Lok Sewa Aayog 2072 Key C - 8th Level Dental Surgeon Question Paper

1. Guiding planes in cast partial denture:
A. Should be perpendicular to the path of insertions
B. They must always face each other
C. Should be prepared always on the proximal surface of the abutment teeth
D. Should be parallel to the path of insertion

2. Posterior vibrating line is at the junction of:
A. Levator palatini and tensor palatini
B. Levator palatini and muscular portion of the soft palate
C. Aponeurosis of levator palatini and muscular portion of the soft palate
D. Aponeurosis of tensor palatini and muscular portion of soft palate

3. T:B lymphocyte ratio in GCF is:
A. 1:3
B. 2:1
C. 3:1
D. 1:1

4. Hemi-septum is a :
A. One walled defect
B. Two walled defect
C. Three walled defect
D. Infrabony defect

5. First clinical sign of juvenile periodontitis is:
A. Pathologic tooth migration and midline diastema
B. Pain and bleeding
C. Tooth mobility and bone loss
D. Gingival enlargement and pus formation

6. Scaling and root planing elicits:
A. Cell mediated immunity
B. Antibody mediated humoral immunity
C. Non specific immunity
D. No response

7. Drug induced hyperplasia of gingiva is mainly seen in:
A. Marginal gingiva
B. Attached gingiva
C. Palatal gingiva
D. Interdental papilla

8. Chlorhexidine is a useful mouthwash as:
A. It prevents plaque accumulation
B. It prevents bacterial proliferation
C. It breaks down plaque matrix
D. It causes hemostasis

9. Free gingival graft is usually placed on:
A. Periosteum
B. Directly on bone
C. Attached gingiva
D. Movable gingiva

10. Gingivitis in leukemic patient resembles:
A. Pyogenic granuloma
B. Herpetic gingivostomatitis
C. Hairy cell Leukoplakia

11. The bacteria of oral flora which plays least role in periodontitis is:
A. Actinomyces
B. Actinomycetamcomitans
C. Spirochetes
D. Bacteroides

12. Which of the following is true?
A. Subgingival calculus does not form in absence of supragingival calculus
B. Subgingival plaque has less inorganic content than supragingival calculus
C. The source of minerals is same for both the types of calculus
D. The matrix components of subgingival is different from that of supragingival calculus 

13. Which of the following is the most effective method of preventing dental decay in general population?
A. Oral prophylaxis
B. Systemic fluorides
C. Diet counseling
D. Fluoride mouth wash and toothpaste

14. The kind of sampling that should be done when there is a small group of patients is:
A. Stratified sampling
B. Convenience
C. Systemic sampling
D. Random sampling

15. The crowns of all the permanent teeth, with the exception of the third molars, are calcified by the age of:
A. 6 years
B. 8 years
C. 10 years
D. 12 years

16. Neonatal teeth are: 
A. Present at the time of the birth
B. Erupt during first month of birth
C. Erupt during second or third months after birth
D. Erupt during intrauterine life

17. A healthy six year old child presents with carious maxillary second primary molar with a necrotic pulp. Which treatment would be preferred?
A. Extraction
B. Indirect pulp treatment
C. Pulpotomy
D. Pulpectomy

18. Which teeth are least affected with the nursing bottle syndrome?
A. Maxillary molars
B. Maxillary and mandibular canines
C. Mandibular incisors
D. Maxillary incisors

19. The recommended concentration of fluoride in a community water supply is:
A. 0.1 ppm
B. 0.5 ppm
C. 1 ppm
D. 2 ppm

20. You are treating a child patient. In the process of managing behavior of your patient you plan to induce omission, which refers to:
A. Pleasant consequence following a response
B. Withdrawal of an unpleasant stimulus after a response
C. Removal of a pleasant stimulus after a particular response
D. Presentation of an unpleasant  stimulus after a response

21. What age group of school children below would you apply pit and fissure sealant in a school based oral health program?
A. 3 years
B. 6 years
C. 10 years
D. 16 years

22. The tooth movement most readily accomplished with a removable appliance is:
A. Tipping
B. Torquing
C. Root movement
D. Bodily movement

23. DMF Index was given by:
A. Klein, Palmer, Knutson and Henry in 1938
B. Moller in 1966
C. Gruebbel in 1944
D. Katz in 1980

24. The most common brushing technique used in preschool child is:
A. Fone’s technique
B. Modified Stilman technique
C. Charter’s method
D. Bass method

25. Basal cell carcinomas:
A. Usually metastasize the regional lymph nodes
B. Common on the face and neck
C. Common in females
D. Radio-resistant

