AIIMS MDS Entrance Past MCQs May 2013

# Cavernous sinus thrombosis is due to infection of:
A. Pterygoid plexus
B. Submental space
C. Maxillary sinus
D. Submandibular space

# Muscle responsible for opening of mandible:
A. Lateral pterygoid
B. Medial pterygoid
C. Temporalis
D. Buccinator

# Nerve not carrying taste sensation from tongue:
A. V
D. X

# Safety muscle of the tongue is:
A. Hyoglossus
B. Genioglossus
C. Palatoglossus
D. Styloglossus

# Nerve supply of the circumvallate papillae:
A. Facial nerve
B. Trigeminal nerve
C. Vagus nerve
D. Glossopharyngeal nerve

# Damage to facial nerve just above branching of chorda tympani causes:
A. Hyperacusis
B. Decreased salivation
C. Loss of taste from tongue
D. Paralysis of muscles of facial expression

# Deepest layer of deep cervical fascia:
A. Visceral fascia
B. Vertebral fascia
C. Carotid sheath
D. Masseteric Fascia


# Which is the dangerous area of scalp?
A. Skin
B. Connective tissue
C. Aponeurosis
D. Loose areolar tissue

# Facial nerve supply, all are true EXCEPT:
A. Anterior belly of digastric
B. Posterior belly of digastric
C. Buccinator
D. Stapedius

# Carbon monoxide transfusion in lung is diffusion limited as:
A. Carboxy hemoglobin has high avidity
B. Base of the lung is poorly ventilated
C. pCO2 rises in blood immediately on exposure
D. Diffusion of CO across blood gas barrier is slow

# In a experiment, a scientist injected myeloid stem cells in an ablated animal. At the end of incubation period, he found colonies of:
A. Erythrocytes
B. T lymphocytes
C. Fibroblasts
D. Hematopoietic stem cells

# Which of the following amino acid is both glycogenic and ketogenic?
A. Glycine
B. Arginine
C. Leucine
D. Isoleucine

# Base pairs in human DNA:
A. 1.5 billion
B. 46 billion
C. 3.2 billion
D. 100 billion

# The process of studying the shape, size and fine structures of chromosomes is known as:
A. Chromosome mapping
B. Karyotyping
C. Genotype

# When midazolam and diazepam are compared for their efficacy, midazolam is all except:
A. Lower water solvency thus less incidence of thrombophlebitis
B. Better anxiolysis and amnesia
C. 3-4 times more potent
D. 3 times more affinity for benzodiazepine receptor

# Better levels of factor VIII are achieved by infusion of:
A. Cryoprecipitate
B. Desmopressin
C. Fresh frozen plasma
D. Fresh blood

# Paracetamol poisoning, which of the following is false?
A. N-acetylcysteine is used as antidote
B. Manifestation of poisoning occurs after 24-30 hours
C. 10 mg ingested dose is safely tolerable
D. N acetylcysteine binds to glutathione and prevents its toxicity

# Which of the following drug causes malignant hyperthermia?
A. Thiopentone
B. Suxamethonium
C. Propofol
D. Diazepam

# Which of the following can be given through nasal drop in conscious sedation child?
A. Ketamine
B. Midazolam
C. Diazepam
D. Halothane

# Lithium interferes with non depolarizing muscle relaxant; should be stopped how many days before surgery?
A. 1 day
B. 2 days
C. 3 days
D. 4 days

# Which of the following drug does not cross the blood brain barrier?
A. Glycopyrronium bromide
B. Atropine
C. Hyoscine hydrobromide
D. Hyoscine butylbromide

# All of the following are true regarding the use of Articaine in child EXCEPT:
A. It is amine based and is metabolized in the liver
B. Half life is 90 minutes
C. Infiltration produces adequate anesthesia in primary molar so need for block anesthesia is eliminated
D. Increased breakdown is responsible for less toxicity

# A 25 year old person with history of repeated episodes of rheumatic fever is hypersensitive to penicillin. Which of the following drug can be prescribed to him?
A. Penicillin G
B. Sulfisoxazole
C. Sulfasalazine
D. Streptomycin

# Cis atracurium is one of the 10 isomers of atracurium. What is its dosage?
A. 0.01 mg/kg
B. 0.15 mg/kg
C. 0.2 mg/kg
D. 0.5 mg/kg

