
A. Lymphocytes
B. Fibroblasts
C. Mast cells
D. Erythrocytes

# A 12 year old boy developed sore throat grayish pseudomembrane covering tonsils and pharynx. The causative agent is:
A. Gram positive bacillus
B. Gram negative bacillus
C. Single stranded positive sense RNA viruses
D. A gram negative catalase positive coccus arranged in cluster

# Diphtheria toxin acts by:
A. Inhibiting acetylcholine release
B. Inhibiting glucose transport
C. Increase levels of cyclic AMP
D. Inhibiting protein synthesis

# All are true regarding diphtheria toxin except:
A. Toxin blocks elongation of protein
B. Beta lysogenic strain produces toxin
C. Iron is critical for toxin production
D. Toxin is necesssary for local wound production

# Positive schick's test indicates that person is:
A. Immune to diphtheria
B. Hypersensitive to diphtheria
C. Susceptible to diphtheria
D. Carrier of diphtheria

# During ligating inferior thyroid artery during thyroidectomy, which of the following is preserved?
A. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
B. External laryngeal nerve
C. Vagus
D. Glossopharyngeal

# Epidural venous plexus is present in:
A. Basal ganglion adjacent to pons
B. Present at the junction of middle and posterior cranial fossa
C. In vertebral canal below duramater
D. In vertebral canal above duramater

# Which of the following is commonly associated with vital adjacent tooth?
A. Dentigerous cyst
B. Globulomaxillary cyst
C. Lateral cyst
D. Periapical cyst

# Bilateral mandibular involvement is seen in:
A. Cherubism
B. Osteoma
C. Central giant cell granuloma
D. Lichen planus

# Which of the following can give rise to Osteosarcoma?
A. Paget and cherubism
B. Cherubism and osteoporosis
C. Pagets disease and polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
D. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia and cherubism

# Among hepatitis, syphilitic glossitis, plummer vinson syndrome, Mickulicz's syndrome, squamous cell carcinoma is most likely to occur in:
A. Syphilitic glossitis and Plummer Vinson syndrome
B. Syphilitic glossitis and Mikulicz disease
C. Plummer Vinson disease and Hepatitis A
D. Hepatitis A and Mikulicz disease

# Condition which is unusual to have gingival involvement:
A. Pyogenic granuloma
B. Primary herpes
C. Pemphigoid
D. Recurrent aphthae

# About enameloma, true statement is:
A. Malignant tumor at an abnormal site on tooth
B. Tumor of ameloblasts which fails to differentiate terminally
C. Globule like structure adherent to the tooth structure
D. Tumor resembling enamel present on gingiva

# Riga Fede disease is seen in:
A. Infant
B. Children
C. Adolescent
D. Elderly

# Riga Fede disease is associated with:
A. Natal teeth
B. Multiple impacted teeth
C. Permanent incisor
D. Primary incisor

# A 40 year old lady presents with ameloblastoma in mandibular molar region.Histopathological feature reveals:
A. Central loose tissue with mitotic figures
B. Peripheral Palisading cells with central loose stellate reticulum
C. Peripheral palisading cells with artifact stroma
D. Central palisading cells which fails to differentiate

# Which of the following is true microdontia of lateral incisor?
A. Peg lateral
B. Natal teeth
C. Mulberry teeth
D. Hutchinson's teeth

# Patient having extra X chromosomes exhibit:
A. Dilaceration
B. Taurodontism
C. Cheesy molars
D. Mulberry molars

# Specific auto inoculation is seen in which of the following?
A. Human papilloma virus
B. Ameloblastoma
C. Bullous pemphigoid
D. Lichen planus

# Median rhomboid glossitis is due to:
A. Atrophy of filiform papillae
B. Absence of fungiform papillae
C. Ectodermal covering with absence of mucosa
D. Non fusion of mesodermal thickening and retraction of tuberculum impar

# The tooth with epithelial structure at level of the alveolar gingiva in two month old child without any radiographic evidence of roots. Treatment is:
A. Surgically remove it under LA
B. Let it remain as it is future tooth and root formation occurs at around 6 months
C. Preserve it and reassure the parents
D. Extract if mobile under GA

