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Lok Sewa Aayog 2074 Key D - 8th Level Dental Surgeon Question Paper



 1. Rank the following dental materials in order of increasing values of their coefficient of thermal expansion: dental amalgam, human teeth, porcelain and unfilled acrylic plastics
A. Human teeth, porcelain, dental amalgam and unfilled acrylic plastics
B. Porcelain, human teeth, unfilled acrylic plastics and dental amalgam
C. Porcelain, human teeth, dental amalgam and unfilled acrylic plastics
D. Human teeth, porcelain, unfilled acrylic plastics and dental amalgam

2. A metal that expands on solidification from the molten state is:
A. Gold
B. Silver
C. Bismuth
D. Copper

3. The principal ingredient of an irreversible hydrocolloid impression is:
A. Agar
B. Tri sodium phosphate
C. Sodium alginate
D. Colliodal silica

4. One of the best agents used in successful pulp capping is:
A. Copper cement
B. Calcium hydroxide
C. Amalgam
D. Zinc oxide

5. Silicone differs from polyether polymer with respect to:
A. Affinity for water
B. Place and time of one
C. Area of one
D. Cost effectiveness

6. The best surface for a macrofilled composite resin is achieved by:
A. Allowing polymerization to occur against a mylar matrix
B. Use of a green stone
C. Use of an extra fine silicone carbide disc
D. Use of a white stone

7. Which of the following has lowest tensile strength?
A. Silicate cement
B. Type II GIC
C. Cermet
D. Resin modified GIC

8. The setting time of zinc oxide eugenol material is:
A. 1-2 minutes
B. 3-5 minutes
C. 6-8 minutes
D. 9-10 minutes
9. Which of the following is a flux?
A. SiO2
B. Borax
C. Magnesium oxide
D. Aluminium oxide

10. In processing of an acrylic denture in a water both proper heating is desired because of the possibility of:
A. Warpage
B. Shrinkage of the denture
C. Porosity due to boiling of monomer
D. Reduced strength

11. The difference between a reamer and file is in:
A. The number of flutes and shape of the shaft
B. The number of flutes
C. The number of flutes and size of the shaft
D. The shape and size of the shaft

12. Teeth that appear to be color matched in one type of light may appear very different in another light source. This phenomenon is called:
A. Fluorescence
B. Metamerism
C. Opaqueness
D. Translucency

13. The pulp horn most likely to be exposed in preparing cavities in lower first molar teeth is:
A. Mesiobuccal
B. Distobuccal
C. Mesiolingual
D. Distolingual

14. Biomechanical preparation of root canal ensures:
A. Debridement of root canal
B. Perforation of apical foramen
C. Creation of ledge
D. Root canal filling

15. Pulp is necrotized in which of the following?
A. Acute or chronic periapical abscess
B. Acute irreversible pulpitis
C. Hyperemia of pulp
D. Pulp polyp

16. Localized defects of the teeth can be treated by using:
A. Full veneers
B. Microveneers
C. Partial veneers
D. Macroveneers

17. Primer is a:
A. Acid etching agent
B. Adhesion promoting agent
C. Coupling agent
D. Bonding agent

18. The minimal occlusal thickness of amalgam restoration for appropriate resistance to fracture is:
A. 0.5 mm
B. 0.8 mm
C. 1.5 mm
D. 2.5 mm

19. The choice of the liner material for pulpal protection in the cavities close to the pulp is:
A. Zinc oxide eugenol
B. Polycarboxylate
C. GIC
D. Calcium hydroxide

20. Which of the following is a non cutting instrument?
A. Chisels
B. Excavators
C. Explorers
D. Files

21. Which of these muscles may affect the borders of mandibular complete denture?
A. Mentalis
B. Lateral pterygoid
C. Orbicularis oris
D. Levator angularis

22. An anterior tooth bounded edentulous area which crosses the midline:
A. Class I
B. Class III
C. Class IV
D. Class IX

23. A complete or partial removable denture supported by retained roots is known as:
A. Conventional immediate denture
B. Transitional immediate denture
C. Cast partial denture
D. Over dentures