# Suxamethonium is available as clear aqueous solution and has shelf life of:
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 2 years
D. 3 years

# A 70 years old male comes with headache, nausea, tenderness over temporal region. Biopsy taken from right temporal artery likely shows?
A. Temporal aneurysm
B. Granulomatous giant cell lesion
C. Giant cell arteritis
D. Luminol thrombosis

# Epidural hematoma is due to:
A. Vertebral artery
B. Middle meningeal artery
C. Anterior cerebral artery
D. Superior cerebellar artery

# A 50 years old obese lady with fullness on right upper abdomen, with history of type II diabetes mellitus and hyperlipidemia; on liver biopsy will reveal:
A. Non alcoholic steatohepatitis
B. Autoimmune hepatitis
C. Peliosis hepatis
D. Primary biliary cirrhosis

# Neuroimage on MRI of tuberous sclerosis show all EXCEPT:
A. Subependymal nodules
B. Ependymoma
C. Giant cell astrocytoma
D. White matter lesion

# A 28 years old woman with history of recurrent abortions, pain in calves for 4 years has deficiency of:
A. Factor XIII
B. Protein C
C. Thrombin
D. Plasmin

# What does c wave in jugular venous pulse denote?
A. Atrial contraction
B. Tricuspid bulging
C. Rapid ventricular filling
D. Atrial filling

# A 32 year old lady having painless palpable left supraclavicular lymph node revealed acidophilic double nuclei "owl eye" appearance of lymph node on histopathological examination with CD15 and CD 30 positivity on immunochemistry; What can be possible diagnosis?
A. Reactive nodular hyperplasia
B. Anaplastic large cell lymphoma
C. Lymphocytic predominant Hodgkin Lymphoma
D. Nodular lymphocytic Hodgkin Lymphoma

# A patient presents with raised PT and APTT. The platelet count, fibrinogen and TT are normal. He is most likely to be suffering from:
B. Liver disease
C. Vitamin K deficiency
D. Factor VII deficiency

# In a specimen of kidney, fibrinoid necrosis is seen and onion peel appearance is also present. Most probable pathology is:
A. Hyaline degeneration
B. Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis
C. Glomerulosclerosis
D. Fibrillary glomerulonephritis

# A 7 year old girl was admitted to hospital after 5 days of viral infection complains of vomitting following viral infection. She reports of cerebral edema. Liver biopsy will reveal:
A. Microvesicular steatohepatitis
B. Non alcoholic steatohepatitis
C. Ring lesion
D. Central hemorrhagic necrosis

# The cardiac output increases by 30-40% during pregnancy. The maximum increase occurs in:
A. 20 weeks of pregnancy
B. 22 weeks of pregnancy
C. 24 weeks of pregnancy
D. 28 weeks of pregnancy

# The fixative used in histopathology is:
A. 10 percent buffered neutral formalin
B. Bouins fixative
C. Glutaraldehyde
D. Ethyl alcohol

# Which of the following syndrome has 45 chromosomes?
A. Turner
B. Down
C. Klinefelter
D. Mandibulofacial dysostosis

# Cohesion in gold is based on the principle of:
A. Annealing
B. Wedging
C. Adaptability
D. Atomic attraction

# To identify bite marks in case of child abuse, bite mark of offender should be recorded with:
A. Impression plaster
B. Alginate
C. Polyvinyl siloxane
D. Silicon putty

# The future TMJ shows development at:
A. 6 weeks
B. 10 weeks
C. 18 weeks
D. 16 weeks

# Masseteric notch is formed by the action of:
A. Buccinator on masseter
B. Masseter on buccinator
C. Superior constrictor on buccinators
D. Buccinator on superior constrictor

# To identify the key microorganism in periodontal disease, Koch's criteria has been modified by:
A. Socransky
B. Glickman
C. Russel
D. Vermillion

# After enamel has been exposed to bacteria, irreversible bacterial colonization takes place in about:
A. 24 hours
B. Few minutes
C. 1-2 hours
D. 2-4 hours

# Diameter of bristles used in soft tooth brushes is:
A. 0.007 inches
B. 0.012 inches
C. 0.014 inches
D. 0.009 inches

# Supragingival plaque undergoes which of the following changes with time?
A. Plaque mass decreases
B. Plaque microflora becomes more gram positive
C. Plaque microflora becomes more gram negative
D. Plaque microflora becomes predominantly spirochetal