26. A patient with grossly contaminated wound presents 12 hours after an accident, his wound should be managed by:
A. Thorough cleaning and primary repair
B. Thorough cleaning with debridement of all dead and devitalized tissue without primary closure
C. Primary closure over a drain
D. Covering the defect with split skin graft after cleaning

27. The most common organism carrying infective endocarditis following dental manipulation is a:
A. Streptococcus viridans
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Group A Streptococci
D. Gram –ve rod

28. Which one of the following can be used in the management of a hemophilic patient?
A. Ascorbic acid
B. Tranexamic acid
C. Acetic acid
D. Palmitic acid

29. What are the main laboratory findings in Rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Elevated ESR and RA factor positive
B. Decreased ESR and RA factor negative
C. Increased level of uric acid in blood
D. Decreased level of calcium in blood

30. Chancre most commonly occurs on:
A. Genitals
B. Tonsils
C. Tongue
D. Floor of the mouth

31. Myocardial infarction (MI) is usually due to EXCEPT:
A. Embolus
B. Thrombus
C. Hemorrhage
D. Spasm

32. Spontaneous bleeding usually occurs with a platelet count of:
A. Less than 50000/mm3
B. 50000-75000/ mm3
C. 75000-100000/ mm3
D. 100000-150000/mm3

33. The immediate step to be taken in maxillofacial injury is: 
A. Correct shock
B. Ensure airway
C. Look for other injuries
D. Rule out cervical spine fracture 

34. Which of the following resembles frog’s belly?
A. Mucocele
B. Ranula
C. Epstein pearl
D. Eruption hematoma

35. Which of the following factors represent the most likely reason for the poor long term prognosis of patients with adenoid cystic carcinoma?
A. Lesions spread early and wide
B. Lesion usually large when discovered
C. Malignant epithelial cells invade nerves
D. Malignant epithelial cells are poorly differentiated

36. The aspirate from a keratocyst will have:
A. A low soluble protein content
B. A high soluble protein content
C. Cholesterol crystal
D. Inflammatory cells

37. The most radiosensitive cells in the body are:
A. Endothelial cells
B. Epithelial cells
C. Red blood cells
D. White blood cells

38. The most common malignant neoplasm of salivary gland is:
A. Necrotizing sialometaplasia
B. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
C. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
D. Oncocytoma

39. Systemic disease associated with hypoplastic teeth:
A. Hypoparathyroidism
B. Hyperparathyroidism
C. Hypopituitarism
D. Hyperpituitarism

40. Which of the following pathology has its origin due to stimulation of epithelial rest of Malassez?
A. Periapical granuloma
B. Periapical abscess
C. Periapical cyst
D. Condensing osteitis

41. Most common type of carcinoma in men is:
A. Basal cell carcinoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Osteogenic sarcoma
D. Lymphoma

42. The clinical evidence of dentinogenesis imperfecta is:
A. Defective enamel
B. Defective dentin
C. Obliterated pulp chambers
D. Increased rate of caries

43. Which of the following is characteristic of a primordial cyst?
A. Develops in place of a tooth
B. Attaches to the apex of a tooth
C. Attaches to the crown of the tooth
D. Remains after the tooth is extracted

44. Leukemia should be high on a list of differential diagnosis when which of the following is noted?
A. Spontaneous bleeding
B. Persistent headache
C. Epigastric pain
D. Chronic or acute arthralgia

45. In Ramsay Hunt Syndrome, the cranial nerve involved is:
A. Trigeminal
B. Facial
C. Glossopharyngeal
D. Oculomotor nerve

46. Maximum dose of xylocaine without adrenaline that can be given in 60 kg adults is:
A. 600 mg
B. 500 mg
C. 400 mg
D. 300 mg

47. Which of the following is true regarding local anesthesia?
A. They are basic salts of weak acids.
B. Not effective in alkaline pH
C. Form salts with acids
D. They are acidic salts of weak bases

48. A 50 year old patient on oral anticoagulants for cardiac illness, requires tooth extraction. INR value is 1.5, dentist should:
A. Proceed for dental extraction
B. Anticoagulants should be stopped before dental extraction
C. Oral anticoagulants should be stopped and heparin started
D. Additional tests are required

49. Which of the following side effects is seen commonly with the administration of nitrous dioxide and oxygen?
A. Hallucinations and dreams
B. Tachycardia
C. Tremors
D. Nausea

50. A patient with unfavorable fracture of the angle of mandible is best treated by:
A. Closed reduction with IMF
B. Closed reduction with cap splint
C. Open reduction with bone plate fixation
D. Circum-mandibular wiring