24. Most common presentation of tooth parafunction is:
A. Lateroprotrusive
B. Protrusive
C. Lateral 
D. Vertical

25. Fixed factor according to Hanau is:
A. Orientation of occlusal plane
B. Condylar guidance
C. Incisal guidance
D. Compensating curve

26. Face bow is used to record:
A. Orientation relation
B. Centric relation
C. Eccentric relation
D. Vertical jaw relation

27. The Valsalva maneuver is performed to record:
A. Centric relation
B. Eccentric relation
C. Orientation relation
D. Posterior palatal seal

28. The primary function of posterior palatal seal is to:
A. Retention of upper denture by making a complete seal
B. Aid in insertion and removal of the upper denture
C. Achieve balanced occlusion
D. Retention of lower denture

29. The type of patient demanding to be educated before the complete denture fabrication:
A. Philosophical
B. Exacting
C. Indifferent
D. Hysterical
30. Ala tragus line is also known as:
A. Frankfurt occlusal plane
B. Camper’s line
C. SNA plane
D. Median plane

31. Following are the characteristics of Subgingival calculus except:
A. Greenish black in color
B. 30% mineralized
C. Hard flint like consistency
D. Forms after gingival inflammation begins

32. What are two teeth connected at the cementum called?
A. Concrescence
B. Maceration
C. Gemination
D. Fusion

33. Attached gingiva is always:
A. Stippled
B. Non keratinized
C. Resistant to masticatory forces
D. None of the above

34. Which of the following technique is better choice to cover denuded root in upper isolated tooth?
A. Tarnow’s technique
B. Langer’s technique
C. GTR technique
D. Miller’s technique

35. The site of periodontium in most multirooted teeth affected by occlusal trauma is:
A. Cervical third
B. Middle third
C. Apical third
D. Furcations

36. Tissue necrosis of gingival margin and interdental papillae is seen in:
A. Herpetic gingivostomatitis
B. ANUG
C. Pregnancy gingivitis
D. Juvenile periodontitis

37. The most prevalent immunoglobulin in saliva is:
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgE
D. IgM

38. Which group of periodontal fibers are largest?
A. Transseptal group
B. Alveolar crest group
C. Horizontal group
D. Oblique group

39. The probing depth of a clinically normal human gingival sulcus is:
A. 2-3 mm
B. 0-1 mm
C. 6-8 mm
D. 0-0.5 mm

40. Secondary occlusal trauma is seen when:
A. Abnormal forces acting on normal periodontium
B. Normal forces acting on normal periodontium
C. Normal forces acting on diseased periodontium
D. All of the above

41. Fluoride content is more in which milk product?
A. Toned milk
B. Cheese
C. Butter
D. Paneer

42. The obturating material of choice for primary teeth following complete pulpectomy is:
A. Zn phosphate cement and formocresol combination paste
B. Quick setting hydroxide cement
C. Zinc oxide and eugenol cement
D. Gutta percha

43. A newborn child with cleft lip is to be referred for surgery. Which of the following parameters decides the treatment time?
A. Weight in kilograms
B. Weight in pounds
C. Weight in grams
D. Weight in decigrams

44. Which of the following anesthetic should  not be used in children?
A. Lidocaine
B. Bupivacaine
C. Prilocaine
D. Articaine

45. Which of the following is more cariogenic?
A. Glucose
B. Fructose
C. Lactose 
D. Sucrose

46. Hard tissue formation of maxillary first permanent molar begins at:
A. 3-4 month of intrauterine life
B. At birth
C. 5-6 months of intrauterine life
D. 2-3 years after birth

47. The largest cusp of primary maxillary first molar is:
A. Mesiobuccal cusp
B. Distobuccal cusp
C. Mesiolingual cusp
D. Distolingual cusp

48. Serial extraction is indicated in:
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class II div I

49. Beriberi is due to the deficiency of:
A. Vitamin D
B. Vitamin E
C. Thiamine
D. Pyridoxine

50. The most common acute gingival infection in children is:
A. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
B. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
C. Desquamative gingivitis
D. Erythema multiforme

51. Osteopetrosis is also known as:
A. Fibrous dysplasia
B. Marble bone disease
C. Mandibulofacial dysostosis
D. Cherubism

52. In performing all elective tracheostomy, the trachea should be entered:
A. Below the cricoid
B. Above the cricoid
C. Through the cricothyroid membrane
D. Laterally below the thyroid cartilage