# Delayed hypersensitivity or cell mediated immune reactions occur in patients with periodontal diseases because they often have:
A. IgG antibody reactive with plaque bacterial antigens
B. T lymphocytes sensitized to plaque bacterial antigens
C. Soluble immune complexes within involved gingival tissues
D. All of the above

# In gingivitis, the role of immunoglobulins is consistent with the increased number of:
A. Fibroblasts
B. Neutrophils
C. Lymphocytes
D. Plasma cells

# What is the minimum dose required for tetracycline staining?
A. 5 mg/kg body weight
B. 20 mg/kg body weight
C. 50 mg/kg body weight
D. 80 mg/kg body weight

# Which of the following is not a feature of 'Trauma from occlusion'?
A. Vertical bone loss
B. Sensitivity to percussion
C. Mobility
D. Thermal sensitivity

# Which of the following is best angle for diagnosis of vertical root fractures?
A. 45 degrees
B. 45 degrees and 90 degrees
C. 110 degrees, 90 degrees and 45 degrees
D. 85 degrees and 110 degrees

# Halo effect on X-Ray is a definite indication of:
A. Vertical root fracture
B. Widening of PDL
C. Root caries
D. Periapical periostitis

# Pulse oximetry is based on:
A. Pascal's law
B. Doppler's law
C. Beer's law
D. Poiseuille's law

# Nerve fibres seen in dental pulp are:
A. Sympathetic and afferent post ganglionic
B. Parasympathetic post ganglionic
C. Motor fibres
D. Both autonomic parasympathetic and motor fibres

# Electric pulp test is evaluated by which pulp fibres?
A. A delta fibers
B. A alpha fibers
C. Beta fibers
D. C fibers

# Endodontic flare-ups occur more often in:
A. Acute apical abscess
B. Acute periodontitis
C. Asymptomatic with necrosed pulp
D. Pain and swelling before treatment

# Click sound is due to:
A. Protrusion of condyle in relation to disc
B. Retrusion of condyle in relation to disc
C. Rough disc and condyle
D. Perforated disc

# Young individual reported with fluctuant swelling infection of left lateral incisor. On clinical examination, entire left side of face is swollen and tooth is tender on percussion. The patient is unable to chew and as well as he has a fever of 102 degree. What should be the treatment plan?
A. Incision and drainage
B. Antibiotic heat and fluid
C. Extraction
D. Antibiotics and heat production

# In a case of bus accident which patient is given priority to shift to hospital?
A. Severe bleeding from fractured leg
B. Head injury
C. Airway problem
D. Circulatory shock

# For root canal therapy to increase success of IANB, which of the following should be done?
A. Increase the dose from 1.8 ml to 3.6 ml
B. Increase the concentration of the adrenaline from 1:100000 to 1:50000
C. Make the solution carbonated
D. Slow the speed of injection

# Allergic reactions in patients who receive amide type local anesthetics for dental procedures are most likely caused by reaction of:
A. Methylparaben
B. Contaminants
C. Lignocaine hydrochloride
D. Epinephrine

# In patients surgically corrected cleft lip and palate anomaly, what is the most common anomaly seen:
A. Anterior open bite
B. Rotated maxillary central incisor
C. Anterior deep bite
D. Unilateral or bilateral posterior cross bite

# Which of the following is used in diagnodent?
A. Visible light
B. Laser light
C. Sound waves
D. Nanotechnology for detection

# Incipient or recurrent caries can be detected before they are visible on the radiograph by:
A. Visible light
B. Ultrasonic light
C. Fibreoptic transillumination
D. Digital imaging fibreoptic transillumination

# Which of the following event has little or no significance?
A. Mandibular incisor erupting before mandibular molar
B. Mandibular canine erupting before mandibular premolar
C. Mandibular Second premolar erupting before mandibular second molar
D. Maxillary premolar and canine erupting before maxillary second molar

# Enamel calcification is usually not complete at the time of eruption of a tooth. It gets completed after eruption when the tooth comes in contact with saliva for:
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 4 years

# Caries assessment tool (CAT) developed by AAPD defines high risk group as all EXCEPT:
A. Visible plaque on anterior teeth
B. Isolated area of demineralization
C. Enamel hypoplasia
D. Children with special health care needs

# Which of the following is used to access the caries risk in a 10 year old child?
A. School water fluoridation
B. Previous caries exposure
C. Mother's caries
D. Not recalled