# In case of orthodontically treated midline diastema which retainer should be used:
A. Hawley appliance for 6 months
B. Hawley appliance for 12 months
C. No need of retainer as it is self corrected
D. Lingual bonded retainer

# While placing orthodontic bracket in fluorosed tooth, acid etching is done with:
A. Phosphoric acid
B. HCl acid
C. No etching required in case of fluorosis
D. Hydrofluoric acid

# Spheno-occipital synchondrosis fuses by what age?
A. 3 years
B. 9 years
C. 13 years
D. 16 years

# Begg's retainer is labial bow fabricated from:
A. Molar to molar
B. Canine to canine
C. First premolar to first premolar
D. Second premolar to second premolar

# Which of the following is a group 1 functional appliance?
A. Activator
B. Bionator
C. Twin block
D. Oral screen

# Increase in ANB angle suggests:
A. Maxillary prognathism
B. Mandibular prognathism
C. Maxillary retrognathism
D. Decreased overbite

# The orthodontic wires are made of various metal alloys. Which metal is added in orthodontic wire to decrease its hardness?
A. Chromium
B. Silicon
C. Carbon
D. Cobalt

# The bending of orthodontic wire at room temperature is an example of:
A. Strain hardening
B. Strain flexure
C. Ductility
D. Annealing

# Which of the following reduces with strain hardening?
A. Resistance to corrosion
B. Strength
C. Surface hardness
D. Proportional limit

# Age hardening is a process done at:
A. Heating up to 200-450 degree C for 30 minutes and quenching in water
B. Heating up to 700 degree C for 10 to 15 minutes and quenching in water
C. Heating up to 700 degree C for 1 hour and quenching in water
D. Heating above 700 degree C for 30 minutes and quenching in water

# The atomic attraction between two gold foil is an example of:
A. Annealing
B. Cold welding
C. Soldering
D. Adaptation

# Dontrix is:
A. A spring that measures force exerted by orthodontic wires
B. A plier which is used to give orthodontic bends
C. To measure the strength of the wire
D. To measure wire distortion and deformation

# A child suffers from trauma which causes intrusion of the primary central incisor. The incisor is not in interference and does not cause interference. What should be done?
A. The incisor should be allowed for passive and spontaneous repositioning itself
B. Be repositioned and splinted
C. Reduce the opposing teeth
D. Reduce both the affected and the opposite tooth

# A 3 year and 7 months old child with history of traumatic intrusion of 51. IOPA reveals foreshortening. The treatment is:
A. Immediate surgical repositioning of 51
B. Wait and watch
C. Orthodontic extrusion
D. Immediate extraction

# In a patient with acute pulpitis, it is difficult for the patient to locate the pain. This is because:
A. No nociceptors are present in the pulp
B. Less proprioceptors are present in the pulp
C. Patient is not cooperative
D. Patient is unable to open mouth and is unable to understand the language

# The wavelength of conventional light curing unit is:
A. 400-500 nm
B. 200-300 nm
C. 1000-2000 nm
D. 600-700 nm

# According to Schilder's method of cleaning and shaping of root canal:
A. Preparing apical foramen 3-6 times larger than the first binding file
B. The shape of apical foramen can be changed or moved easily as required
C. The original root canal curvature should be altered according to the obturating material
D. The minor diameter of the apical foramen should be minimally altered

# Which of the following is added in composites to provide opacity?
B. Aluminium oxide
C. Ferric chloride
D. None

# An avulsed tooth is reimplanted, there is loss of lamina dura radiographically. On percussion, there is high pitched sound with no mobility. It is due to:
A. External resorption
B. Internal resorption
C. Replacement resorption
D. Cervical resorption

# In a stainless steel crown on a deciduous molar with overhanging margins, gingival pain and inflammation occurs due to:
A. Plaque retention
B. Excess cement
C. Crown margins causing irritation
D. Engaging undercut

# The most physiological medium used to transport an avulsed tooth, which is not to be transported immediately?
A. Milk
B. Saline
D. Viaspan TM