53. Both BT and CT are prolonged in:
A. Hemophilia A
B. Purpura
C. Von Willebrand’s disease
D. Hemophilia B

54. Hepatitis B can be diagnosed during the acute phase by demonstrating:
A. Reduction of surface antigen by administration of gamma globulin
B. An increase of surface antigen (HBSAg)
C. The presence of Hepatitis B surface antigen
D. A rising antibody titer against the antigen

55. Which of the following is not characteristic of congenital syphilis?
A. Ghon complex
B. Interstitial keratitis
C. Mulberry molars
D. Notched incisors

56. Which is not the sign and symptom of diabetes mellitus in the followings?
A. Polydipsia
B. Polyuria
C. Loss of weight and strength
D. Decreased appetite

57. Which of the following non hepatitis virus most commonly cause hepatitis?
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Epstein Barr Virus
C. Herpes simplex virus
D. Yellow fever virus

58. Sign of hypoglycemia include the following EXCEPT:
A. Sweating
B. Mental confusion
C. Extensor planter
D. Fall of blood pressure

59. In a patient of head injury, Which is more important to note first?
A. Pupillary light reflex
B. Pupillary size
C. Corneal reflex
D. Ability to open eye

60. Which of the following is better indicator of need for transfusion?
A. Urine output
B. Hematocrit
C. Color of skin
D. Clinical examination

61. Colloid bodies are seen in:
A. Odontogenic keratocyst
B. Radicular cyst
C. Lichen planus
D. Pemphigus vulgaris

62. Unerupted teeth which present a ghost like radiographic appearance represent a form of:
A. Amelogenesis imperfecta
B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
C. Shell teeth
D. Regional odontodysplasia

63. The recurrence of pleomorphic adenoma is attributed to:
A. Presence of an incomplete capsule
B. Mixed origin
C. Absence of capsule
D. Perineural spread

64. The thickness of spinous layer is known as:
A. Acanthosis
B. Hyperorthokeratosis
C. Carcinoma in situ
D. Parakeratosis

65. Alcohol shows maximum antiseptic activity at:
A. 10% 
B. 50%
C. 70%
D. 99%

66. The epithelial rest sheath of Malassez are found in:
A. Enamel
B. Dentin
C. Pulp
D. Periodontal ligament

67. Bifid crown with single root is due to:
A. Fusion
B. Gemination
C. Dilaceration
D. Lingual invagination

68. Constant feature associated with radicular cyst is:
A. Impacted tooth
B. Missing tooth
C. Non vital tooth
D. Anomalous tooth

69. Which one of the following diseases does not involve skin?
A. Pemphigus vulgaris
B. Cicatrical pemphigoid
C. Bullous pemphigoid
D. Lichen planus

70. Which of the following is the most frequent cause of ankylosis of the TMJ?
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Traumatic injury
C. Congenital syphilis
D. Traumatic occlusion

71. Anesthesia of the cheek, lip and nose may be present in which of the following fractures?
A. Le fort I fracture
B. Zygomatic complex fracture
C. Fracture of the zygomatic arch
D. Fracture of the nasal bone

72. A contraindication to local infiltration technique:
A. Hypertension
B. Diabetic patient in which urine sugar present
C. Infection in the arch (Alveolar bone)
D. Kidney problems

73. Level of analgesia is best monitored by:
A. Eye movements and absence of corneal reflex
B. Eye movements and absence of conjunctival reflex
C. Respiration rate, rhythm and type of respiratory movement
D. Verbal response

74. Among the following, in which patient GA is contraindicated?
A. An adult male over 65 years of age
B. Patient with acute respiratory infection
C. Child under 6 years of age
D. Patient with wheel compensated heart disease

75. All of the following are mediators of inflammation EXCEPT:
A. Tumor necrosis factor
B. Interleukin-1
C. Myeloperoxidase
D. Prostaglandins

76. Prothrombin time is increased in:
A. Von willebrand’s disease
B. Haemophilia
C. Warfarin therapy
D. Liver disease

77. If extraction is to be done on haemophilic patient, factor VII should be at least: 
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%