# In case of a cleft lip and palate patient, at what age the primary cleft lip should be repaired?
A. 3 months
B. 12 months
C. 1 month
D. 1 week

# Parents of a 10 month old child are reported to your clinic as the teeth have not yet erupted and other growth parameters are normal. What will be your best reply?
A. Wait and watch
B. Advice OPG to check for tooth buds
C. Advice AP view to check for tooth bud
D. Refer to pediatric

# Dental caries caused due to pre-eruptive enamel defect:
A. Secondary caries
B. Occult caries
C. Incipient caries
D. Chronic caries

# Tetracycline prescription should be avoided in children below what age?
A. 3 years
B. 8 years
C. 12 years
D. 21 years

# A 10 year old child with avulsed incisor 20 minutes back come to your office, its a sound tooth with no fracture, covered with dirt. You will:
A. Clean the dirt with saline and replant
B. Sterilize the tooth and replant
C. Scrub and curette the root surface and replant
D. Clean with hypotonic solution and replant

# Which zone of dentinal caries does not contain any microorganisms?
A. Zone of decalcification
B. Zone of dentinal sclerosis
C. Zone of decomposed dentin
D. Zone of bacterial invasion

# Which of the following is not a feature of Aspartame?
A. It is derivative of ester.
B. It is 200 times sweeter than sugar.
C. It is safely given in type I diabetes mellitus and hyperlipidemia.
D. Calorific value is 4 Kcal

# Metallic taste after application of stannous fluoride varnish is due to:
A. Stannous trifluorophosphate
B. Calcium trifluorostannate
C. Stannic trifluorophosphate
D. Tin hydroxyl phosphate

# A pregnant lady uses fluoridated drinking water. All of the following are true regarding exposure of the fetus to fluoride EXCEPT:
A. Placenta actes as a regulator and reduces the concentration of fluoride reaching the fetus
B. Placenta acts as a regulator and increases the concentration of fluoride reaching the fetus
C. Placenta has no role in fluoride regulation to fetus
D. Placenta acts as a barrier to fluoride ions

# The survey which is possible only when enough resources are available and is carried out for longer period of time is known as:
A. Analytical
B. Cross sectional
C. Descriptive
D. Longitudinal

# The growth of children of different age group is evaluated on different parameter at same point of time is known as:
A. Longitudinal study
B. Cross sectional study
C. Cross longitudinal study
D. Cohort study

# Which of the following is feature of 'Mandibulofacial dysostosis'?
A. Normal hearing
B. Mandibular prognathism
C. Increased upper vertical height
D. Normal vision with Coloma

# Drug which does not cause gingival hyperplasia is:
A. Bleomycin
B. Verapamil
C. Sodium valproate
D. Carbamazepine

# Maximum recommended permissible dose of dental X ray operator in a week is:
A. 100 milliroentgens
B. 10 roentgens
C. 100 roentgens
D. 300 roentgens

# Which of the following model analysis is done in permanent dentition?
A. Moyer's analysis
B. Carey's analysis
C. Hixon Oldfather analysis
D. Huckaba's analysis

# All of the following assumptions are considered true when doing space analysis for calculating space discrepancy EXCEPT:
A. All permanent teeth will develop normally
B. Correlation in size of mandibular incisors and succedaneous teeth
C. Prediction tables are most valid for all populations
D. Arch dimension remain stable

# In Moyer's classification, type D class II indicates:
A. Orthognathic mandible and maxilla
B. Prognathic maxilla, orthognathic mandible
C. Orthognathic maxilla, retrognathic mandible
D. Retrognathic maxilla, retrognathic mandible

# In case of orthodontically treated midline diastema, which retainer is used?
A. Hawley appliance for 6 months
B. Hawley appliance for 12 months
C. No need of retainer as it is self corrected
D. Lingual bonded retainer

# Increased interincisal angle is seen in:
A. Bimaxillary protrusion
B. Class II div 1
C. Class II div II
D. Mandibular retrusion

# Lip thickness of males is maximum at which age?
A. 21 years
B. 18 years
C. 16 years
D. 25 years

# Growth of maxilla is mainly by:
A. Drift and displacement
B. Drift only
C. Apposition
D. Resorption

# Movement of bone in relation to the enlargement of other bones is called:
A. Primary displacement
B. Primary drift
C. Secondary displacement
D. Secondary drift

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