# A 3 year old girl is having delayed milestones, playing with herself, not making friends, difficulty in learning is said to have:
A. Autism
C. Mental retardation
D. Specific learning disorder

# The purpose of pulpotomy in young permanent tooth with open apex is:
A. Induce root formation
B. Prevent tooth fracture
C. Formation of hard base to support restoration
D. To minimize infection

# Space maintainers are categorized into which level of prevention?
A. Rehabilitation
B. Specific protection
C. Disability limitation
D. Health promotion

# A child administered a dose of vitamin A routinely is an example of:
A. Health promotion
B. Specific protection
C. Primordial prevention
D. Secondary prevention

# A pregnant lady uses fluoridated drinking water. All of the following are true regarding exposure of the foetus to fluoride except:
A. Placenta acts as a regulator and reduces the concentration of fluoride reaching the foetus
B. Placenta acts as a regulator and increases the concentration of the fluoride reaching the foetus
C. Placenta has no role in fluoride regulation to foetus
D. Placenta acts as a barrier to fluoride ions

# Preventive resin restorations (PRR) are used in:
A. Non cavitated pits and fissures
B. Cavitated fissures which require restoration
C. Deep caries to prevent progress of lesion
D. Wide cavity to prevent cusp fracture

# World anti tobacco day is on:
A. 31st May
B. 1st Nov
C. 7th Apr
D. 1st Dec

# The difference in heights of children in two different classes of school was studied. Which sample test will you use to test the significance of difference of proportions in the heights of the children?
A. Paired T test
B. Unpaired T test
C. Chi square test
D. Anova

# It was hypothesized that herbal tea reduces common cold. A study was conducted to test the effect of herbal tea on reduction of common cold. The data was tabulated showing the number of persons in whom the common cold was reduced and those in whom cold was not reduced following the consumption of herbal tea. The analysis test of choice to test this study is:
A. Student T test (paired)
B. Student T test (unpaired)
C. Z test
D. Chi square test

# A man after skinning a dead animal, developed a pustule on his hand. A smear prepared from the lesion showed the presence of Gram positive bacilli in long chains which were positive for McFadyean's reaction. The most likely aetiological agent is:
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Bacillus anthracis
D. Actinomyces sp

# Most common sign of airway obstruction:
A. Slow bounding pulse
B. Stertorous breathing
C. Increased pulse rate
D. Decreased pulse rate

# Centric holding cusp is:
A. Mesiobuccal cusp of maxillary first molar
B. Mesiolingual cusp of mandibular first molar
C. Distolingual cusp of mandibular first molar
D. Mesiopalatal cusp of maxillary first molar

# C factor is associated with:
A. Condensation force for amalgam
B. Carving pattern for amalgam
C. Curvature of root
D. Polymerization shrinkage

# The property which makes the restoration to withstand occlusal force:
A. Resistance form
B. Retention form
C. Convenience form
D. Outline form

# Which type of silver amalgam alloy needs least amount of Hg?
A. Lathe cut
B. Spherical
C. Hybrid
D. Admixed

# Which is a solid solution?
A. Cobalt chromium
B. Amalgam
C. Silver gallium
D. Silver palladium

# What is the role of plasticizer in synthetic resin dentistry?
A. To smoothen the mass
B. To add bulk
C. To reduce softening or fusion temperature
D. To prevent polymerization shrinkage

# Which of the following is not associated with corrosion?
A. Carbonates
B. Sulphides
C. Oxides
D. Chlorides

# Retarder in PMMA monomer resin to prevent polymerization:
A. Benzoyl peroxide
B. Polyacrylic acid
C. Hydroquinone
D. Dibutyl phthalate

# A patient comes to dentist with decayed mandibular molar. On cavity preparation, the mesiobuccal cusp and distobuccal cusp were founnd to be carious. Treatment of choice is:
A. Compomer
B. Cast metal
C. Intermediate restorative material
D. Glass Ionomer Cement

# Condensation reaction occurs in:
A. Agar
B. Alginate
D. Polysulphide

# The type of strain developed whenthe force is applied perpendicular to the surface:
A. Compressive
B. Tensile
C. Shear
D. Flexure