51. An oro-antral communication during extraction:
A. Requires no treatment immediately
B. Immediate prolapse of antral living occurs into mouth
C. Reflux of fluids into nasal cavity while drinking can be demonstrated
D. Must be closed surgically immediately

52. 5 cm highly suspicious lesion of the floor of the mouth is to be studied microscopically. A specimen is best obtained by:
A. Incisional biopsy
B. Excisional biopsy
D. None of the above

53. Cavernous sinus thrombosis following infection of maxillary anterior teeth most often results from spread of infected emboli along the:
A. Pterygoid plexus
B. Ophthalmic vein
C. Facial artery
D. Angular artery

54. Elevated blister like lesion containing clear fluid that are over 1 cm in diameter is known as:
A. Vesicles
B. Bullae
C. Pustules
D. Macules

55. Which one is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait?
A. Lichen planus
B. Bullous Pemphigoid
C. Pemphigus vulgaris
D. White sponge nevus

56. Of the following which view is best to visualize the zygomatic arches?
A. Submentovertex or jug handle view
B. Occipitomental view
C. Orthopantomogram
D. Skull PA view

57. Moth eaten appearance so characteristically seen in radiographs of osteomyelitis is due to:
A. Presence of sequestrum
B. Enlargement of medullary spaces
C. Reduced medullary spaces
D. Narrowing of Volkmann’s canals

58. Sialolith are primarily composed of:
A. Calcium Carbonate
B. Calcium phosphate
C. Potassium chloride
D. Fluorapatite

59. Leukoedema change usually occurs in:
A. 3-5 years
B. Is present congenitally
C. 8-9 year
D. In old age

60. Multiple odontogenic cysts of maxilla are seen in:
A. Marfan syndrome
B. Crouzans disease
C. Gorlin Goltz syndrome
D. Caffey’s disease

61. Fordyce spots are:
A. Fat tissues embedded in buccal mucosa
B. Red spots
C. Present on cheek mucosa lateral to the angle of the mouth
D. All of the above

62. The principal hazard to operator and patient is produced by what type of radiation?
A. Gamma
B. Primary
C. Secondary
D. None of the above

63. Open ended lined cones reduce:
A. Intensity of scattered radiation
B. Intensity of primary radiation
C. Level of scattered radiation
D. All of the above

64. In standard cephalometric arrangement, the distance from the x-ray source to the subjects in midsagittal plane is:
A. 3 feet
B. 4 feet
C. 5 feet
D. 6 feet

65. Frankfort’s horizontal plane extends from:
A. Porion to orbitale
B. Nasion to porion
C. Nasion to orbitale
D. Gonion to orbitale
66. Apertognathia refers to:
A. Deep bite
B. Small and deviated jaw
C. Open bite
D. Scissor bite

67. Which of the following malocclusion is difficult to treat?
A. Cross bite
B. Open bite
C. Deep bite
D. Proclination

68. Which of the following is tissue borne myofunctional appliance?
A. Functional regulator of Frankel
B. Activator
C. Bionator
D. Twin block

69. The anterior bite plane should separate the posterior teeth by:
A. 3-4 mm
B. 4-5 mm
C. 1.5-2 mm
D. 0.5-1 mm

70. Arch expansion using the midline screw is an example of:
A. Stationary anchorage
B. Reciprocal anchorage
C. Compound anchorage
D. Reinforced anchorage

71. According to Wolff’s law:
A. Human teeth drift mesially as interproximal wear occurs
B. Pressure causes bone resorption
C. The optimal level of force for moving teeth is 10 to 200 g
D. Bone trabeculae line up in response to mechanical stresses

72. A child who had congenital defect of cleft lip and cleft palate is most likely to suffer from which kind of malocclusion?
A. Bilateral Posterior crossbite
B. A collapsed anterior mandibular arch
C. Protrusion and spacing of maxillary anterior teeth
D. Class II division I malocclusion

73. Premaxilla is derived from:
A. Maxillary protuberance
B. Palatine bones
C. Frontonasal process
D. Medial process

74. Quartz is added to gypsum bonded investments to:
A. Increase the strength
B. Counter balance contraction of gypsum during heating.
C. Aid in hygroscopic expansion
D. Increase the shelf life of investment

75. Acid etching of enamel margin:
A. Provides chemical retention with composite bonding directly to the tooth structure
B. Provides mechanical retention
C. Compromises the status of pulp
D. Activates the setting process

76. The gold content of an 18-K alloy is:
A. 50%
B. 75%
C. 100%
D. 30%

77. The sprue former during casting should be located:
A. At the thinnest area of the pattern
B. At the largest cusp
C. At the thickest area
D. Anywhere at the most convenient point for casting