78. A cartridge of LA contains 1:200000 adrenaline, it indicates that there is:
A. 0.005 mg/ml of adrenaline
B. 0.065 mg/ml of adrenaline
C. 0.0125 mg/ml of adrenaline
D. 0.02 mg/ml of adrenaline

79. The duct of sublingual gland is known as:
A. Bartholin duct
B. Stenson duct
C. Nasopalatine duct
D. Wharton duct


80. In oral surgery procedures, prophylactic antibiotics must be given in:
A. Post operative coronary artery bypass graft
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Rheumatic fever
D. Myocardial infarction

81. Hyper-orthokeratosis, acanthosis, saw tooth appearance of rete-pegs, liquefaction necrosis of basal layer of cells are seen in:
A. Lupus erythematosus
B. Psoriasis
C. Lichen planus
D. Pemphigus

82. The thickness of base of dental X ray film is:
A. 0.18 mm
B. 0.8 mm
C. 1.2 mm
D. 1.8 mm

83. Hairy tongue is characterized by hypertrophy of which of the following papillae?
A. Foliate
B. Filiform
C. Fungiform
D. Circumvallate

84. The most reliable single histological criterion for a diagnosis of oral squamous cell carcinoma is:
A. Invasion 
B. Degeneration
C. Pleomorphism
D. Encapsulation

85. What type of X ray is to be taken in suspected middle third face fracture?
A. Lateral oblique view of face
B. Occipital mental view of maxilla
C. Posterior anterior view of mandible
D. OPG view of mandible

86. The most common type of pigmented nevus is:
A. Junctional nevus
B. Intramucosal nevus
C. Compound nevus
D. Melanoacanthoma

87. Canker sore is an example of:
A. Pemphigus
B. Lichen planus
C. Recurrent aphthous ulcer
D. Erythema multiforme

88. Median rhomboid glossitis is due to:
A. Inflammation of the tongue
B. Persistence of tuberculum impar
C. Hypertrophy of filiform papillae
D. Atrophy of filiform papillae

89. A white patch that cannot be rubbed off from oral mucosa and not related to any other disease is a feature of:
A. Lichen planus
B. Erythroplakia
C. Leukoplakia
D. Squamous cell carcinoma

90. Filters are used in X ray beam to:
A. Increase contrast
B. Reduce film density
C. Remove low energy X ray radiation
D. Reduce film density

91. Cleft palate occurs due to disturbances in the following weeks of intrauterine life:
A. 5-8
B. 6-8
C. 12-14
D. 8-10

92. The classic ‘adenoid face’ is associated with:
A. Thumb sucking
B. Mouth breathing
C. Tongue thrusting
D. Nail biting

93. Milwaukee brace wear for treatment of scoliosis leads to:
A. Class III malocclusion due to retarded growth of maxilla
B. Class II malocclusion due to retarded growth of mandible
C. Class III malocclusion due to overgrowth of mandible
D. Class II malocclusion due to overgrowth of maxilla

94. Functional appliance should be best used during following period of growth and development:
A. Prepubescent
B. Pubescent
C. Adulthood
D. Adolescence

95. The plane which connect orbitale and porion refers to:
A. Frankfort horizontal plane
B. Bolton’s Plane
C. Occlusal plane
D. Mandibular plane

96. Which of the following classifications classify malocclusion in all the three planes?
A. Angle’s
B. Dewey’s
C. Simon’s
D. Bennet’s

97. Increased vertical overlap is referred to as:
A. Overbite
B. Overjet
C. Deep bite
D. Open bite

98. In cephalometrics, the Frankfort plane is constructed:
A. Horizontally from nasion through porion
B. Horizontally from nasion to the superior aspect of external auditory meatus
C. Vertically from orbitale through the maxillary canine
D. Horizontally from orbitale to the superior aspect of external auditory meatus

99. Methods  of bite opening include which of the following?
A. Intrusion of both anterior and posterior teeth
B. Extrusion of both anterior and posterior teeth
C. Intrusion of anterior and extrusion of posterior teeth
D. Intrusion of posterior and extrusion of anterior teeth

100. Simple retraction of maxillary incisors using maxillary molars as anchorage is an example of:
A. Simple anchorage
B. Reciprocal anchorage
C. Stationary anchorage
D. Intermaxillary anchorage




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