# The time required by alginate for gelation at room temperature is:
A. 1-2 min
B. 3-4 min
C. 6-8 min
D. 12-16 min

# Which of the following components of alginate impression material may be a possible health hazard?
A. Alginic acid
B. Triethanolamine
C. Silica
D. Anise

# Storage of alginates at higher tmeperatures results in the alginate constituent being:
A. Coagulated
B. Precipitated
C. Depolymerized
D. Flocculated

# Percentage of carbon in carbon steel handcuttiing instruments is:
A. 1-1.2 %
B. 10-12 %
C. 0.6-0.8 %
D. 6-8 %

# Prolonged spatulation of gypsum results in:
A. Reduced setting time
B. Increased compressive strength
C. Increased hygroscopic expansion
D. Increased hardness

# Which is not used to measure vertical dimension of the face?
A. Willis gauge
B. Vernier caliper
C. Bolley gauge
D. Boos biometer

# Metallic oxides are added in porcelain to:
A. Impart color
B. Improve bonding with porcelain
C. Increase strength
D. All of the above

# Freedom of centric or discrepancy between centric relation and centric occlusion correlates with:
A. 0.15-0.25 mm
B. 0.20-0.40 mm
C. 0.5-1.5 mm
D. 1-2 mm

# Specific plaque hypothesis states that:
A. All plaque is pathogenic
B. Plaque is pathogenic where signs of disease are present
C. Only specific microbes cause caries
D. Special tests are available for caries detection

# Which is a measure of dispersion?
A. Measure of central tendency of collected data
B. Measure of standard deviation
C. Value repeating frequently
D. Measure of variance around the mean

# In a study done for the evaluation of prevalnece of caries in a given population, the ratio of its standard deviation to the mean of data will be called:
A. Coefficient of variance
B. Standard error of mean
C. Standard error of variance
D. None of the above

# Variability is seen in:
A. Variability constant
B. Square of standard deviation
C. Coefficient of variance
D. Confidence interval

# Standard deviation is a measure of all except:
A. Dispersion
B. Central tendency
C. Variation
D. Deviation

# In bilateral parasymphysis fracture which muscle retracts the mandible?
A. Genioglossus and anterior belly of digastric
B. Genioglossus and mylohyoid
C. Genioglossus and thyrohyoid
D. Genioglossus and masseter

# Which of these is not true about throat packing?
A. Done when patient is awake
B. Should be done after induction of GA
C. Prevents soiling of trachea
D. Prevents contamination of pharynx or prevents entry of blood into oesophagus

# In case of general anesthesia, what is done with throat pack?
A. Not used with cuffed Endotracheal tube
B. Removed prior to extubation
C. Well tolerated by awake patient
D. Should be used even after surgery

# Nasotracheal intubation is contraindicated in:
A. Le fort I fracture
B. Maxillary sinusitis
C. Parietal fracture
D. Lefort 2 & 3 fracture

# For relative analgesia, minimum concentration of O2 that can be given along with N2O is:
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%

# Injection of 2% LA with adrenaline in blood vessel causes:
A. Hypertension and tachycardia
B. Hypertension and bradycardia
C. Hypotension and tachycardia
D. Hypotension and bradycardia

# In a hypertensive patient on beta blockers, an injection of local anesthesia with adrenaline will cause
A. Hypertension and tachycardia
B. Hypertension and bradycardia
C. Hypotension and tachycardia
D. Hypotension and bradycardia

# Transient Bell's palsy during mandibular nerve block after injection of LA occurs due to needle piercing into?
A. Parotid gland
B. Maxillary artery
C. Temporalis muscle
D. Buccinator

# Which facial bone is more prone to fracture?
A. Mandible
B. Zygoma
C. Frontal
D. Nasal

# Oroantral fistula in the region of maxillary third molar is best treated by:
A. Buccal mucoperiosteal flap
B. Palatal mucoperiosteal flap
C. Bridge flap
D. Palatal island flap

# Which of the following procedures can be used to treat an oroantral fistula, resulting from a palatal surgery?
A. Buccal mucoperiosteal flap
B. Palatal mucoperiosteal flap
C. Bridge flap
D. Palatal island flap

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