78. Compomers are:
A. Metal modified GIC
B. Microfilled composite
C. Resin modified GIC
D. Hybrid composite

79. Which of the following is a severe pulp irritant?
B. Silicate cement
C. Polycarboxylate cement 
D. Calcium hydroxide

80. Surface finish of which of the following type of composite is highest?
A. Microfilled
B. Hybrid
C. Small particle size
D. Traditional

81. The main reason for localized shrinkage porosity in dental casting is:
A. Over heating of the alloy
B. The sprue being too thin
C. Over heating of the investment
D. There being no reservoir
82. Greater the number of cutting blades on a rotary instrument:
A. Greater the cutting efficiency and smoother the surface
B. Lesser the cutting efficiency  and smoother the surface
C. Greater the cutting efficiency and rougher the surface
D. Lesser the cutting efficiency and rougher the surface

83. Palatal root of maxillary first molar is curved:
A. Mesially
B. Lingually
C. Buccally 
D. Distally

84. The area of the tooth having least resistance to caries is:
A. Enamel
B. Dentin
C. D-E junction
D. C-E junction

85. A Peeso reamer is used for:
A. Preparation of post space in the root canal for receiving a post
B. Enlarging the canal orifices during access cavity preparation
C. Removal of the lingual shoulder to improve the access in anterior teeth
D. Cleaning and shaping  of the cervical third at the root canal

86. The greatest improvement in the marginal adaptation of composite restoration is achieved by:
A. Ensuring that the cavity is free of moisture
B. Good packing of the restoration
C. Acid etching
D. Maintaining pressure during settling

87. Gingival margin in class II amalgam restoration  is placed under  the contact point because:
A. It increases the retention of the amalgam
B. It provides enough bulk of the restoration
C. Allows proper finishing of the  gingival margin
D. All of the above

88. All of the following are true of composites EXCEPT:
A. Placed and finished at the same appointment
B. More color stable than unfilled resins
C. Coefficient of thermal expansion close to the tooth structure compared with the unfilled resins
D. Finished surface is less smooth compared to unfilled resins

89. Mineral trioxide aggregate is the material of choice in all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Perforations
B. Apexification procedures
C. Direct pulp capping
D. Root canal filling material of primary teeth

90. Which of the following is said to be ideal for hard tissue cutting and drilling?
A. CO2 laser
B. Argon
D. Diode

91. The most generally accepted treatment of horizontal root fracture in the apical third of a maxillary central incisor involves:
A. Splinting with orthodontic bonds and sectional arch wire
B. Frequent pulp testing and radiographic examination
C. Extraction of the tooth
D. Immediate pulp extirpation

92. A common finding associated with the cracked tooth is:
A. Pain on release of biting pressure
B. Pain on application of biting pressure
C. Absence of pain
D. Continuous pain

93. Protrusive records during jaw relations are made for recording: 
A. Centric relation
B. Condylar inclination of both sides
C. Record retruded contact position
D. Terminal hinge axis opening

94. Lost salt technique is used to fabricate:
A. Maryland bridge
B. Rochette bridge
C. Cantilever bridge
D. Virginia bridge

95. In the mandibular posterior region, the following design is indicated for the pontic in the fixed bridge:
A. Ridge lap
B. Modified ridge lap
C. Conical
D. Ovate

96. Parts that offer support for removable partial dentures are following:
A. Rest and reciprocal arm
B. Rest and retentive arm
C. Rest and denture base
D. Rest and minor connector

97. All are the function of immediate obturator except:
A. Restore speech
B. Restore mastication 
C. Restore appearance
D. Support surgical procedure

98. When a removable partial denture is completely seated, the retentive terminals of the retentive clasp arm should be:
A. Passive and apply no pressure on the tooth
B. Contacting the abutment teeth only in the suprabulge area
C. Resting lightly on the height of contour on abutment tooth
D. Applying a definite positive force on the abutment teeth in order to prevent dislodgement of the removable partial denture

99. Group function occlusion in all existing dentition is characterized by having:
A. Total balance in lateral excursion
B. Canine rise in protrusion
C. Long centric from centric relation to centric occlusion
D. Working side contacts from canine to third molar

100. An anterior fixed partial denture is contraindicated when:
A. Abutment tooth are non carious
B. An anterior teeth is inclined  15 degree but is otherwise sound
C. There is considerable resorption of the residual ridge
D. Crowns of the abutment teeth are extremely long owing to gingival recession


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    1. At least you got the questions! Searching of answers yourself will make you more intelligent.



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